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Question 1
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a few weeks after a sore throat. On examination, small, drop-shaped, salmon-pink plaques are observed. What is the most probable cause of this rash?
Your Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:Understanding Different Skin Conditions: Guttate Psoriasis, Dermatitis, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, Pityriasis Rosea, and Pustular Psoriasis
Skin conditions can be uncomfortable and sometimes even painful. Here are some common skin conditions and their characteristics:
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, drop-shaped plaques on the chest, arms, legs, and scalp. It is usually caused by a streptococcal infection and can last for up to three months. Topical agents, such as steroids or calcipotriol, can be used to treat it.
Dermatitis, also known as eczema, results in rough patches of skin that are dry and itchy, particularly with exposure to irritants. In children and adults with long-standing disease, eczema is often localised to the flexure of the limbs.
Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFMD) is an acute viral illness characterised by vesicular eruptions in the mouth and papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs. It should not be confused with foot and mouth disease of animals, which is caused by a different virus.
Pityriasis rosea is a skin rash that is characterised by distinctive, scaly, erythematous lesions. It is thought to be a reaction to exposure to infection.
Pustular psoriasis is a rarer type of psoriasis that causes pus-filled blisters (pustules) to appear on your skin. Different types of pustular psoriasis affect different parts of the body.
It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 16-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and itchy rash that has rapidly worsened in the last 12 hours. She has a history of atopic dermatitis and hayfever, which have been treated with emollients. Upon examination, she has a monomorphic rash with punched out erosions on her cheeks and bilateral dorsal wrists. The doctors admit her for observation and IV antivirals. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for her condition?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex 1
Explanation:Eczema herpeticum is a skin infection primarily caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) and, in rare cases, coxsackievirus. Herpes zoster leads to chickenpox, roseola is caused by HHV 6, and molluscum contagiosum is caused by poxvirus.
Understanding Eczema Herpeticum
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.
During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash on the inner aspect of his elbows on either side. He states that this came on suddenly and that he has had similar episodes in the past, the first of which occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best next step?Your Answer: Skin patch testing before starting treatment
Correct Answer: No further testing required; start treatment
Explanation:Diagnosis and Testing for Atopic Eczema
Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can cause significant physical and psychological distress to patients. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation and history, with no further testing required. The UK Working Party Diagnostic Criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis. Treatment options include emollients, topical steroids, and other medications in severe cases.
Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) and skin patch testing are not useful in diagnosing atopic eczema, as they are mainly used for other types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin prick testing may be used to diagnose allergies that could be exacerbating the eczema. However, it is important to note that atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis and testing is not always necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A concerned parent brings her 4-month-old to your clinic with a bright red lump on their scalp that has been gradually increasing in size over the past 6 weeks. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Capillary haemangioma
Explanation:Port wine stain and naevus flammeus are two different conditions that are often confused with each other. While they both present as red or purple birthmarks, port wine stains are caused by a malformation of blood vessels in the skin, while naevus flammeus is a type of capillary malformation.
Understanding Strawberry Naevus
Strawberry naevus, also known as capillary haemangioma, is a type of skin condition that usually develops in infants within the first month of life. It is characterized by raised, erythematous, and multilobed tumours that commonly appear on the face, scalp, and back. While it is not present at birth, it can grow rapidly and reach its peak size at around 6-9 months before regressing over the next few years. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve before the child reaches 10 years of age. However, there are potential complications that may arise, such as obstructing visual fields or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia.
Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in female and premature infants, as well as those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling. In cases where treatment is necessary, propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers like timolol may also be used. It is important to note that there is a deeper type of capillary haemangioma called cavernous haemangioma. Understanding the nature of strawberry naevus is crucial in managing its potential complications and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He reports that she has developed itchy blisters all over her body, including her face, torso, arms, and legs. Additionally, she is not behaving normally, eating and drinking less than usual, and not engaging with her favorite toys. She also has a fever of 39ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to hospital
Explanation:Immediate hospitalization and administration of IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, a severe condition. The child in question is exhibiting symptoms such as painful blisters, fever, and swollen lymph nodes, which require urgent medical attention. Any delay in seeking medical help could worsen the condition. Therefore, all other options are incorrect and should be avoided.
Understanding Eczema Herpeticum
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.
During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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You are setting up a leg ulcer clinic to be run by your practice nurse.
Which of the following is the best treatment for venous leg ulcers?
