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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old male patient comes in with a recent onset headache that has...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male patient comes in with a recent onset headache that has been bothering him for the past 5 days. He reports experiencing facial pain, fevers, a dry cough, thin yellow discharge from his nose, and nasal congestion. His temperature is normal at 37.4ºC and he experiences pain when pressure is applied to his maxillary area.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, what would be the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Analgesia

      Explanation:

      For this patient with acute sinusitis, analgesia is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate facial pain. Cefalexin, a broad-spectrum antibiotic, is not typically recommended for sinusitis, especially if it is suspected to be caused by a viral trigger. Intranasal corticosteroids should only be considered for chronic sinusitis or if symptoms persist for 10 days or more. Intranasal decongestants can provide short-term relief for nasal symptoms, but their long-term use can lead to dependence. Therefore, simple analgesia is the best option for this patient.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      6.8
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  • Question 2 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the General Practitioner with symptoms consistent...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the General Practitioner with symptoms consistent with otitis media, which have started in the last 48 hours. On examination, there is a perforation of the tympanic membrane and purulent discharge from the ear. The child has a temperature of 36.5 °C and her heart rate is within normal parameters.
      What would be the most appropriate treatment in this situation?

      Your Answer: Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat immediately

      Correct Answer: Start oral antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Otitis Media in Children: Treatment Options

      Acute otitis media is a common childhood infection that can cause pain, fever, and hearing loss. When managing this condition, healthcare providers have several treatment options to consider. Here are some possible approaches:

      Immediate Oral Antibiotics: If the child has otorrhoea or bilateral infection, or is under two years old, immediate oral antibiotics are recommended. Parents should be informed that the typical duration of acute otitis media is around three days, but it can last up to one week.

      Delayed Antibiotics: In cases where otorrhoea and tympanic perforation are absent, or the child presents at an earlier stage, a prescription for delayed antibiotics may be appropriate. Parents should be advised on when to start the antibiotics, such as if the child experiences persistent fevers or worsening pain.

      Oral Decongestants: According to guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), decongestants are not recommended for the management of acute otitis media.

      Referral to Ear, Nose and Throat: Immediate referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist is necessary if the child is younger than three months and has tympanic perforation, shows signs of systemic sepsis, or has complicated otitis media (e.g., venous sinus thrombosis, meningitis, or mastoiditis). If none of these features are present, starting with oral antibiotics is reasonable.

      Analgesia Only: While analgesia can help alleviate pain, it should not be the only treatment offered if the child has a perforation and otorrhoea. Antibiotics should also be prescribed in this case.

      Treatment Options for Acute Otitis Media in Children

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      11.5
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up of tests for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up of tests for hearing loss, which were arranged by another physician in the same practice. He works as a construction worker and attributes his hearing difficulties to years of exposure to loud machinery. He has no significant medical history.

      Upon further questioning, he reports that his hearing loss and tinnitus only affect his left ear, while his right ear seems normal. The problem has been gradually worsening over the past six months. The hearing test confirms no hearing loss affecting the right ear.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Trial of betahistine

      Correct Answer: Contrast MRI brain

      Explanation:

      Consider Acoustic Neuroma in Patients with Unilateral Hearing Loss and Tinnitus

      Whilst acoustic neuroma is a rare condition, it should be considered in patients who present with unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus, especially if the other ear appears unaffected. A contrast MRI brain is the most appropriate next step to confirm or rule out the diagnosis.

      In contrast to Ménière’s disease, which is a possible differential diagnosis but usually not associated with unilateral signs, symptoms of vertigo are not prominent in acoustic neuroma. Therefore, trials of vestibular suppressants such as betahistine are ineffective, and prochlorperazine is not recommended.

      It is important to note that hearing loss in acoustic neuroma is progressive, and choosing a hearing aid option may delay intervention. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      6.8
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  • Question 4 - A 30 year old female smoker presents with painful aphthous ulcers and has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female smoker presents with painful aphthous ulcers and has been using a topical analgesic (benzydamine hydrochloride gel) for 3 weeks without relief. There is no indication of joint or bowel issues in her medical history or physical examination. She is in good health otherwise. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to secondary care

      Explanation:

