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Question 1
Correct
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A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.
What condition is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 6-year-old girl who has presented with symptoms of high fever, white spots on the mouth, conjunctival injection, and a blotchy red rash. You suspect measles infection. Her father asks how many days she should stay home from school?
Your Answer: Keep out of school for 48 hours after symptoms resolve
Correct Answer: Keep out of school for 4 days from onset of rash
Explanation:If a child is diagnosed with measles, they should not attend school for at least four days after the rash appears.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease
Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.
The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an extremely tender right testicle that started four hours ago. There was no history of trauma or concurrent medical illness.
During the examination, the right testicle was found to be retracted and lying horizontally, but it was too painful to palpate fully. The left hemiscrotum appeared normal.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hydrocoele
Correct Answer: Torsion
Explanation:Torsion: A Serious Condition with Limited Treatment Window
A short history of severe pain without any other symptoms should be considered as torsion. It is crucial to note that even if other symptoms are present, torsion should not be overlooked as there is only a limited time frame for treatment. A horizontal-lying testis is a typical indication of torsion, although it may not always be visible. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing torsion and preventing any long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. He was prescribed Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100 mcg prn via a spacer before discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Add a long-acting beta agonist
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.
For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy had a seizure associated with a fever of 38.2°C. He fully recovered and he was thought to have had a febrile convulsion. Now that he has had a seizure his parents are anxious about his future.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?Your Answer: Further childhood immunisations are contraindicated
Correct Answer: He has only a small increase in risk of developing epilepsy
Explanation:Febrile Seizures: Risk Factors, Recurrence, Immunizations, and Management
Febrile seizures are common in young children and can be a cause of concern for parents. Here are some important points to keep in mind:
Risk Factors: The likelihood of epilepsy increases if the child has a complex febrile seizure (prolonged seizure, multiple seizures or seizure with focal features), if there is a neurological abnormality, if there is a family history of epilepsy and if the duration of fever was less than one hour before the seizure. Without these features, there is only a small increase in risk compared with the general population.
Recurrence: Recurrent febrile seizures occur in about 30% of cases. Risk factors for later recurrences of febrile seizures include onset before 18 months, a seizure with a lower temperature close to 38°C, a shorter duration of fever (less than one hour) before the seizure and a family history of febrile seizures.
Immunizations: Childhood immunizations should continue even if the febrile seizure followed an immunization. Immunization doesn’t increase the risk of further seizures.
Management: Antipyretic drugs may be given to reduce fever but there is no evidence they reduce the number of febrile seizures. Anticonvulsant drugs should not be routinely prescribed. There is no evidence that intellect is affected, even for children with complex febrile seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A neonate presents with a cleft palate and posterior displacement of the tongue. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Edward's syndrome
Correct Answer: Pierre-Robin syndrome
Explanation:Pierre-Robin syndrome is diagnosed in a baby who has micrognathia and a cleft palate. The baby is positioned in a prone position to alleviate upper airway obstruction. There is no familial history of similar conditions.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl has recently been seen by the dermatologists.
She had some scalp scrapings and hair samples sent to the laboratory for analysis following a clinical diagnosis of tinea capitis. The laboratory results confirmed the diagnosis of tinea capitis and the dermatologists faxed through a letter asking you to prescribe griseofulvin suspension at a dose of 12 mg/kg once daily.
The child weighs 20 kg. Griseofulvin suspension is dispensed at a concentration of 125 mg/5 ml.
What is the correct dosage of griseofulvin in millilitres to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 9 ml
Explanation:Calculation of Griseofulvin Dosage
When calculating the dosage of Griseofulvin for a patient, it is important to consider their weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. For example, if a patient weighs 15 kg and the recommended dose is 15 mg/kg OD, then the total dosage would be 225 mg.
Griseofulvin is available in a concentration of 125 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 25 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, divide the total dosage (225 mg) by the concentration (25 mg/ml), which equals 9 ml. Therefore, the correct dosage for this patient would be 9 ml OD. It is important to carefully calculate and administer the correct dosage to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is least commonly associated with rickets?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced serum alkaline phosphatase
Explanation:Understanding Rickets
Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition is called osteomalacia.
There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and a lack of sunlight.
Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as a rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, craniotabes (soft skull bones in early life), and Harrison’s sulcus.
To diagnose rickets, doctors may check for low vitamin D levels, reduced serum calcium, and raised alkaline phosphatase. Treatment typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
Overall, understanding rickets and its causes can help individuals take steps to prevent this condition and ensure proper bone development and growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 10-week-old boy has not opened his bowels for five days. The mother reports that he is exclusively breastfed. The baby appears healthy, and examination findings are unremarkable. Meconium was passed within the first 24 hours after birth. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the parents that this is usually normal in a breastfed infant
Explanation:Understanding Infant Bowel Movements: Breastfed Babies and Constipation
Breastfed infants tend to have more frequent bowel movements than formula-fed babies, but there is a wide range of normal variation. It is common for breastfed babies to have frequent bowel movements up to six weeks of age due to the gastro-colic reflex. However, it is also normal for breastfed babies to go several days without a bowel movement, sometimes up to 7-10 days. When a bowel movement does occur after a longer period of time, it may be a blow-out of normal consistency and should not cause concern as long as it appears painless.
It is important to note that simple straining to pass stool is also normal and doesn’t necessarily indicate constipation. However, if there are worrying signs such as difficulty with feeding, failure to gain weight, or signs of discomfort, medical attention should be sought.
It is not necessary to give a macrogol laxative unless a diagnosis of constipation is made. Additionally, introducing baby food containing fruit and vegetables is not appropriate for exclusively breastfed infants. Prune juice may help with constipation, but it is not recommended for infants until they are weaned at 4-6 months.
