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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old male presents to his GP after receiving the results of his...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male presents to his GP after receiving the results of his recent blood tests. He had initially complained of aches and pains a week ago, specifically in his shoulders and hips, which had been progressively worsening over the past 3 months. Upon examination, bilateral pain is noted in both the shoulders and hips, which is exacerbated by movement. No signs of muscular atrophy or weakness are observed. What would be the primary investigation recommended for the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ESR and CRP

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient’s symptoms. The pain affecting both the pelvic and shoulder girdle in a bilateral manner, without any signs of weakness or wasting, is typical of this condition. Additionally, the patient’s age and gender are also consistent with a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      The recommended first-line investigation for this condition is to check the blood inflammatory markers, specifically the ESR and CRP. These markers are often elevated in polymyalgia rheumatica and typically return to normal levels following steroid treatment. An antibody screen is not necessary as this condition is not associated with auto-antibodies.

      A full-body MRI is not appropriate as it is not a specific test for polymyalgia rheumatica and is typically reserved for more invasive investigations. Ultrasound of the affected joints is also not necessary as there are no structural abnormalities associated with this condition that would be detected by this test. Similarly, X-rays of the shoulders and hips would not aid in the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica as they do not provide visualization of the muscle.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A study was conducted to evaluate the characteristics of a new questionnaire for...

    Correct

    • A study was conducted to evaluate the characteristics of a new questionnaire for assessing the quality of life in a population of elderly individuals. One thousand participants were evaluated using the reference gold standard. Six hundred and fifty had reduced QoL according to the reference, while 350 had normal scores and all underwent the new questionnaire. The researchers found that the sensitivity was 92%, the specificity was 85%, the positive predictive value was 92%, and the negative predictive value was 85%. If the test is applied to a population with a different prevalence of elderly individuals, which value will be impacted?

      Your Answer: Positive predictive value

      Explanation:

      The Relationship between Sensitivity, Specificity, Predictive Values, and Disease Prevalence

      When it comes to medical testing, sensitivity and specificity are two important features that are not affected by the prevalence of the disease being tested for. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of true positives (people with the disease who test positive) out of all the people who actually have the disease. Specificity, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of true negatives (people without the disease who test negative) out of all the people who do not have the disease.

      Likelihood ratios are calculated from sensitivity and specificity and can help determine the usefulness of a test. However, positive and negative predictive values are also important measures that are influenced by disease prevalence. Positive predictive value is the proportion of people who test positive for the disease who actually have it. This value is higher when the prevalence of the disease is high. Conversely, negative predictive value is the proportion of people who test negative for the disease who actually do not have it. This value is higher when the prevalence of the disease is low. these relationships can help healthcare professionals interpret test results and make informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old male presents with delayed wound healing ten days after a varicose...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male presents with delayed wound healing ten days after a varicose vein surgery. The wound in the thigh is now painful and red. A swab of the ulcer shows a significant presence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What antibiotic would be suitable for treating this infection?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      MRSA in Hospital Settings

      MRSA, or Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, is a common issue in hospitals. Patients may carry the bacteria without showing any symptoms, or they may develop an infection. In fact, around 40-50% of hospitalised patients with MRSA will experience an infection. These infections can manifest in various ways, such as surgical wounds, ulcers or venous access sites, and hospital-acquired pneumonias. It is crucial to treat MRSA infections, and the drug of choice is vancomycin since the bacteria is resistant to other antibiotics. MRSA and its potential impact on hospitalised patients is essential for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further spread of the bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man with elevated intraocular pressure is prescribed dorzolamide eye drops. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with elevated intraocular pressure is prescribed dorzolamide eye drops. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic receptor agonist