      If an oral ulcer persists for more than 3 weeks without explanation, it is important to refer the patient to secondary care urgently to rule out the possibility of malignancy. While smoking is a risk factor for both oral malignancy and aphthous ulcers, it is not a reason for referral. Interestingly, quitting smoking can actually make aphthous ulcers worse. Over-the-counter local analgesics like Difflam (benzydamine hydrochloride) and Bonjela can provide relief from symptoms, but there is no evidence that they can reduce the frequency or duration of ulceration. Some evidence suggests that antibacterial mouthwashes (such as chlorhexidine) and topical corticosteroids (such as hydrocortisone oromucosal tablets) can help to shorten the duration and severity of symptoms, but they do not reduce the frequency of recurrence.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 5 - A middle-aged woman of Chinese origin presents to you in surgery to discuss...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman of Chinese origin presents to you in surgery to discuss her recurrent nosebleeds. They started 3 months ago and have been occurring unprovoked with increasing frequency. She is not on any anticoagulants, has never had any previous episodes of unexplained or excessive bleeding, and has no family history of any bleeding disorders. On further questioning, the nosebleeds always seem to be from the right nostril which feels a bit blocked. She has tried 2 weeks of Naseptin (chlorhexidine dihydrochloride and neomycin sulfate nasal cream) with no change in her symptoms. She mentions that the previous GP she saw asked about weight loss which she denied at the time, however, she volunteers that she has been tightening her belt more now. Blood tests reveal normal coagulation screen, haemoglobin within the normal range and a thrombocytosis. What condition is it most important to investigate for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasopharyngeal cancer

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines advise referring patients with recurrent epistaxis and a high risk of underlying disorders to ear, nose and throat for investigation. This patient, who is of Chinese origin and has recurrent nosebleeds, nasal obstruction, and weight loss, is at high risk of nasopharyngeal cancer due to his ethnicity and age. The full blood count results show thrombocytosis, which may indicate malignancy. Hereditary telangiectasia and Von Willebrand’s disease are unlikely due to the absence of a family history and the onset of nosebleeds in later life. Nasal polyps do not typically cause epistaxis, but may present with nasal obstruction, postnasal drip, snoring, or obstructive sleep apnoea. The patient’s age rules out angiofibroma as a possible cause, as this benign tumour typically occurs in pre-pubescent and adolescent males and is rare over the age of 25.

      Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

      Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.

      To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset of unilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset of unilateral sensorineural deafness. She has no prior history of ear issues and is not currently taking any medications.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Unilateral Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Idiopathic unilateral sudden sensorineural hearing loss (ISSHL) is a rare condition characterized by a sudden loss of hearing in one ear, often accompanied by tinnitus, vertigo, and aural fullness. The exact cause of ISSHL is not well understood, but it may be linked to viral infections, vascular issues, or immune-mediated inner ear disease.

      Patients with ISSHL should be referred for urgent treatment, typically involving corticosteroids. Other treatment options include low molecular weight dextran, carbogen, hyperbaric oxygen, low-density lipid apheresis, aciclovir, and stellate ganglion block. However, there is limited evidence to support the effectiveness of any one treatment.

      Many patients with ISSHL are admitted to the hospital, but fortunately, spontaneous recovery rates are generally good. Studies have reported recovery rates ranging from 47-63%, although different criteria for recovery were used in each study.

      In summary, ISSHL is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. While treatment options exist, the evidence for their effectiveness is limited, and many patients may recover spontaneously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 7 - A 25 year old male smoker presents with multiple, painful aphthous ulcers, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old male smoker presents with multiple, painful aphthous ulcers, he puts this down to stress at work. He only gets ulcers on his tongue and oral mucosa. He is otherwise well. He has never had any joint or bowel symptoms. He reports several previous episodes similar to this one, with painful oral ulceration lasting a week or two, dating back to when he was a teenager.

      What signs or symptoms should prompt an immediate referral to secondary care for this 25 year old male smoker with recurrent painful oral ulcers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unexplained red and white patches of the oral mucosa that are painful, swollen, or bleeding

      Explanation:

      To identify potential oral ulceration red flags, one should look out for unexplained ulcers or masses in the oral mucosa that persist for more than three weeks, as well as red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding. If symptoms or signs related to the oral cavity persist for more than six weeks and a definitive diagnosis of a benign lesion cannot be made, this is also a red flag. While being a smoker is a risk factor for aphthous ulcers, first onset over the age of 30 is atypical and may warrant consideration of an alternative cause, such as trauma to the mouth. However, it is not necessarily an indication for referral. It is important to note that not all ulcers respond to corticosteroids, but if an ulcer has persisted for more than three weeks, an urgent referral is necessary as prolonged ulceration could be indicative of malignancy.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 8 - You see a 30-year-old man who reports an acute onset of reduced hearing...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old man who reports an acute onset of reduced hearing in his left ear. This started suddenly yesterday. He is otherwise well with no ear pain, fevers or systemic upset. Examination of ears and cranial nerves were unremarkable.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call ENT team

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Sudden Hearing Loss in Adults

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in June 2018 to provide recommendations on managing sudden or rapid onset hearing loss in adults. This type of hearing loss is not explained by external or middle ear causes.