Overall, as long as the baby is well and examination is normal, there is no need for urgent referral to hospital. However, if constipation appears during the first few weeks of life, it may be a sign of a more serious condition such as Hirschsprung’s disease, which requires medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A concerned mother brings her 6-month-old baby daughter to see you because her testicles seem to be absent from the scrotum. Her father has a history of undescended testicles and there are no other health concerns.
On examination, she appears well and seems to have normal sexual development other than bilateral undescended testicles.
How would you manage this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to a specialist to be seen within 2 weeks
Explanation:Management of Bilateral Undescended Testes
The management of bilateral undescended testes differs from that of unilateral undescended testes. If a child presents with bilateral undescended testes, urgent referral should be made to be seen within 2 weeks. This is because undescended testes, especially those presenting later in life, pose a risk of developing future malignancy. Boys and young men with a history of undescended testes should be advised to perform regular testicular self-examination during and after puberty to monitor for testicular cancer.
Furthermore, if there are bilateral undescended testicles at birth, it is important to consider whether there is a disorder of sexual development requiring further urgent genetic or endocrine investigation. In such cases, referral for specialist investigation should be made within 24 hours. It is crucial to recognize the significance of bilateral undescended testes and take appropriate action to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have noticed that he has developed a skin rash and bruising over last 24-36 hours.
The parents report that he has previously been a well child with no serious past medical problems or hospital admissions. The only time they have sought medical attention in the past has been for the occasional upper respiratory tract infection but these have been infrequent.
He last had a viral upper respiratory tract infection about 7-10 days ago. The parents managed this at home without the need for medical assessment as the symptoms were not severe.
On examination he appears well in himself with no temperature, and is interacting and playful. However there is marked superficial bruising and purpura over his trunk and legs. You also note four blood blisters on his tongue. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly and the remainder of the clinical examination is unremarkable with normal urine on dipstick testing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children
This condition is the most common cause of low platelets in children and occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction. It typically affects children between 2 and 10 years of age, with onset occurring one to two weeks after a viral infection. Children with this condition develop purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. While intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it is serious. However, in the vast majority of cases, ITP is an acute and self-limiting condition.
While acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) can also present with abnormal bruising, the history and clinical features of this child are more suggestive of ITP. Other features of ALL include malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, which are not present in this case.
Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome is a triad of acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. Patients are typically very unwell. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) typically presents with a palpable purpura that affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces, along with arthralgia, abdominal pain, and renal problems. Meningococcal septicaemia can also cause purpura, but affected patients are seriously unwell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old baby boy is being evaluated. Two weeks ago, a trial of alginate therapy (Gaviscon) was initiated for frequent regurgitation accompanied by discomfort. Unfortunately, there has been no improvement in the symptoms, and the mother now reports that the baby is refusing to eat. There are no other new symptoms, such as a rash or diarrhea, and the baby is gaining weight steadily. He is exclusively bottle-fed, as his mother stopped breastfeeding at 8 weeks of age. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of proton pump inhibitor
Explanation:If alginates/thickened feeds fail to alleviate symptoms in infants with GORD and they exhibit feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth, a trial of PPI is recommended by NICE. However, metoclopramide should not be used without specialist advice due to the risk of side-effects like dystonia. Restarting breastfeeding is not practical once it has stopped, and there is no evidence to suggest that it would improve symptoms. While cow’s milk protein intolerance should be considered as a differential diagnosis, there is currently no indication of this diagnosis. Additionally, it is not advisable to stop milk feeds for such a young baby.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 5-year-old daughter, Lily, to the clinic with concerns about her persistent fever for the past 6 days. Lily has been complaining of a sore throat and her eyes have become red. She has no medical history, allergies, or regular medication. Upon examination, Lily's vital signs are normal except for her high temperature. She has conjunctival injection in both eyes, a red pharynx, and cracked lips. Additionally, she has desquamation on her feet and palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is indicated by a high fever lasting more than 5 days, along with red palms that peel and a strawberry tongue. Symptoms of this condition also include conjunctivitis and cracked lips. It is important to note that Stevens-Johnson syndrome typically involves erythema multiforme with mucosal involvement, while the other conditions listed would not present in this manner.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days, which is resistant to antipyretics. Other features include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms instead of angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease include coronary artery aneurysm, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and treatment of Kawasaki disease can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A concerned father brings his 1-week-old infant to your clinic for a routine check-up. During the examination, you notice bilateral undescended testes. The father is worried and asks what should be done next, in accordance with Public Health England's guidelines for newborn screening.
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient to a paediatrician to be seen within 24-hours
Explanation:Newborns who are found to have bilateral undescended testes during their initial examination should be urgently reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours, as per the current guidelines from Public Health England. This is crucial as bilateral undescended testes may indicate underlying endocrine disorders or ambiguous genitalia, and early intervention can help prevent complications such as infertility, torsion, and testicular cancer.
It is not appropriate to monitor bilateral undescended testes in primary care, unlike unilateral undescended testes which may be monitored. Waiting for 4 months, 12 months, or 24 months is too long and can increase the risk of complications.
Arranging an ultrasound and waiting for the results is also not appropriate as it can take too much time. Urgent referral to a paediatrician is necessary to ensure timely diagnosis and management.
Undescended testis is a condition that affects approximately 2-3% of male infants born at term, but is more common in premature babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, it is recommended to consider referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is important to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is playing outside when she trips and falls, landing on the outside of her left foot. She immediately cries out in pain and looks for help. There is no significant family or personal medical history. She is assisted by a neighbor as she limps inside. She is able to put weight on her foot.