      Correct Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Dorzolamide is a type of medication that works as a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old woman who has often presented with various physical complaints is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman who has often presented with various physical complaints is diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder. Despite receiving low intensity psychological interventions, her symptoms remain unchanged. What medication would be the most suitable next step in her treatment?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old homeless man is discovered unresponsive on the pavement. Upon arrival at...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old homeless man is discovered unresponsive on the pavement. Upon arrival at the emergency department, blood tests are conducted, revealing an abnormality - Amylase 1100 U/l. An ultrasound is performed, indicating no biliary tree dilatation. What is the probable reason for this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man with end stage renal failure due to IgA nephropathy underwent...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with end stage renal failure due to IgA nephropathy underwent a kidney transplant from a deceased brainstem donor and experienced successful primary graft function. After being discharged eight days post-surgery, his creatinine levels stabilized at 85 umol/l with regular clinic visits. However, at seven weeks post-transplant, his creatinine levels increased to 190 umol/l despite being asymptomatic. As a result, he was admitted for further evaluation. What would be your initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Request a renal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s sudden rise in creatinine after stent removal suggests obstruction leading to hydronephrosis. This is the most likely diagnosis, but other possibilities include acute rejection, calcineurin toxicity, infection, or surgical complications. A renal ultrasound is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other issues before a renal biopsy can be considered. Donor specific antibodies may also be tested, but a biopsy is still necessary for confirmation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history of progressively worsening jaundice. His wife says that she noticed it a while ago, but her husband has been reluctant to come to see the GP. The man does not complain of any abdominal pain and on examination no masses are felt. He agrees when asked by the GP that he has lost quite some weight recently. The patient has a strong alcohol history and has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily since he was in his twenties. The GP refers the patient to secondary care.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Painless Jaundice in a Patient with Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer

      This patient presents with painless jaundice, which is most suggestive of obstructive jaundice due to a tumour in the head of the pancreas. The patient also has strong risk factors for pancreatic cancer, such as smoking and alcohol. However, other conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis, such as chronic cholecystitis, chronic pancreatitis, cholangiocarcinoma, and chronic liver disease.

      Chronic cholecystitis is unlikely to be the cause of painless jaundice, as it typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and gallstones on ultrasound. Chronic pancreatitis is a possible diagnosis, given the patient’s risk factors, but it usually involves abdominal pain and fatty diarrhoea. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer that develops in the bile ducts and can cause jaundice, abdominal pain, and itching. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Chronic liver disease is also a possible consequence of alcohol abuse, but it usually involves other signs such as nail clubbing, palmar erythema, and spider naevi.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and rule out other potential causes of painless jaundice. Early detection and treatment of pancreatic cancer are crucial for improving the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on a wet kitchen floor and fell onto her outstretched hand. Her X-ray shows a fracture within 2.5 cm of the distal radius, with dorsal displacement of the distal segment and avulsion of the ulnar styloid.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colles’ fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Fractures of the Wrist: Colles’, Smith’s, Barton’s, and Chauffeur’s Fractures

      Fractures of the wrist are common injuries, with the most frequent being the Colles’ fracture. This type of fracture occurs within 2.5 cm of the wrist and is often seen in elderly women who suffer a fall onto an outstretched hand. The Colles’ fracture is characterized by dorsal displacement of the distal fragment, radial displacement of the hand, radial shortening due to impaction, and avulsion of the ulnar styloid. Treatment involves assessing the patient’s neurovascular status, followed by reduction and fixation of the fracture with a Colles’ plaster.

      Another type of wrist fracture is the Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture with ventral displacement of the distal fragment. This injury often results from a fall onto the back of the hand. A Barton’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the distal radius with associated dorsal or volar subluxation of the distal fragment, similar to a Colles’ or reverse Colles’ fracture. Finally, a Chauffeur’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process.

      In conclusion, wrist fractures are common injuries that can be classified into different types based on their location and displacement. Proper assessment and treatment are essential for optimal recovery and function of the affected wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with mastitis by her General Practitioner (GP) and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with mastitis by her General Practitioner (GP) and prescribed antibiotics. Which of the following descriptions is most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A wedge-shaped distribution of erythema

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mastitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Mastitis is a painful inflammatory condition of the breast that commonly affects lactating women but can also occur in non-lactating women. The condition is characterized by a painful breast, tenderness, swelling, and erythema of the affected area, often in a wedge-shaped distribution. Other symptoms include fever, general malaise, and rapid onset, usually unilateral.