      According to the guidelines, an immediate referral is recommended if the hearing loss developed suddenly within the past 30 days. If the hearing loss developed suddenly but it has been over 30 days or if it worsened rapidly, a two-week wait referral is advised. The guidelines also provide further recommendations if there are additional symptoms or signs such as facial droop.

      It is important to note that NICE defines sudden hearing loss as within 3 days and rapid worsening as 4-90 days. These guidelines aim to improve the management and treatment of sudden hearing loss in adults.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old male patient complains of experiencing tinnitus in his left ear for...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient complains of experiencing tinnitus in his left ear for the past two weeks. He describes the sound as a buzz but denies any other accompanying ear symptoms. Upon examination, Otoscopy, Rinne, and Weber tests are all normal. What is the recommended course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral to ENT is necessary for a patient experiencing unilateral tinnitus, even if their examination appears normal. This is because it could be a sign of an acoustic neuroma and requires further investigation.

      While an audiogram could provide additional information, it would not alter the management plan for a GP, which would still involve an urgent referral.

      CBT, reassurance, and white noise may be appropriate for chronic bilateral tinnitus, but not for this patient with unilateral tinnitus.

      Tinnitus is a condition where a person perceives sounds in their ears or head that do not come from an external source. It affects approximately 1 in 10 people at some point in their lives and can be distressing for patients. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom, it can also be a sign of a serious underlying condition. The causes of tinnitus can vary, with some patients having no identifiable underlying cause. Other causes may include Meniere’s disease, otosclerosis, conductive deafness, positive family history, sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, hearing loss, drugs, and impacted earwax.

      To assess tinnitus, an audiologist may perform an audiological assessment to detect any underlying hearing loss. Imaging may also be necessary, with non-pulsatile tinnitus generally not requiring imaging unless it is unilateral or there are other neurological or ontological signs. Pulsatile tinnitus, on the other hand, often requires imaging as there may be an underlying vascular cause. Management of tinnitus may involve investigating and treating any underlying cause, using amplification devices if associated with hearing loss, and psychological therapy such as cognitive behavioural therapy or joining tinnitus support groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of unilateral hearing loss accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of unilateral hearing loss accompanied by otalgia and otorrhoea in the affected ear. He reports feeling otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the ear canal is red and inflamed, but patent, and there is discharge present, indicating an infection. The external ear and mastoid appear normal, and there are no abnormalities detected in the throat or neck. The patient is worried as he is immunocompromised due to treatment for multiple sclerosis.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer routinely to an ear, nose and throat specialist

      Explanation:

      Management of an Immunocompromised Patient with Signs of Infection

      In managing an immunocompromised patient with signs of infection, it is important to consider the potential risk of deterioration related to the infection. According to NICE guidelines, the most appropriate approach would be to start appropriate treatment and arrange a review appointment in 3 days. This allows for monitoring of treatment response and early detection of any potential complications.

      If the patient doesn’t respond to treatment, immediate referral to an ENT specialist is necessary. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor the patient’s condition and ensure prompt action is taken if necessary. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage immunocompromised patients with signs of infection and minimize the risk of complications.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 11 - A 6-year-old boy has a unilateral nasal discharge and a foreign body is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy has a unilateral nasal discharge and a foreign body is seen on that side in the anterior part of the nasal cavity.
      Select from the list the management option that is LEAST APPROPRIATE.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Await spontaneous expulsion

      Explanation:

      Nasal Foreign Bodies: Risks, Complications, and Removal Techniques

      Nasal foreign bodies are a common occurrence, but they should not be taken lightly. Bleeding is the most common complication, but inflammation, mucosal damage, extension into adjacent structures, and infection can also occur. In severe cases, a foreign body can accidentally be aspirated, leading to acute respiratory obstruction. Additionally, foreign bodies in the nose can carry causative organisms of infectious diseases. Therefore, spontaneous expulsion should not be anticipated, and urgent ENT referral may be necessary.