Upon examination, her left ankle is swollen, warm, and shows signs of bruising. She has limited range of motion, particularly with internal rotation, and experiences tenderness along the lateral aspect of the ankle joint below the lateral malleolus, although there is no point tenderness over the malleolus itself.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankle dislocation
Explanation:Ankle Injuries in Children and the Ottawa Ankle Rules
The history of ankle injuries in children suggests a forced internal rotation at the ankle joint, which can cause a sprain of the lateral ligaments. This type of injury requires supportive strapping, analgesia, and graduated mobilization. However, ankle sprains are less common in children than adults because their ligaments are stronger than their growth plates. As a result, the growth plate tends to fracture before the ligament tears.
In some cases, Salter-Harris Type 1 fractures and ligament tears may not show up on radiographs. Therefore, it is important to consider the patient’s history, such as tenderness over the ligament rather than bone and whether the patient is weight-bearing.
The Ottawa ankle rules are helpful in assisting GPs in the management of ankle injuries in adults and determining the need for an x-ray. A recent study published in the BMJ showed that the Ottawa ankle rules are highly accurate at excluding ankle fractures after a sprain injury. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for ankle injuries in children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy is scheduled for his routine immunisations. He has received all previous immunisations according to the routine schedule and has no medical history. What vaccinations should he receive during this visit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: '6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) + Men B
Explanation:PCV in addition to the 6-1 vaccine (which includes protection against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B).
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A childminder brings a boy for his routine 18 month vaccinations. The boy's father is at work and has provided a letter stating that he consents for his son to be vaccinated. The practice nurse is unsure whether it is appropriate to administer the vaccine without the father being present. What should be the nurse's course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The child can have the vaccine
Explanation:Other Aspects of Immunisation
Consent is an important aspect of immunisation, and the Greenbook provides useful information on this topic. Written consent is not required, and a person with parental responsibility may give consent on behalf of a child who is not competent to give or withhold consent. Parental responsibility is defined by the Children Act 1989, and unmarried fathers can acquire it if they are named on the child’s birth certificate. If parents disagree, immunisation cannot go ahead without specific court approval. A person with parental responsibility doesn’t need to be present at the time of immunisation, but the healthcare provider must be satisfied that consent has been given in advance.
Vaccine storage is also crucial to ensure the effectiveness of immunisation. Vaccines should be stored in a fridge at +2ºC to +8ºC and kept in their original packaging to protect them from UV light. The temperature of the refrigerator should be monitored using a maximum-minimum thermometer and recorded daily. Ordinary domestic refrigerators should not be used, and surgeries should keep no more than 2 to 4 weeks’ supply of vaccines at any time. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that vaccines are stored properly and administered safely to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she thinks she is experiencing a lot of pain in her mouth. Upon conducting a thorough assessment of the healthy child, you observe a swollen and tender upper gum with no other abnormalities and diagnose her with teething. What would be the most appropriate advice to give in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and advice simple analgesia and cooling treatments
Explanation:Teething is a natural process where baby teeth emerge through the gums, usually starting around 6 months of age. Symptoms are generally mild and include pain, increased biting, drooling, gum-rubbing/sucking, irritability, wakefulness, and possibly a slight increase in temperature. The recommended initial management is to provide reassurance and advise on self-care measures such as gentle gum rubbing and allowing the child to bite on a clean and cool object. Paracetamol or ibuprofen suspension can be given to infants 3 months or older. It is not recommended to use choline salicylate gels, topical anaesthetics, or complementary therapies like herbal teething powder. A further dental opinion is not necessary as teething is a normal process.
Teething: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options
Teething is the process of primary tooth eruption in infants, which typically begins around 6 months of age and is usually complete by 30 months of age. It is characterized by a subacute onset of symptoms, including gingival irritation, parent-reported irritability, and excessive drooling. These symptoms occur in approximately 70% of all children and are equally prevalent in boys and girls, although girls tend to develop their teeth sooner than boys.
During examination, teeth can typically be felt below the surface of the gums prior to breaking through, and gingival erythema will be noted around the site of early tooth eruption. Treatment options include chewable teething rings and simple analgesia with paracetamol or ibuprofen. However, topical analgesics or numbing agents are not recommended, and oral choline salicylate gels should not be prescribed due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome.
It is important to note that teething doesn’t cause systemic symptoms such as fevers or diarrhea, and these symptoms should be treated as warning signs of other systemic illness. Additionally, teething necklaces made from amber beads on a cord are a common naturopathic treatment for teething symptoms but represent a significant strangulation and choking hazard. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid their use.
In conclusion, teething is a clinical diagnosis that can be managed with simple interventions. However, it is essential to be aware of potential hazards and to seek medical attention if systemic symptoms are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Under what conditions is MMR (measles, mumps and rubella) vaccination not recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV positive individual who is not immunosuppressed
Explanation:MMR Vaccination Contraindications
There are only a few individuals who cannot receive the MMR vaccination. The vaccine should not be given to those who are immunosuppressed, have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of a measles, mumps, or rubella-containing vaccination, or have a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to neomycin or gelatin. Pregnant women should also avoid the vaccine due to a theoretical risk of fetal infection. However, true anaphylaxis following the MMR vaccination is rare, occurring at a rate of 3.5 to 14.4 per million doses. If a minor allergic reaction occurs, it is not a contraindication to future vaccination. Inactivated vaccines are safe for pregnant women, but should only be used if protection is needed without delay. It is recommended to consult with a specialist or local immunisation coordinator for further advice if there is any doubt.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma. She has been using inhaled treatment for the past 12 months and is currently taking salbutamol as needed and a very low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) daily. She has been using the very low dose ICS at the current dose for the past six months. Her parents report that she still needs to use her salbutamol on most days of the week, but never more than once a day. On clinical examination, her chest is clear and there are no focal cardiorespiratory findings. Her inhaler technique is good and there are no issues with compliance. Based on BTS/SIGN guidelines, what is the most appropriate plan for her current management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the inhaled corticosteroids to a low daily dose
Explanation:Treatment Ladder for Asthma in Children
Here we have a 7-year-old child who is currently on a regular inhaled very low dose corticosteroid and salbutamol PRN for asthma. However, despite the regular inhaled steroid, the child still requires salbutamol most days, indicating suboptimal control and the need for treatment escalation.