      Diagnosis is based on physical examination, and the presence of erythema is a classical symptom of inflammation. A firm, round, non-tender lump in the breast is more suggestive of a fibroadenoma or malignancy, while painless swelling of the breast tissue is not typical of mastitis.

      Peau d’orange, a term used to describe the characteristic appearance of skin changes associated with an underlying carcinoma of the breast or inflammatory breast cancer, is not a symptom of mastitis. It represents cutaneous lymphatic edema secondary to obstruction of lymphatic outflow by an underlying malignancy.

      In lactating patients, mastitis is often secondary to milk stasis and may be managed conservatively or with antibiotics. In non-lactating women, the condition is always secondary to infection and requires treatment with antibiotics. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of mastitis is crucial for prompt and effective management of this painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man complains of severe pain in his calves after walking his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man complains of severe pain in his calves after walking his dog for only 10 minutes. Upon examination, his lower limbs appear normal except for the absence of posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses. He has a history of myocardial infarction three years ago and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. What medication should be prescribed daily for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel 75 mg

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease require treatment for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. This includes prescribing antiplatelet medication such as clopidogrel 75 mg (or aspirin 75 mg if clopidogrel is not suitable) and a high-intensity statin like atorvastatin 80mg. It is important to note that clopidogrel 300 mg and aspirin 300mg are loading doses and should not be taken daily. NICE recommends atorvastatin 80 mg as the statin of choice for secondary prevention of CVD.

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions.

      For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are requested to attend to a 65-year-old male patient who has just...

    Correct

    • You are requested to attend to a 65-year-old male patient who has just returned from surgery in the high dependency unit. He underwent a left hemicolectomy to remove colon cancer. Your task is to prescribe the appropriate intravenous fluids for him.

      What is the most effective way to determine the infusion rate for the fluids?

      Your Answer: Measure his urine output and adjust accordingly

      Explanation:

      Importance of Adequate Hydration in Monitoring Organ Perfusion

      Hourly urine output is a reliable indicator of organ perfusion, which is directly linked to hydration levels. However, if there is a urological obstruction, this measure may not be accurate. While a trend in central venous pressure (CVP) can be helpful, a single reading is not a reliable indicator of hydration status. Late signs of hypovolemia include dry mucous membranes and hypotension. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain adequate hydration levels to ensure proper organ perfusion and prevent hypovolemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to the Emergency Department. Upon admission, the patient's body mass index (BMI) is measured at 26 kg/m2, and a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is established.
      Regarding diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Myths and Facts

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to life-threatening consequences. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition. Here are some important facts to help you better understand DKA:

      Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism: Patients with DKA are at an increased risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), especially in the pediatric age group and in patients with type-1 diabetes. Low-molecular-weight heparin is recommended to prevent this risk.

      DKA can be treated with oral hypoglycemics: This is a myth. Oral hypoglycemics are ineffective in managing DKA as the underlying cause is an imbalance between insulin and other regulatory hormones.

      Respiratory acidosis is typical: Metabolic acidosis occurs in DKA, and patients may develop a compensatory respiratory alkalosis (Kussmaul respiration).

      Hypokalemia is common at presentation: There is a risk of developing hypokalemia during admission due to insulin administration, but potassium levels are usually normal or high on admission.

      It often occurs in type II diabetes: This is a myth. DKA usually occurs in people with type I diabetes as it is related to low insulin levels, which leads to ketogenesis.

      Understanding these facts about DKA can help in its early recognition and prompt management, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18
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  • Question 14 - In a 71-year-old man who is asymptomatic and attending clinic for an annual...

    Correct

    • In a 71-year-old man who is asymptomatic and attending clinic for an annual review, a full blood count result shows a mild lymphocytosis of 15 × 109/l with a few smear cells. What is the most crucial investigation to determine a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)?