      Successful removal of a nasal foreign body requires a cooperative patient and a doctor experienced and confident in the removal technique. Several methods are available, including blowing positive pressure through the nose, using forceps or suction, and passing a balloon catheter. The choice of method depends on the type of foreign body and the doctor’s comfort level.

      It is important to note that small button batteries should be removed immediately as they can cause local necrosis if they leak. Topical anaesthetic and vasoconstrictor may be helpful in the removal process. In cases where the patient is uncooperative or the foreign body is in a posterior position, urgent ENT referral is appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment. She was diagnosed with Bell's palsy three weeks ago after experiencing left-sided facial weakness. The GP prescribed a 10-day course of oral prednisolone and provided eye care advice. However, the patient reports no improvement in her symptoms since then.

      During the examination, the patient appears healthy but still has left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing. The rest of her cranial nerve examination is normal, and there is no indication of middle ear disease.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist

      Explanation:

      If a patient with Bell’s palsy doesn’t show any improvement in paralysis after 3 weeks, it is recommended to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist. This will allow for further investigation into other potential causes of facial weakness, including neuroimaging. It is not appropriate to reassure the patient that symptoms can take up to 3 months to resolve if there has been no improvement. Prescribing a further course of prednisolone or treating with oral aciclovir is not recommended. Referring to a plastic surgeon may be appropriate for facial reconstructive surgery, but usually only after a longer period of residual paralysis.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 13 - A 9-year-old girl undergoes pinnaplasty.
    What is the most significant risk of the surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl undergoes pinnaplasty.
      What is the most significant risk of the surgery that should be discussed with her parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imperfect result

      Explanation:

      Pinnaplasty: A Solution for Congenitally Prominent Ears

      Congenitally prominent ears can have a significant impact on a child’s emotional and behavioral well-being. Pinnaplasty, also known as otoplasty, is a surgical procedure that aims to improve the appearance of the auricle. It is typically performed on children between the ages of 5 and 14, but can be done at any age.

      During the procedure, an incision is made behind the ear in the natural fold where the ear meets the head. The necessary amount of cartilage and skin is removed to achieve the desired effect. In some cases, the cartilage may also be trimmed and reshaped before being pinned back with permanent stitches.

      While pinnaplasty is generally safe, incomplete correction of prominent ears is the most common undesirable outcome. Other potential complications include postoperative bleeding or fluid accumulation, infection, and scarring.

      It’s important to note that pinnaplasty only addresses the external ear and doesn’t involve the middle ear or eardrum. As such, other complications are unlikely to occur. Overall, pinnaplasty can be an effective solution for those seeking to improve the appearance of congenitally prominent ears.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo for the past 3 days. She reports feeling like 'the room is spinning' when she turns over in bed or looks upwards, lasting for about 10 seconds each time. She experiences some nausea but denies vomiting, hearing loss, or tinnitus. The patient states that she has been feeling generally well lately.

      What is the examination technique used to diagnose the probable condition in this case, and what are the expected results of this examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre-rotatory nystagmus

      Explanation:

      If rotatory nystagmus is observed during the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, it is likely that the patient has benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). This is supported by the patient’s history of vertigo lasting less than 1 minute when changing head position. The Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is the recommended examination by NICE to diagnose BPPV and can provoke rotatory upbeat nystagmus.

      It is important to note that while the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is specific to BPPV, it produces rotatory nystagmus rather than vertical nystagmus. The Epley manoeuvre is used as a treatment for BPPV, not as a diagnostic tool.

      Unterberger’s test is not used to diagnose BPPV, but rather to assess vertigo and examine for labyrinth dysfunction, which may be associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man presents with left-sided hearing loss that has been gradually worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with left-sided hearing loss that has been gradually worsening over the past few months. He reports no pain or discharge and has been using olive oil drops for three weeks with no improvement. Upon examination, the right ear appears normal, but the left external auditory canal is obstructed by impacted earwax.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suggest sodium bicarbonate drops

      Explanation:

      When olive oil drops fail to remove impacted earwax, sodium bicarbonate drops can be used as an alternative treatment. This is recommended by NICE as a first line treatment for 3-5 days. Sodium bicarbonate drops can be purchased over-the-counter without a prescription.

      In the past, GP surgeries would offer ear canal irrigation as a treatment option. However, this has been slowly withdrawn in recent years. If drops alone have failed, ear canal irrigation may still be recommended if there is local provision.

      earwax removal by ENT is generally not funded on the NHS unless certain qualifying criteria are met, such as previous ear surgery. Antibiotic ear drops are not indicated as there is no evidence of infection.