To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the most well-recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step should be to add in an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist or an LTRA (Leukotriene receptor antagonist) if over 5 years old. If the child was under 5 years old, then an LTRA alone would be added.
It is important to note that higher inhaled corticosteroid doses are treatment options further up the ladder, and theophylline would not normally feature in the primary care setting. Continuing the same treatment with review in 12 months is not appropriate as the child’s current disease control is suboptimal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of paroxysms of colicky central abdominal pain and bile-stained vomiting. The abdomen feels full and tender. Some red mucous has been passed from the rectum.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain in Children: Intussusception as the Most Likely Diagnosis
Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in young children. It occurs when a section of bowel invaginates into the section next to it, leading to the sloughing off of ischaemic bowel mucosa and the characteristic redcurrant jelly stool. In most cases, the cause of intussusception is unclear, but in some cases, a pathological lead-point may be present. Meckel’s diverticulum is the most common lead-point, but an enlarged Peyer patch caused by a viral infection may also be a factor.
Other potential causes of abdominal pain in children include intestinal duplication, appendicitis, and Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). Intestinal duplication is a rare congenital malformation that may present as a solid or cystic tumor, intussusception, perforation, or bleeding. Appendicitis is most common in older children and typically presents with central abdominal pain that localizes to the right iliac fossa. HSP may cause abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea, but it is typically accompanied by a purpuric rash, which is absent in this scenario.
Overall, given the age of the patient and the presence of a tender mass in the upper abdomen and emptiness in the right lower quadrant, intussusception is the most likely diagnosis. A lead-point may be present, making non-operative reduction unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl from a Somali immigrant family has been experiencing discomfort in her arms and legs. Upon examination, you observe that she also has bow legs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Rickets and its Risk Factors in Dark-Skinned Populations
Rickets is a condition that affects bone development in children, and dark skin is a risk factor for this condition in certain populations. In the United Kingdom, South Asian, African Caribbean, and Middle Eastern descent populations are particularly at risk. A study conducted in Bristol found that most cases of rickets were among Somali patients. The study identified 31 children with vitamin D deficiency, seven of whom had bone or limb pain, seven had bow legs or swollen joints, one had convulsions, and one had respiratory difficulty. Twelve children were asymptomatic and diagnosed through screening after a family member was found to have vitamin D deficiency. Fibromyalgia, infantile tibia vara, juvenile chronic arthritis, and physiological bow leg deformity are not related to rickets. It is important to identify and address risk factors for rickets in order to prevent and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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As a GP in central London, you see a 10-year-old Polish boy with his mother. The mother reports that her son has been feeling unwell for the past four days with a runny nose and sticky eyes. Yesterday, he developed a fever of 39.1 ºC and a rash on his face. The rash has now spread all over his body, and he has lost his appetite but is drinking well. When asked about his immunization history, the mother is unsure of what he has had.
During the examination, the patient appears coryzal and has small white spots on the inside of his cheeks. He also has a rash with flat red blotches on his face and brown blotches on his torso. All his observations are within normal limits. Based on these findings, you suspect that the patient has measles.
The mother asks how long her son needs to stay off school.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 days from the onset of the rash
Explanation:If a child develops measles, they should not attend school for four days after the rash appears. Measles is a highly contagious viral disease that can be severe, especially for those with weakened immune systems, young infants, and pregnant women. The best way to prevent measles is through vaccination, but there have been recent outbreaks in unvaccinated individuals in London. While the UK has achieved elimination of measles, there are still small clusters of cases. Symptoms of measles include a runny nose, cough, fever, and rash. Cases are infectious for four days before and after the rash appears, so it’s important to keep them out of school during this time. Public health officials should be notified if there is a suspected case of measles to control outbreaks through testing, contact tracing, and immunization.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy has been experiencing pain in his left hip and knee, causing him to stop playing rugby for the past month. There was no known injury, but his symptoms have worsened in the last 24 hours. Despite having an upper respiratory tract infection the week before, he is currently feeling well with no fever. He took one of his mother's co-codamol 30/500 an hour ago, which provided some relief. However, he is unable to walk without assistance.
During the examination, his knee appears normal, but his hip tends to externally rotate when flexed. He is in the 95th percentile for weight, but all other observations are normal. He is currently taking 50 mcg of levothyroxine daily for hypothyroidism.
What would be the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange emergency admission under orthopaedics
Explanation:Slipped Upper Epiphysis: Diagnosis and Treatment
Slipped upper epiphyses are more common in overweight boys aged 10-15 and are associated with obesity and hypothyroidism. Patients often present with pain, which may be referred to the knee, and it is important to examine the hips thoroughly. On examination, abduction and internal rotation may both be reduced, and the affected leg may be shortened. The key findings supporting the diagnosis are the presence of risk factors and gait abnormalities.