      Your Answer: Peripheral blood flow cytometry

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Staging of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

      Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) can be diagnosed through flow cytometry, which shows a specific pattern of monoclonal B cell proliferation. This pattern includes CD19/5 coexpressing, CD23 positive, and light chain restricted B cell population. However, smear cells, which are fragile lymphocytes that are smeared on the glass slide, can also be present in other lymphoproliferative disorders and benign lymphocytosis. Therefore, they do not necessarily indicate CLL.

      While CT scan and LDH are not essential for diagnosis, they are necessary for staging CLL. These investigations help determine the extent of the disease and the organs affected. Additionally, cervical lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes in the neck, may be present in CLL. However, it can also be seen in other causes of lymphadenopathy, such as viral infections or adenopathy secondary to local dental infection.

      In summary, flow cytometry is a crucial tool in diagnosing CLL, while CT scan and LDH are necessary for staging. Smear cells may be present but do not necessarily indicate CLL, and cervical lymphadenopathy can be seen in various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      14.7
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman who is a law student has severe anxiety about public...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is a law student has severe anxiety about public speaking and in informal social settings. She avoids situations where she might have to enter into conversations with strangers. She reports that she thinks others are frustrated by her inability in casual social interactions and that she ‘feels stupid and awkward’. Her social problems are also affecting her academic performance. She is considering leaving university for a less stressful environment.
      Which is the most appropriate form of psychotherapy for this woman?

      Your Answer: Network therapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Treatment for Social Phobia: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

      Social phobia is a type of anxiety disorder that can cause panic and avoidance of social situations. For patients with this condition, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is often the best treatment option. CBT can help patients identify and change negative thought patterns that contribute to their anxiety, and it often includes exposure therapy as a component.

      Other treatment options, such as vocational counselling or psychoanalytic psychotherapy, may not be as effective for social phobia. Suggesting these options could reinforce the patient’s belief that their symptoms cannot be treated therapeutically. Network therapy is designed for substance abusers, and self-help groups may be helpful for some patients, but only if they can manage their anxiety enough to participate effectively.

      In summary, for patients with social phobia, cognitive behavioural therapy is the most effective treatment option. It can help patients overcome their anxiety and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.8
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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old retired teacher presents with acute-onset confusion. The patient lives alone and...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old retired teacher presents with acute-onset confusion. The patient lives alone and is usually in good health. She has had no issues with her memory before, but over the past three days, her neighbor has noticed that the patient has become increasingly confused; this morning she did not recognize her own home. When taking the history from the neighbor, she mentions that the patient had been experiencing urinary symptoms over the past week. A dipstick of the patient’s urine is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites. A tentative diagnosis of delirium secondary to a urinary tract infection (UTI) is made, and empirical treatment for UTI is initiated.
      Which of the following tests is typically abnormal during delirium, regardless of the cause?

      Your Answer: Electroencephalogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Delirium: Understanding Their Role in Evaluation

      Delirium is a state of acute brain impairment that can be caused by various factors. The diagnosis of delirium is based on clinical features, such as acute onset, fluctuating course, disorientation, perceptual disturbances, and decreased attention. However, diagnostic tests may be necessary to identify the underlying cause of delirium and guide appropriate treatment. Here are some common diagnostic tests used in the evaluation of delirium:

      Electroencephalogram (EEG): EEG can show diffuse slowing in delirious individuals, regardless of the cause of delirium. A specific pattern called K complexes may occur in delirium due to hepatic encephalopathy.

      Lumbar puncture: This test may be used to diagnose meningitis, which can present with delirium. However, it may not be abnormal in many cases of delirium.

      Serum glucose: Hyper- or hypoglycemia can cause delirium, but serum glucose may not be universally abnormal in all cases of delirium.

      Computed tomography (CT) of the head: CT may be used to evaluate delirium, but it may be normal in certain cases, such as profound sepsis causing delirium.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): ECG is unlikely to be abnormal in delirium, regardless of the cause.