      Ear candling is not recommended as a treatment option.

      Understanding earwax and Its Impacts

      earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of recurrent episodes of 'dizziness'. These episodes usually...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of recurrent episodes of 'dizziness'. These episodes usually last for 30-60 minutes and happen every few days. The patient experiences a sensation of the room spinning and often feels nauseous during these attacks. Additionally, there is a 'roaring' sensation in the left ear. Otoscopy shows no abnormalities, but Weber's test indicates localization to the right ear. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      The Weber’s test in sensorineural hearing loss indicates that the sound is perceived more strongly in the ear opposite to the affected ear.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old patient comes in for an emergency appointment reporting left-sided ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient comes in for an emergency appointment reporting left-sided ear pain for the past two days. Upon waking up today, she noticed that her face was drooping on the left side and she was unable to fully close her left eye. Based on these symptoms, you suspect a diagnosis of Bell's Palsy. If you were to ask the patient to raise her left eyebrow, what would you expect to find and why?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to raise the left eyebrow as Bell's palsy is due to a lower motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of recurrent nosebleeds...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of recurrent nosebleeds from his right nostril over the past week. The bleeding lasts for about 30 minutes but is not severe. The patient has a history of ischemic heart disease and is on regular medication of aspirin 75 mg and atorvastatin 40 mg. He denies any allergies and has no other significant medical history. On examination, there is no visible bleeding point, and all vital signs are normal. What is the most appropriate management for this patient, in addition to general epistaxis advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe topical Naseptin (chlorhexidine/neomycin) cream

      Explanation:

      Recurrent nosebleeds without any concerning symptoms can be effectively treated with Naseptin cream, which contains chlorhexidine and neomycin. While severe cases may require emergency care, mild cases can be managed in primary care. According to NICE guidelines, topical treatment with Naseptin cream is a suitable first-line approach.

      If the nosebleeds are heavy but not currently active, persist despite topical treatment, or the patient is taking anticoagulant medication, referral to an ENT ‘hot clinic’ may be necessary. If the nosebleeds continue to recur despite treatment, referral to an ENT outpatient clinic for SPA ligation may be considered.

      In primary care, silver nitrate cautery may be attempted if a clear bleeding point can be identified and the healthcare provider has the appropriate skills and experience. However, patients should not stop taking antiplatelet medication without consulting their healthcare provider.

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.

      Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, exacerbation factors such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia can trigger nosebleeds. Other causes include hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and cocaine use.

      If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures such as sitting with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Cautery should be used initially if the source of the bleed is visible, while packing may be used if cautery is not viable or the bleeding point cannot be visualized.

      Patients that are haemodynamically unstable or compromised should be admitted to the emergency department, while those with a bleed from an unknown or posterior source should be admitted to the hospital. Epistaxis that has failed all emergency management may require sphenopalatine ligation in theatre. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing nosebleeds.

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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old male construction worker had recently noticed a decline in his hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male construction worker had recently noticed a decline in his hearing ability in both ears. As a child, he had experienced several ear infections, including a severe one during a bout of measles that impacted his education. There was no history of deafness in his family. During examination, his tympanic membranes appeared intact, but there were calcified scars anterior to the handle of the malleus in both ears. The Rinne test was positive in both ears, and the Weber test was central in both anterior and posterior positions. Striking the 256 cps tuning fork firmly was necessary to achieve the desired volume. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic acoustic trauma

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Deafness in Middle Age

      The patient’s medical history indicates a likelihood of tubotympanic problems associated with serous otitis during childhood, as evidenced by scarred tympanic membranes. However, it is unlikely that these issues would cause recent deafness in middle age. The results of the Rinne and Weber tests, using a more accurate tuning frequency of 512, suggest bilateral sensorineural deafness. With no family history, idiopathic premature deafness is less likely.

      Ossicular chain disruption is typically a result of direct trauma and is more likely to be unilateral. Given that building workers are often unregulated when it comes to hearing protection, the probable diagnosis is chronic acoustic trauma.