Slipped epiphyses can be classified as acute, chronic, or acute on chronic, and as unstable or stable. In the case of unstable slipped epiphysis, urgent surgical repair is necessary to prevent avascular necrosis. Stable slipped epiphysis is usually treated with in situ screw fixation, and prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip may also be considered.
In the primary care setting, emergency admission under orthopaedics is necessary for patients with acute and unstable slipped epiphysis. For chronic and stable cases, x-ray is the first line investigation, and U&Es, serum TFTs, and serum growth hormone may also be considered.
In summary, early diagnosis and appropriate treatment are crucial in managing slipped upper epiphysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 16-month-old girl presents with her mother to the General Practitioner, as her mother is concerned about her lack of energy and poor appetite. The girl drinks six 200-ml bottles of doorstep cow’s milk each day but eats very little at mealtimes. She is thriving (weight 97th centile) and examination is normal.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 87 g/l 110–140 g/l
White blood count (WBC) 11 × 109/l 5–17× 109/l
Neutrophils 4.1 × 109/l 1–8.5× 109/l
Lymphocytes 5.9 × 109/l 1.5–9.5× 109/l
Platelets 357 × 109/l 150–400× 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume 65 fl 72–84 fl
What is the likely underlying cause of this patient’s presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Overconsumption of cow’s milk
Explanation:Possible causes of microcytic anaemia in a 9-month-old child
Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by a low level of haemoglobin (Hb) in red blood cells, along with small cell size. In a 9-month-old child, this can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is overconsumption of cow’s milk, which is low in iron but high in calories. This can lead to a lack of appetite and subsequent deficiencies in vitamins and minerals, especially iron. Another possible cause is folic acid deficiency, which typically results in megaloblastic anaemia rather than microcytic anaemia. Calorie deficit is unlikely in a child with a high weight percentile. Inflammatory bowel disease is rare in infancy and not supported by the given information. Finally, it is worth noting that a normal physiological fall in Hb occurs after birth, but by 6 months of age, the Hb level should be within the range of 110-140 g/l. Treatment for microcytic anaemia may involve dietary education and oral iron supplementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding developmental dysplasia of the hip is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20% of cases are bilateral
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be screened for using ultrasound in infants with certain risk factors or through clinical examination using the Barlow and Ortolani tests. Other factors to consider include leg length symmetry, knee level when hips and knees are flexed, and restricted hip abduction in flexion. Ultrasound is typically used to confirm the diagnosis, but x-rays may be necessary for infants over 4.5 months old. Management options include the Pavlik harness for younger children and surgery for older ones. Most unstable hips will stabilize on their own within 3-6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl who is in good health is placed in foster care. There is no known medical history of any significant illnesses in her biological family.
What can be said about her situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He will require 6-monthly medical examinations by a doctor
Explanation:All children who are in long-term foster care must undergo a medical examination every six months. This is a legal requirement. It is important to note that once a child reaches the age of five, a yearly examination is sufficient. The Fostering Services 2002 Regulation 6 and Review of Children’s Cases Regulations 1991 state that the responsible authority must arrange for the child to receive a health assessment by a registered medical practitioner or registered nurse under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner. The assessment must be carried out at least once every six months before the child’s fifth birthday and at least once every twelve months after the child’s fifth birthday, unless the child refuses the assessment and is of sufficient understanding. It is important to follow these regulations to ensure the health and well-being of children in foster care.
Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old boy has a history of recurrent chest infections requiring antibiotics. In addition, his weight gain is poor, dropping from 50th centile at birth to 5th currently. His mother reports that his stools are always loose. His mother and father are well and he has no siblings.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis (CF)
Explanation:Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and Other Possible Causes of Recurrent Infections in Children
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the secretion and absorption of sodium and chloride, leading to problems in the respiratory, gastrointestinal, pancreatic, and reproductive systems. While CF is the most common lethal genetic disorder affecting Caucasian children, it can present at any age and is now often detected through newborn screening. Frequent antibiotic use can lead to the development of resistant bacterial strains, but it is unlikely to be the sole cause of recurrent symptoms in a child. Other possible causes include Crohn’s disease, immunodeficiency, and, rarely, sarcoidosis. It is important to maintain a high index of suspicion and seek medical attention for children with frequent infections and other concerning symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A Health Visitor has requested a review of a 9-month-old girl who is not reaching out for objects. The mother reports that the child is able to sit with support and has started to crawl.
Which is the single most appropriate initial intervention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to Paediatrics
Explanation:Referral and Support for Children with Developmental Delays
Children who present with delays in their development require a thorough assessment to identify the underlying cause. In cases where delays are observed in one area, such as fine motor development, a full developmental assessment with a Paediatrician is recommended. The Paediatrician can then refer the child to other services, such as Physiotherapy, Audiology, and Speech and Language Therapy, as needed.
Concerns regarding hearing, speech, and language development should prompt a referral to Audiology. While congenital hearing problems are usually detected via newborn screening tests, it is important to consider hearing loss in children presenting with developmental concerns.
Offering reassurance is not always sufficient, especially if a child is unable to reach out for objects by six months. In such cases, further assessment is necessary.
Health Visitors play a crucial role in monitoring children with developmental concerns and offering support to parents. Parents can contact the Health Visiting service directly without a referral from primary care.
Physiotherapy can be helpful in children presenting with delays in gross motor development. However, for children with concerns regarding fine motor development, a review by a Paediatrician is necessary before considering a referral to Physiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You see a 10-week-old baby boy with his father. He was born at 40+5 without complication. He is breastfeeding well but his father is concerned as he vomits small amounts of milk after most feeds, approximately a tablespoon full. He doesn't seem distressed by the vomiting and is growing along the 75th centile. He has wet and full nappies. He would like some treatment for the regurgitation.