      While diagnostic tests can be helpful in the evaluation of delirium, the cornerstone of treatment is addressing the underlying cause. Patients with delirium need close monitoring to prevent harm to themselves. Manipulating the environment, using medications to reduce agitation and sedate patients, and providing reassurance and familiar contact can also be helpful in managing delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.7
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  • Question 17 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought in by his concerned parents. Since two...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought in by his concerned parents. Since two weeks of age, he has had a slowly expanding lump to the left side of his head. He is otherwise healthy, gaining weight, and breastfeeding well. He wakes to demand food and is starting to show signs of social smiling. He was delivered by unassisted normal vaginal delivery at 38 weeks’ gestation after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Birthweight was 3.2 kg. Other than a slightly prolonged second stage of labor, there is no significant perinatal history. He has no siblings and there is no family history of note.

      During the examination, an alert and active baby is observed. Vital signs are normal. There is a smooth lump measuring 2 × 3 cm arising in the left parieto-occipital region. The lump is compressible and non-pulsatile and does not cross the suture lines. A head to toe examination of the baby reveals no other lumps, skin lesions, rashes, or marks. The anterior fontanelle is normal. The baby has good tone and a normal Moro reflex. There is no jaundice or pallor.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Caput succedaneum

      Correct Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Explanation:

      Common Neonatal Head Injuries: Causes, Symptoms, and Differences

      Cephalohaematoma, Caput succedaneum, Cephalocele, and Subgaleal haemorrhage are common neonatal head injuries that can occur during birth. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and differences between these injuries is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Cephalohaematoma is a subperiosteal haemorrhage that occurs in 1-2% of live births, usually associated with a prolonged second stage of labour. It presents as a well-circumscribed, fluctuant mass over the parietal bone, and does not cross suture lines. Complications such as anaemia and jaundice can result from a cephalohaematoma, depending on its size.

      Caput succedaneum is a form of birth trauma caused by pressure exerted on the presenting part by the cervix during the first stage of labour. It presents as diffuse swelling of the scalp and is associated with moulding. It can cross the midline and extends over suture lines. It resolves over the course of the first few days of life.

      Cephalocele is a rare congenital condition where brain herniation occurs through a defect in the cranium. It is usually detected antenatally and most commonly presents in the midline.

      Subgaleal haemorrhage is most commonly associated with instrumental delivery, caused by rupture of the emissary veins connecting the dural sinuses with the scalp veins. It presents as a fluctuant mass over the occiput, with superficial skin bruising 12-72 hours post-delivery. It may cross suture lines and pass over fontanelles, distinguishing it from a cephalohaematoma.

      It is important to note that non-accidental injury should always be considered in cases of unexplained head injuries. However, in the absence of any concerning features, a cephalohaematoma or other neonatal head injury is likely due to birth trauma and can be managed accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.1
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of painful urination and a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of painful urination and a discharge from the tip of his penis for the past week. He denies having any fever, abdominal pain, joint pain, or blood in his urine. He is sexually active and has had intercourse with three different women in the last two months. On examination, there are no abnormalities noted in his genital area. What is the most suitable investigation for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nucleic acid amplification tests on first-catch urine sample

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis infection is a common cause of non-specific urethritis, which presents with dysuria and urethral discharge.

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is chlamydia, which may also be accompanied by gonorrhea infection. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are used to diagnose chlamydia, and both urethral swab and first-catch urine samples can be used for this purpose. However, first-catch urine is preferred as it is less invasive and equally sensitive as a urethral swab.

      While midstream urinalysis is appropriate for diagnosing urinary tract infections, the absence of haematuria or abdominal pain and the presence of urethral discharge make it less likely than chlamydia infection. Collecting discharge for microscopy and culture may be helpful in diagnosing bacterial vaginosis.

      Full blood count and liver function tests are not useful in diagnosing chlamydia. However, in female patients with advanced chlamydia who have developed pelvic inflammatory disease, these tests may be crucial in diagnosing Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome.