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  • Question 20 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic for follow-up. She reports feeling increasingly...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic for follow-up. She reports feeling increasingly fatigued and overwhelmed with caring for her grandchild. Additionally, she has noticed a hoarse voice and persistent tiredness. She has no significant medical history and has never smoked. She has also been experiencing constipation and has started taking daily senna. On examination, her blood pressure is 115/75 mmHg, pulse is 55 and regular, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. She has a smooth, non-tender goiter. Laboratory results show Hb 118 g/L (115-165), WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10), PLT 180 ×109/L (150-450), Na 131 mmol/L (135-145), K 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5.5), and Cr 99 µmol/L (70-110). What test or investigation would be most helpful in clarifying the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C reactive protein

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Hypothyroidism

      In this case, the patient presents with symptoms of tiredness, weight gain, and bradycardia on examination, along with a smooth non-tender goitre and low sodium on U&E testing. These clues suggest a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be confirmed through thyroid function testing. C reactive protein is a nonspecific result that may indicate possible infection or inflammation, while a chest x-ray can help rule out chest pathology as an alternative cause for the hyponatraemia. If the thyroid function testing is normal and the chest x-ray is unremarkable, an ENT referral may be appropriate. Ultrasound is indicated if there is a suspicion of nodularity within the thyroid gland. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage hypothyroidism in patients.

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  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old man presents with minor bleeding from the gums during tooth brushing,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with minor bleeding from the gums during tooth brushing, as evidenced by blood on the toothbrush and on spitting out during tooth brushing. There is no pain, lymphadenopathy, fever, or other systemic manifestation of disease. On examination of the teeth and gums, reddened, mild-to-moderately swollen gingivae are observed throughout the mouth.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gingivitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gingivitis and Periodontal Disease

      Gingivitis is a common condition characterized by inflammation of the gums, often caused by dental plaque. If left untreated, it can progress to periodontitis, which affects the ligaments and bone supporting the teeth. Risk factors include poor oral hygiene, smoking, and diabetes. Treatment involves managing oral hygiene and using antiseptic mouthwashes, but it’s important to see a dentist for proper care.

      Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis, also known as Vincent’s disease, is a painful form of gingivitis that can cause ulcers and bleeding. It’s caused by bacteria already present in the mouth and can be treated with antibiotics.

      Periodontal disease is a common problem in HIV-infected patients and can present as necrotising ulcerative periodontitis or linear gingival erythema. These conditions can occur even in clean mouths with little plaque or tartar.

      Bleeding gums can also be a symptom of leukaemia and platelet disorders. It’s important to seek medical attention if you experience persistent bleeding or other oral health issues.

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  • Question 22 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She is on day 7 post-tonsillectomy and was recovering well until this morning when her mother noticed a small amount of blood on her pillow and fresh red blood in her mouth. Upon examination, the girl appears to be in good health, but there is a blood clot in her right tonsillar fossa with no active bleeding. Her vital signs are as follows:

      Systolic blood pressure: 100 mmHg (normal range: 75-110)
      Pulse: 96 bpm (normal range: 80-150)
      Temperature: 36.8ºC (normal range: 35.5-37.5)
      Respiratory rate: 24/min (normal range: 17-30)

      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate referral to ENT

      Explanation:

      ENT assessment is necessary for all cases of post-tonsillectomy haemorrhage.

      Any haemorrhage occurring more than 24 hours after a tonsillectomy is considered a secondary haemorrhage and can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial that all patients are managed by ENT in a hospital setting. Children may have difficulty quantifying blood loss as they may swallow the blood, making bleeding less noticeable.

      It is incorrect to review the patient in 24 hours as this is an emergency situation. Similarly, reassuring the patient or referring them to paediatrics is not appropriate. Although tranexamic acid may be helpful, hospital admission is necessary for this surgical emergency and should be managed by ENT.

      Complications after Tonsillectomy

      Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, like any surgery, it carries some risks and potential complications. One of the most common complications is pain, which can last for up to six days after the procedure.

      Another complication that can occur after tonsillectomy is haemorrhage, or bleeding. There are two types of haemorrhage that can occur: primary and secondary. Primary haemorrhage is the most common and occurs within the first 6-8 hours after surgery. It requires immediate medical attention and may require a return to the operating room.

      Secondary haemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. It is less common than primary haemorrhage, occurring in only 1-2% of all tonsillectomies. Treatment for secondary haemorrhage usually involves admission to the hospital and antibiotics, but severe bleeding may require surgery.

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  • Question 23 - You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit and well 36-year-old woman who has come to see you in your GP clinic. She developed her symptoms over a few hours yesterday and now can not hear at all through her left ear. Her examination shows no obvious external or middle ear causes.