What would be your initial recommendation for managing this infant's regurgitation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: This infant requires observation but no treatment initially, and review if worsening or weight loss
Explanation:Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a common condition in infants that usually resolves by the age of one. If the infant is not bothered by the GOR and doesn’t experience any complications, observation is sufficient. However, parents should monitor for worsening symptoms, weight loss, or complications. If the infant is distressed or has complications, they may have gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) and require treatment. Alginate therapy, such as Gaviscon® Infant, is the first-line treatment for breastfed infants with GORD.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A mother has brought her 7-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck. She says that the lump is painless and has been present for several months.
On examination you find a 3 cm, non-tender cervical lymph node. You can also see some scratch marks over his trunk.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Differences in Presentation of Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is characterized by the presence of painless cervical and/or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, although it can also occur in other areas. The progression of the disease is usually slow, taking several months. Most patients do not experience systemic symptoms such as fever, night sweats, or itching.
On the other hand, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma tends to progress more rapidly and may present with a variety of symptoms, including lymphadenopathy, shortness of breath, SVC obstruction, and abdominal distension.
To summarize, while both types of lymphoma can present with lymphadenopathy, the rate of progression and accompanying symptoms can differ significantly. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerning symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl has been suffering from constipation and soiling for many months and her mother feels that something needs to be done now that she is starting school. She was born after a normal delivery and had no problems until the age of three. On physical examination, the only obvious abnormality is a loaded colon.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check for related symptoms of systemic disease
Explanation:Approach to Constipation in Children: Consider Systemic Disease and Avoid Stimulant Laxatives and Enemas
Constipation in children can have various organic causes, such as anorectal malformations, but when a systemic disease is the underlying issue, other symptoms of that disease are likely to be present. Therefore, it is important to check for related symptoms of systemic disease. For instance, hypothyroidism may cause constipation along with a goitre, slow growth, weight gain, and intolerance to cold. Diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus may cause constipation due to associated polyuria.
Stimulant laxatives may be necessary in some cases, but macrogols should be the first-line treatment for constipation in children. Hirschsprung’s disease is a possible cause of chronic constipation, but it usually presents early in life, and functional constipation is more common. Reassuring parents that their child will grow out of constipation is not advisable, as prompt treatment can help resolve symptoms sooner.
Enemas should be avoided if possible, as they can cause emotional and physical trauma. If necessary, the child should be admitted to the hospital for this procedure. Overall, a thorough evaluation of the child’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the best approach to managing constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old girl presents with rash and high fever.
A diagnosis of measles is suspected.
Which one of the following statements is true concerning measles infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The erythematous maculopapular rash usually starts on the hands
Explanation:Measles: Key Points to Remember
– Prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles.
– Koplik spots are a unique symptom of measles.
– Erythromycin doesn’t reduce the duration of measles.
– The MMR vaccine is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age.
– The rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications, particularly in young children. It is important to remember that prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles, and erythromycin doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. One unique symptom of measles is the presence of Koplik spots, which are small white spots that appear on the inside of the mouth. The MMR vaccine is the most effective way to prevent measles and is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age. Finally, it is important to note that the rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 34
Incorrect
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You see a 14-year-girl. She tells you she has intercourse with her boyfriend and wants to start on the pill. Her boyfriend is aged 15.
You discuss the situation with her and are satisfied that she understands your advice and is sufficiently mature to make decisions of this kind on her own.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should prescribe the pill
Explanation:Understanding Gillick and Fraser Competence
When it comes to prescribing contraception to minors, healthcare professionals may refer to the terms Gillick competence and Fraser competence. These terms are often used interchangeably, but some authorities use Fraser competency specifically when discussing contraception.
Gillick competence refers to a minor’s ability to make decisions about their own healthcare without parental consent. This includes decisions about contraception, but also extends to other areas of consent. Fraser competence, on the other hand, specifically relates to a minor’s ability to understand the risks and benefits of contraception and make an informed decision about using it.
In either case, healthcare professionals must assess the minor’s level of understanding and maturity before prescribing contraception without parental consent. If the minor is deemed competent, they have the right to make their own decisions about their healthcare, including the use of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old mother of three sons brings her 18-month-old youngest son to the clinic concerned about his development.
Which of the following should he be able to perform by this age?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can walk unaided
Explanation:Childhood Development Milestones
At around 16 months, a child should be able to walk without assistance, with the average age for achieving this milestone being 12 months. Additionally, they should be able to assist with dressing themselves at this age. However, building a tower of four cubes and scribbling with a pencil are not expected until around two years old. By this age, the child should also understand the meaning of no and be able to appropriately state mama and dada. These are important developmental milestones to keep in mind as a child grows and develops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about children with special educational needs (SEN) is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A special educational needs coordinator (SENCO) is a paediatrician who specialises in education
Explanation:A teacher who specializes in coordinating special educational needs is known as a SENCO.
Special educational needs (SEN) refer to children who have a greater difficulty in learning compared to their peers or have a disability that hinders their access to educational facilities. When a child is struggling, a review called ‘School Action’ is conducted by the school and parents to determine what can be done. If outside help is required, such as from an educational psychologist or speech therapist, the review is called ‘School Action Plus’. However, if these actions are not sufficient, a formal statement of educational needs may be necessary.
To assess children who may require help, a special educational needs coordinator (SENCO) is a teacher who specializes in this area. The statement of SEN should be made and reviewed annually to ensure that the child’s needs are being met. The Education Act 1993 aimed to provide early intervention to children with SEN.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has lost 5 kg in weight over the last six months. Examination confirms a thin teenager with obvious pallor.