      Understanding Urethritis in Men

      Urethritis is a condition that primarily affects men and is characterized by dysuria and/or urethral discharge. However, it can also be asymptomatic in some cases. The condition is traditionally divided into two types: gonococcal and non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU), which is now referred to as non-specific urethritis (NSU). The most common causes of NSU are Chlamydia trachomatis, Ureaplasma urealyticum, and Mycoplasma genitalium.

      To diagnose NSU, a urethral swab is taken and Gram stained to check for the presence of leukocytes and Gram-negative diplococci. Chlamydia is now increasingly diagnosed using urinary nucleic acid amplification tests. If left untreated, NSU can lead to complications such as epididymitis, subfertility, and reactive arthritis.

      The management of NSU involves either a seven-day course of oral doxycycline or a single dose of oral azithromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset dyspnoea. She was a known case of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), previously treated for nephropathy and presently on mycophenolate mofetil and hydroxychloroquine sulfate. She had no fever. On examination, her respiratory rate was 45 breaths per minute, with coarse crepitations in the right lung base. After admission, blood test results revealed:
      Investigation Value Normal range
      Haemoglobin 100g/l 115–155 g/l
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      PaO2on room air 85 mmHg 95–100 mmHg
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.6mg/l 0-10 mg/l
      C3 level 41 mg/dl 83–180 mg/dl
      Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient as the cause for her dyspnoea?

      Your Answer: Lung scan with isotopes showing defects in perfusion

      Correct Answer: High diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO)

      Explanation:

      This case discusses diffuse alveolar haemorrhage (DAH), a rare but serious complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Symptoms include sudden-onset shortness of breath, decreased haematocrit levels, and possibly coughing up blood. A chest X-ray may show diffuse infiltrates and crepitations in the lungs. It is important to rule out infections before starting treatment with methylprednisolone or cyclophosphamide. A high DLCO, indicating increased diffusion capacity across the alveoli, may be present in DAH. A pulmonary function test may not be possible due to severe dyspnoea, so diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, imaging, and bronchoscopy. Lung biopsy may show pulmonary capillaritis with neutrophilic infiltration. A high ESR is non-specific and sputum for AFB is not relevant in this acute presentation. BAL fluid in DAH is progressively haemorrhagic, and lung scan with isotopes is not typical for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old multiparous woman arrives at 38 weeks gestation in active labour. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old multiparous woman arrives at 38 weeks gestation in active labour. She has recently moved from a low-income country and has not received any prenatal care or screening tests. The patient delivers a healthy 3.5kg baby boy vaginally. However, the newborn develops respiratory distress, fever, and tachycardia shortly after birth. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Group B septicaemia

      Explanation:

      Newborn infants are most commonly affected by severe early-onset (< 7 days) infection caused by Group B streptococcus. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?

      Your Answer: Insomnia

      Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. She was noted...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. She was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
      Examination reveals dehydration, pulse 100 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 90/60 mmHg. Initial blood tests show: glucose 2.9 mmol/l, sodium (Na+) 126 mmol/l, potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l, urea 8.2 mmol/l, creatinine 117 µmol/l.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions: Addison’s Disease and Other Differential Diagnoses

      Addison’s Disease:
      Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. The most common cause in the UK is autoimmune destruction of the adrenals, while worldwide tuberculosis is the most common cause. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or haemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function is not capable of coping with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone. Treatment of a crisis requires intravenous glucocorticoids, as well as supportive measures and fluid resuscitation.

      Differential Diagnoses:
      Peutz–Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps. Insulinoma causes hypoglycaemia, but the other features are absent. Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid, while Conn syndrome is also known as primary hyperaldosteronism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 6-day-old infant has been experiencing noisy breathing since birth. A perceptive resident...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-day-old infant has been experiencing noisy breathing since birth. A perceptive resident physician identifies that the sound occurs during inhalation. What is the primary reason for stridor in a newborn?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      1 – Children between 6 months and 3 years old are typically affected by croup.
      2 – Stridor is a common symptom of Epiglottitis in children aged 2-4 years, although the introduction of the H. influenzae vaccine has almost eliminated this condition.
      4 – Bronchiolitis often affects individuals between 3 and 6 months old.
      5 – No information provided.

      Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for three weeks has reported...

    Correct

    • A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for three weeks has reported that despite instilling a full 2 litre bag of fluid, he only gets 1.9 litres back. Additionally, he has noticed swelling in his abdomen and tenderness upon palpation. What could be the probable cause of these issues?

      Your Answer: Leak from catheter site

      Explanation:

      Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters

      Leakage is a common issue with peritoneal dialysis catheters, especially in patients who have had previous abdominal surgery. It can be noticed as fluid leaking around the exit site or causing mild swelling. Reducing fluid volumes may help, but catheter repair or replacement may be necessary. If patients show signs of fluid overload, a higher concentration of osmotic agent may be required. Catheter malposition is often painful and occurs early after insertion. Constipation is the most common cause of outflow obstruction, which tends to be consistent or worsening. Kinking of the catheter also occurs early after insertion and can cause problems with fluid inflow and outflow. Proper management of these issues is important for the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic partial gastrectomy for a distal gastric tumor. Her blood gas analysis shows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      pCO2 7.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      pO2 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess 5 mmol/l –2.0 to +2.0 mmol/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: CO2 absorption from pneumoperitoneum

      Correct Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas Results: Causes of Respiratory Failure

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) results can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory status. In the case of type II respiratory failure with respiratory acidosis and hypoxaemia, hypoventilation is the likely cause. This can occur during surgery due to medications and post-operative pain, leading to insufficient ventilation and retention of carbon dioxide.

      Other conditions that can affect ABG results include pulmonary embolus, which causes hypoxaemia and respiratory alkalosis due to increased elimination of CO2. Pulmonary oedema, on the other hand, triggers hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis to compensate for impaired gas exchange. If left untreated, it can progress to type I respiratory failure with acidaemia and hypoxaemia.

      CO2 absorption from pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic surgery can cause a transient respiratory acidosis, but it would not explain the type II respiratory failure seen in the above scenario. Lung atelectasis, which refers to incomplete lung expansion, can lead to hypoxaemia but drives a hyperventilation response and respiratory alkalosis with type I respiratory failure.

      Understanding the different causes of respiratory failure and their corresponding ABG results can aid in proper diagnosis and management of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      64.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she...

    Correct

    • An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she is unable to remember her way home. Past medical history of note includes hypertension for which she takes lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. She is known to Social Services having been in trouble for stealing from a local grocery store earlier in the year, and for yelling at a neighbor who complained about her loud music. On examination she is agitated and socially inappropriate, she has been incontinent of urine. During your testing she repeats what you say and appears to be laughing at you. Responses to your questions tend to lack fluency and she has trouble naming simple objects. There is rigidity and increased tone on motor examination.
      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 250 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 190 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Computed tomography (CT) head scan – evidence of frontal atrophy
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Frontotemporal Dementia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Frontotemporal dementia, also known as Pick’s disease, is a type of dementia that affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. One of the hallmark symptoms of this condition is a change in personality, often leading to disinhibition, aggression, and inappropriate behavior. Patients may also exhibit echolalia and echopraxia, repeating words and imitating actions of others.

      Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia often presents with early symptoms of behavioral changes and repetitive behavior, rather than memory loss. Incontinence may also be an early symptom. Diagnosis is typically made through brain imaging, which reveals frontotemporal lobe degeneration and the presence of Pick’s bodies, spherical aggregations of tau proteins in neurons.

      Management of frontotemporal dementia focuses on symptomatic treatment of behavior and support for caregivers and patients. Other conditions, such as Shy-Drager syndrome, multi-infarct dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, may present with similar symptoms but can be ruled out through careful evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent...

    Incorrect

    • What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent migraine episodes?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Agents for Migraine Treatment

      Migraine is a neurological condition that causes severe headaches, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. While Sumatriptan is an effective treatment for acute migraine attacks, it does not prevent them from occurring. Therefore, prophylactic agents are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks.