      What is your next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her for assessment within 24 hours by an ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      Immediate referral to an ENT specialist or emergency department is necessary for individuals experiencing acute sensorineural hearing loss. This is considered an emergency and requires urgent audiology assessment and a brain MRI. According to NICE CKS guidelines, individuals with sudden onset hearing loss (unilateral or bilateral) within the past 30 days, without any external or middle ear causes, should be referred within 24 hours. Additionally, those with unilateral hearing loss accompanied by focal neurology, head or neck injury, or severe infections such as necrotising otitis externa or Ramsay Hunt syndrome should also be referred urgently. Referral to a specialist other than ENT or non-urgent referral options are incorrect.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
    Which of the following statements about...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
      Which of the following statements about this condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may be precipitated by overzealous use of cotton buds

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Myths and Facts

      Otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer’s ear, is a condition that affects the skin of the external ear canal. Here are some common myths and facts about this condition:

      Myth: Otitis externa is always bacterial in origin.
      Fact: While bacterial pathogens are frequently involved, viral and fungal pathogens may also be seen, particularly after prolonged use of corticosteroid drops.

      Myth: If adequately treated, otitis externa is unlikely to recur.
      Fact: Otitis externa is commonly recurrent, especially in the presence of a predisposing factor, such as a chronic underlying skin disease, immunodeficiency or diabetes.

      Myth: Systemic complications are common.
      Fact: Severe infections may cause local lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Rarely, infection may invade the deeper adjacent structures and progress to necrotising (malignant) otitis externa, a condition that can cause serious morbidity and also mortality. This is mainly seen in immunocompromised individuals, particularly people with diabetes.

      Myth: The use of aminoglycoside antibiotics is contraindicated.
      Fact: In a patient who doesn’t have grommets or a perforated eardrum, aminoglycosides (eg gentamicin) or polymyxin drops are not contraindicated. When the eardrum is not intact, there is concern about ototoxicity. If necessary, they can be used in these circumstances, with caution, by specialists.

      Debunking Myths About Otitis Externa

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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old child presents with a sore throat and polymorphous rash. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child presents with a sore throat and polymorphous rash. He has had a fever for five to six days. He is well, drinking fluids, not vomiting, and passing urine normally.

      On examination, he is alert, well hydrated with no photophobia or neck stiffness. His temperature is 38.7°C, HR 140, RR 30, and CRT<2 sec. His chest is clear.

      He has generalised blanching macular rash and bilateral conjunctival injection. His lips are dry and chapped, tonsils are erythematous with no exudate. His eardrums look normal and he has moderate cervical lymphadenopathy. Urine dipstick is positive for protein and leucocytes.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give penicillin V, take throat swab and send home with worsening advice

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a leading cause of acquired heart disease in children in the UK. Although its prevalence is low, the risk of complications is high due to late diagnosis. As such, it is important to have a good understanding of the disease, which may be tested in the AKT exam.

      The exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, but it is believed to be due to a microbiological toxin. If left untreated, it can lead to coronary aneurysms. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, consider it in children with fever lasting over five days and who have four of the following five features: bilateral conjunctival injection, change in mucous membranes in the upper respiratory tract, change in the extremities, polymorphous rash, or cervical lymphadenopathy. In rare cases, incomplete or atypical Kawasaki disease may be diagnosed with fewer features.

      To help remember the features of Kawasaki disease, think All Red + Cervical Lymphadenopathy. This stands for red eyes, red mouth, red rash, red hands, and cervical lymphadenopathy. By being aware of these symptoms, healthcare professionals can diagnose and treat Kawasaki disease promptly, reducing the risk of complications.

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  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old female presents with severe right-sided ear pain, muffled hearing, and watery...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents with severe right-sided ear pain, muffled hearing, and watery discharge for the past 3 days. The patient also reports intense itching in the affected ear. Upon examination, the tympanic membrane is intact, but the external auditory canal is inflamed, red, and swollen with purulent debris and wax. Pulling the pinna causes the patient significant pain. The mastoid process is normal and not tender to palpation. Rinne's and Weber's tests confirm conductive hearing loss. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotic + a topical steroid for 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management

      Otitis externa is a prevalent condition that often prompts primary care visits in the UK. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and can be caused by bacterial or fungal infections, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger for otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal may appear red, swollen, or eczematous.

      The recommended initial management for otitis externa is the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. If there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, and if the canal is extensively swollen, an ear wick may be inserted. Second-line options include taking a swab inside the ear canal, considering contact dermatitis secondary to neomycin, or using oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin if the infection is spreading. Empirical use of an antifungal agent may also be considered.