What is the most appropriate test to investigate possible malabsorption?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease Testing: Differentiating Between IgA tTGAs, IgA Gliadin Antibodies, IgA EMAs, HLA Genetic Testing, and IgG tTGAs
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. While small-bowel biopsy is the most reliable way to diagnose coeliac disease, IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) are the preferred initial investigation. This test is highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease, but should not be performed on children younger than two years as it may give a false negative result.
It is important to note that around 0.4% of the population has selective IgA deficiency, which can lead to a false-negative result. In such cases, the laboratory should measure IgA levels. Some laboratories may do this routinely when measuring tTGAs.
IgA gliadin antibodies are not commonly used to diagnose coeliac disease. Instead, IgA EMAs are autoantibodies against tissue transglutaminase type 2 (tTGA2) and are highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease. However, IgA EMAs should be measured if IgA tTG is only weakly positive.
HLA genetic testing is not recommended for diagnosing coeliac disease in primary care. Coeliac disease is strongly associated with the genes HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, but testing for these genes is not necessary for diagnosis.
Finally, IgG tTGAs should only be considered in people who are IgA deficient to avoid the risk of a false-negative IgA tTGA result.
In summary, understanding the differences between these tests is crucial in accurately diagnosing coeliac disease and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 38
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about meningitis in newborn infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It always presents as a febrile illness
Explanation:Sepsis in Newborns: Apnoeic Episodes and Potential Consequences
Sepsis is a common issue in newborns, often presenting as apnoeic episodes. In the initial stages, the fontanelle may appear normal. The most frequent cause of sepsis in newborns is group B Streptococcus, which can be acquired during or after delivery. Unfortunately, the mortality rate for infants with sepsis is between 5-15%. Even those who survive may experience long-term consequences such as learning difficulties, speech problems, visual impairment, or neural deafness. Additionally, meningomyelocele is a risk factor for the introduction of meningeal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old girl comes in with a unilateral purulent nasal discharge and worsening bad breath over the past few days. However, she doesn't exhibit any systemic symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic rhinitis
Explanation:Unilateral Discharge in Children: A Possible Sign of Foreign Body
The occurrence of unilateral discharge in an otherwise healthy child may indicate the presence of a foreign body, especially in this age group. It is important to consider the child’s history to determine the possible cause of the discharge. If a foreign body is suspected, prompt removal is necessary to prevent further complications. Fortunately, removal of the foreign body is usually curative and can alleviate the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 40
Incorrect
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In your clinic you see a 6-year-old child who has arrived in the United Kingdom from India with bowed legs, muscle spasms and a pigeon chest.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Childhood disintegration disorder
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her mother. She has been experiencing a cold for the past few days but has been generally healthy and has not had a fever. Her mother has brought her to see you because she has developed some spots over the past day. During the examination, the child is cooperative and happy, with a normal heart rate and capillary refill time. She has a runny nose and her throat appears inflamed, but there is no exudate. You also notice a small ulcer on her mucous membranes. There are two small red papules at the edge of her lower lip, and there are a few vesicles and red papules on the palmar aspect of her hands. Her chest is clear, and her tympanic membranes are normal.
What is the recommended duration for keeping her away from daycare?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No exclusion required
Explanation:Children with hand foot and mouth infection can attend school or nursery as long as they are well enough to do so, and do not need to be excluded. This is because the infection is typically mild and self-limiting. However, if the child has a fever, they should be kept at home. It is important to note that exclusion periods for other illnesses, such as Chickenpox, rubella, measles, scarlet fever, and impetigo, differ from those for hand foot and mouth. For more information on exclusion periods, refer to the Public Health Agency website.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old girl is brought to clinic by her father, who complains she is ‘having difficulty breathing’. A harsh inspiratory stridor is heard. You suspect that she may have tracheomalacia.
Which of the following would support this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stridor which worsens when the child is supine
Explanation:Understanding Laryngomalacia: A Common Condition in Young Babies
Laryngomalacia, also known as congenital laryngeal stridor, is a condition that affects many young babies. It is caused by delayed maturation of the cartilage in the larynx, which leads to collapse of the supraglottic larynx during inspiration. This results in a noisy respiration and an inspiratory stridor, which is typically more noticeable when the baby is in a supine position, feeding, crying, sleeping, or during intercurrent illness.
While there may be gastro-oesophageal reflux, the child is otherwise well and there is no associated upper respiratory discharge. However, infants with laryngomalacia may have difficulty coordinating the ‘suck-swallow-breathe’ sequence needed for feeding due to their airway obstruction.
It is important to note that respiratory distress is uncommon, and if there is tachypnoea, it is only mild and there is no reduction in oxygen saturation. Additionally, a barking cough is not a typical symptom of laryngomalacia. The classic symptom is inspiratory stridor, which may be increased when the child has an upper respiratory infection.
While symptoms may initially worsen, they typically resolve by 18-24 months without the need for treatment. However, if the stridor is worsening, other diagnoses should be considered. Overall, understanding laryngomalacia can help parents and caregivers better recognize and manage this common condition in young babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy complains of abdominal pain that has been causing him to miss school for the past two months. What factor suggests an organic cause rather than a functional one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frequent diarrhoea
Explanation:Understanding Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children
Recurrent abdominal pain is a common issue among children that can disrupt their daily activities. It is often not accompanied by any organic pathology and tends to occur frequently, with at least three episodes in three months. The pain is usually located in the central abdomen and can be severe enough to affect the child’s activities.
While there are many possible organic causes for recurrent abdominal pain, diagnostic investigations are only recommended for children with alarm symptoms or signs. These include involuntary weight loss, slowing of linear growth, gastrointestinal blood loss, significant vomiting, chronic severe diarrhea or constipation, unexplained fever, pain localized away from the central abdomen, or a family history of inflammatory bowel disease.