      First-line prophylactic agents include beta-blockers without partial agonism and Topiramate. Beta-blockers are used if there are no contraindications, while Topiramate is a medication that is specifically approved for migraine prevention. Second-line prophylactic agents include Sodium valproate and Amitriptyline, which is used when migraine coexists with tension-type headache, disturbed sleep, or depression. Clinical experience in migraine treatment is currently greater with valproate.

      Third-line prophylactic agents include Gabapentin, Methysergide, Pizotifen, and Verapamil. These medications are used when first and second-line treatments have failed or are not tolerated. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that has been shown to be effective in reducing the frequency of migraine attacks. Methysergide is a serotonin receptor antagonist that is used for chronic migraine prevention. Pizotifen is a serotonin antagonist that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks.

      In conclusion, prophylactic agents are an important part of migraine treatment. The choice of medication depends on the patient’s medical history, the severity and frequency of migraine attacks, and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective prophylactic agent for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of headaches and tiredness during exercise for the past three weeks. He is a smoker of five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol each week. There is no significant family history. On examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 182/102 mmHg. However, there are no abnormalities on examination of heart, chest, or abdomen. The investigations reveal a sodium level of 144 mmol/L (137-144), haemoglobin level of 155 g/L (130-180), potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), white cell count of 8.2 ×109/L (4-11), urea level of 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), platelet count of 188 ×109/L (150-400), creatinine level of 90 µmol/L (60-110), and glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). The ECG shows tall R waves in leads V5-6 and deep S waves in leads V1-2. The chest x-ray is reported as normal. What possible diagnosis would you consider for this patient?

      Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hypertension and Hypokalaemia: Possible Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      This patient is showing signs of hypertension, as indicated by the left ventricular hypertrophy on their ECG. Additionally, their hypertension is accompanied by hypokalaemia, which may suggest a diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome. This condition is caused by excessive production of aldosterone from either an adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, resulting in salt and water retention, hypertension, and potassium excretion leading to hypokalaemia. In some cases, primary hyperaldosteronism has been detected in up to 5% of patients in hypertension clinics. It is important to investigate potential secondary causes for hypertension, particularly in young or difficult-to-control hypertensive patients. Renal artery stenosis is unlikely to cause such severe hypokalaemia, and one would expect a mildly elevated creatinine if it were severe enough to cause hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a sudden headache...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a sudden headache and jaw pain while eating breakfast. The medical team starts him on high dose prednisolone and performs a biopsy, which later shows normal results. What should be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue the prednisolone, regardless of the biopsy result

      Explanation:

      When a person shows symptoms that indicate giant cell arthritis, a temporal artery biopsy is usually recommended. However, skip lesions can occur in this condition, which may result in a normal biopsy. It is important to note that steroids should not be stopped as this condition can lead to blindness. It is best to perform the biopsy within 7 days of starting steroids.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with sudden onset compressive chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with sudden onset compressive chest pain radiating to the left upper limb. He has a medical history of obesity, hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, and is a smoker. Based on the initial assessment, you determine that there is a 40% likelihood that he is having an acute myocardial infarction. You order an ECG and cardiac enzymes for further evaluation.

      What is the significance of the 40% estimate in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Likelihood ratio

      Correct Answer: Prior probability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Probability and Prevalence Measures in Medical Diagnosis

      Probability and prevalence measures are essential in medical diagnosis. The prior probability estimates the likelihood of a disease before obtaining further data, while the posterior probability is the new probability after additional data is obtained. The odds ratio measures the association between an exposure and an outcome, while the likelihood ratio compares the likelihood of a test result in a patient with and without the target disorder. Prevalence refers to the proportion of people in a given population who have the disease at a specific point in time. Understanding these measures is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      18.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/2) 0%
Nephrology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Breast (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Paediatrics (0/2) 0%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Clinical Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Passmed