      It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, they should be referred to an ENT specialist. Malignant otitis externa is a more severe form of the condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics. While some ENT doctors disagree, concerns about ototoxicity may arise with the use of aminoglycosides in patients with perforated tympanic membranes.

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  • Question 27 - Liam is a 26-year-old man who complained of hearing loss and was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 26-year-old man who complained of hearing loss and was diagnosed with bilateral impacted wax. Despite using olive oil drops for a week, there was no improvement.

      What other options can be considered at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate drops

      Explanation:

      When attempting to remove impacted earwax, it is recommended to try olive oil drops first. If this method is unsuccessful, other options such as almond oil drops, sodium bicarbonate drops, and sodium chloride drops can be considered. Otomize and betamethasone ear drops are commonly used for treating otitis externa. It is important to avoid attempting to remove earwax through ear candling or the use of cotton buds.

      Understanding earwax and Its Impacts

      earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.

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  • Question 28 - An 77-year-old-man presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent right ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 77-year-old-man presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent right ear pain and discharge. He was previously diagnosed with otitis externa and prescribed antibiotic ear drops by a colleague, followed by further antibiotic drops and tramadol by an out of hours doctor. However, his symptoms have not improved and the pain has become unbearable.

      The patient has a medical history of type-2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, and takes metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, and atorvastatin regularly. He has no known drug allergies and doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.

      Upon examination, debris is observed in the right ear canal, but the tympanic membrane remains visible. There is no erythema of the pinna or mastoid swelling, and cranial nerve examination is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to on-call ENT team

      Explanation:

      If a patient with otitis externa experiences worsening pain that doesn’t respond to strong painkillers, it is important to refer them urgently to an ENT specialist. This is especially true if the patient has a history of diabetes, as they are at a higher risk of developing malignant (necrotising) otitis externa. In advanced stages, this condition can cause facial nerve palsy on the same side as the affected ear. Treatment typically involves a long course of intravenous antibiotics, which is why prompt ENT assessment is crucial.

      While oral antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin may be prescribed alongside ear drops if there is concern about deep tissue infection, most patients will require IV antibiotics. However, the priority in this situation is to escalate the case to an ENT specialist rather than focusing on pain relief or swabbing the ear canal. It is also important to avoid syringing the ear, as this can worsen the condition.

      Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection

      Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.

      Key features in the patient’s history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and persistent ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and facial nerve dysfunction.

      Diagnosis is typically done through a CT scan, and non-resolving otitis externa with worsening pain should be referred urgently to an ENT specialist. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonas infections.

      In summary, malignant otitis externa is a rare but serious infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with diabetes or immunosuppression should be particularly vigilant for symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience persistent ear pain or other related symptoms.

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  • Question 29 - A 3-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME), or ‘glue ear’. Insertion of ventilation tubes (grommets) has been recommended. His parents are unsure whether to proceed and ask the GP about the benefits.
      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), which of the following is most improved due to this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The Short and Long-Term Effects of Grommet Insertion for Otitis Media with Effusion

      Grommet insertion is a common surgical procedure for children with otitis media with effusion (OME). However, it is important to understand the short and long-term effects of this procedure.

      Short-term hearing improvement is the only proven benefit of grommet insertion, with evidence showing improvement for up to 12 months after surgery. However, the effect diminishes after six months and grommets only remain effective while they are in place, which is usually an average of ten months.

      In terms of behaviour and cognitive development, there is no evidence-based association between grommet insertion and improvement. Adaptations at school, such as seating arrangements, can help with educational attainment for children with OME.

      Similarly, there is little evidence that grommet insertion improves speech and language development in the long term. Instead, parents and caregivers should focus on supporting speech and language development through activities such as daily reading.

      Overall, while grommet insertion can provide short-term hearing improvement, it is important to consider other factors when making decisions about treatment for OME.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) and is concerned about the likelihood of recurrence. He reports multiple episodes of the room spinning when he moves his head, lasting 30 seconds to 1 minute. You explain that while symptoms often resolve without treatment over several weeks, the Epley manoeuvre can be offered to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is a driver, is disabled by his symptoms and would like to know the chances of recurrence over the next 3-5 years.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Approximately 50% of individuals diagnosed with BPPV will experience a relapse of symptoms within 3 to 5 years.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

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