It is important to note that persistent right-upper or right-lower-quadrant pain should raise more concern. Headache is more likely to occur in children with non-organic recurrent abdominal pain, and pain relieved by defecation is usually a feature of irritable bowel syndrome and doesn’t match the features in this scenario.
Recurrent abdominal pain can lead to increased functional impairment in everyday life, such as school absences. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the distinction between organic disease, functional disorders, and emotional factors to provide appropriate care for children experiencing this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 44
Incorrect
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You are a GP working in general practice. Aisha is a 3-year-old girl who is seen on your emergency list with her dad. She has a three-day history of runny nose, dry cough and a low-grade fever. During the examination, you observe a palpable abdominal mass. The rest of her examination is normal.
What would be your next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to paediatrics (within 48 hours)
Explanation:Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.
If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.
Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck.
Which of the following characteristics would worry you the most and would warrant an urgent referral?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Firm, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
Explanation:When to Worry About Lymph Node Enlargement in Children
Lymphadenopathy, or lymph node enlargement, is a common occurrence in children. In most cases, it is benign and resolves on its own. However, there are certain characteristics that warrant urgent referral to a healthcare provider. These include non-tender, firm or hard lymph nodes, nodes larger than 2 cm, progressively enlarging nodes, general ill-health, fever or weight loss, involvement of axillary nodes (in the absence of local infection or dermatitis), or involvement of supraclavicular nodes.
It is important to note that these characteristics are particularly concerning if there is no evidence of local infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A father brings his 3-year-old home-schooled daughter to a pediatrician concerned about her developmental progress, particularly her physical abilities. He mentions that his friends' children her age are able to climb stairs, throw a ball, dress themselves partially, and ride a tricycle. However, his daughter is unable to do any of these things. During the examination, she is only able to stack four blocks and can draw a straight line. She speaks in 2-word phrases, with no being a common response, and imitates frequently. Based on her abilities, what is her developmental age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-years-old
Explanation:The milestones of development are categorized into gross motor skills, fine motor skills, vision, speech and hearing, and social behavior and play. For children who are -years old, they should be able to run, climb stairs, construct a tower using 6 cubes, replicate a vertical line, use 2-word phrases, eat with a spoon, dress themselves with a hat and shoes, and engage in play activities with other children.
Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones
Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.
In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.
It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby girl has been brought into the GP by her father. They visited three weeks ago because the baby was experiencing vomiting and regurgitation after feeds. They were given alginate suspension at the time but this has not helped. Today, the baby is still experiencing troublesome symptoms and is now refusing feeds.
What would be the next appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4-week trial of omeprazole suspension
Explanation:If an infant with GORD is experiencing troublesome symptoms even after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor. This is in line with NICE guidelines.
Opting for a 2-week trial of omeprazole is not advisable as it may not be sufficient to alleviate the symptoms.
Continuing with alginate suspension alone is not appropriate as the symptoms have worsened since starting the treatment.
Ranitidine is no longer recommended due to the presence of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NMDA) in formulations from multiple manufacturers. Nitrosamines, which are carcinogens commonly found in smoked fish, are linked to high rates of oesophageal and gastric cancer in East Asian countries.
If metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is used, it should be done so with caution and under the supervision of a specialist.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Your health visitor wants to put up a sign in the child health clinic drawing attention to vitamin D supplementation for infants, and she wants to check the recommendation with you.
Advice from PHE is that infants under the age of one should consider taking a daily supplement containing how much vitamin D, during autumn and winter?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 micrograms
Explanation:New advice on vitamin D supplements
The latest advice from Public Health England (PHE) recommends that adults and children over the age of one should consider taking a daily supplement containing 10mcg of vitamin D, especially during autumn and winter. Those who are at a higher risk of vitamin D deficiency, such as people who have little or no exposure to the sun, those who cover their skin when outside, and people with dark skin from African, African-Caribbean, and South Asian backgrounds, are advised to take a supplement all year round. This advice is based on a review by the Scientific Advisory Committee on Nutrition (SACN), which identified these groups as being at risk of vitamin D deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned that she is not making the required progress with respect to speech development.
What could you tell the parents about speech and language expectations in this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 20-30 words vocabulary would be expected by this age
Explanation:Speech Delay in Children: Possible Causes and Exclusions
Speech delay is a common issue that affects 3-10% of all children, with boys being 3-4 times more likely to experience it than girls. One possible cause of speech delay in older children is elective mutism, which can be assessed through proper diagnosis. However, before progressing to other investigations, it is important to exclude deafness as a possible cause. Other factors that should be excluded include social and environmental deprivation, disorders of metabolism, and degenerative nervous diseases, which are rare possibilities. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause of speech delay, children can receive the necessary support and intervention to improve their communication skills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man attends clinic rather worried because he has heard that one of his friends has got mumps.
He says that he did not have mumps as a child and doesn't think he has had any immunisations against it. He has heard that adult men can become infertile following mumps and wants to know if he is at risk of this if he gets mumps.
What percentage of post-pubertal males who contract mumps will develop orchitis as a complication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less than 1%
Explanation:Mumps Orchitis: Symptoms and Complications
Mumps orchitis is a common complication affecting around 25% of adult males who develop mumps. The condition is treated symptomatically with analgesia and scrotal support. Although up to 50% of those affected may experience some testicular shrinkage, it doesn’t necessarily lead to infertility. Other complications include pancreatitis (4%) and oophoritis (5% of post-pubertal women). Deafness, either unilateral or bilateral, is also a well-recognized complication, but it is less common.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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