Your Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:Effective Management of Venous Leg Ulcers in Primary Care
Venous leg ulcers can be effectively managed in primary care through a combination of measures. Graduated compression is a key component of treatment, as it reduces venous reflux and ankle oedema while increasing venous blood flow. However, compression therapy may not be suitable for infected ulcers or those that are too tender. Pharmacotherapy and zinc paste are also not recommended for venous leg ulcers.
Intermittent pneumatic calf compression can be effective in overcoming venous hypertension, but bandaging regimens must be adjusted according to ankle circumference to achieve the optimal pressure of around 40 mm Hg. Hyperbaric oxygen is not the first-choice treatment.
In primary care, management of venous leg ulcers involves cleaning and dressing the ulcer, applying compression therapy appropriately, treating associated conditions such as pain, infection, oedema, and eczema, and providing lifestyle advice. Pentoxifylline may also be prescribed to aid ulcer healing. Follow-up and referral to specialist clinics may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 62-year-old man visits his primary care physician with worries about a growth on his right lower eyelid. The lesion has been there for at least 3 months and has not increased in size. During examination, you observe a 3 mm lesion with rolled, pearly edges. Your suspicion is a basal cell carcinoma.
What would be the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Urgent referral for surgical excision
Explanation:When it comes to basal cell carcinoma, surgical excision is typically recommended and can be referred routinely. However, for high-risk areas such as the eyelids and nasal ala, urgent referral under the 2-week wait is necessary to prevent potential damage from delay.
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is one of the three main types of skin cancer and is characterized by slow growth and local invasion. BCC lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and rarely metastasize. The majority of BCC lesions are found on sun-exposed areas, particularly the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As the lesion progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater. If BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. Management options include surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Lipoatrophy
Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome
Explanation:Sweet’s syndrome is a condition associated with acute myeloid leukemia, also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, but not with diabetes mellitus.
Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old male patient complains of an itchy rash on his palms and genitals. He has observed the same rash around a recent scar on his forearm. During examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male presents to his GP with a raised, patchy rash on his elbows and knees. The lesions have slowly developed over the past few months and are itchy but not painful. He mentions that the rash improved slightly during his recent trip to Morocco and he got temporary relief from the itch.
Upon examination, you observe well-demarcated, red, scaly patches on his elbow and both knees. The patient has a medical history of ankylosing spondylitis and is currently taking naproxen and omeprazole.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's rash?Your Answer: Topical hydrocortisone 0.5% + topical calcipotriol
Correct Answer: Topical betamethasone + topical calcipotriol
Explanation:NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents with pruritic, violaceous papules in a polygonal pattern on the flexor surface of his forearms. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Lichen planus is a rash that appears as purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. It is often accompanied by Wickham’s striae on the surface and can also affect the mouth. In contrast, lichen sclerosus is characterized by white, itchy spots that commonly appear on the vulva of older women.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male visits a dermatology clinic after being referred by his physician due to a mole that has changed color. When asked, he mentions that he always burns and never tans when exposed to sunlight. He has fair skin and red hair. What is the appropriate Fitzpatrick grade for this skin type?
Your Answer: Fitzpatrick type 2
Correct Answer: Fitzpatrick type 1
Explanation:Skin type 1 according to the Fitzpatrick classification is characterized by pale skin with features like blue eyes, red hair, and freckles. Individuals with this skin type always experience burning and never tanning. The classification system ranges from type 1, which is most prone to burning, to type 6, which is Afro-Caribbean skin that never burns.
Skin type is a crucial factor in determining the risk of developing skin cancer. The Fitzpatrick classification system is commonly used to categorize skin types based on their response to UV radiation. This system divides skin types into six categories, ranging from those who always burn and never tan to those who never burn and always tan.
Type I skin is the most sensitive to UV radiation and is characterized by red hair, freckles, and blue eyes. These individuals never tan and always burn when exposed to the sun. Type II skin usually tans but always burns, while Type III skin always tans but may sometimes burn. Type IV skin always tans and rarely burns, and Type V skin burns and tans after extreme UV exposure. Finally, Type VI skin, which is common in individuals of African descent, never tans and never burns.
Understanding your skin type is essential in protecting yourself from skin cancer. Those with fair skin, such as Type I and II, are at a higher risk of developing skin cancer and should take extra precautions when exposed to the sun. On the other hand, those with darker skin, such as Type V and VI, may have a lower risk of skin cancer but should still take measures to protect their skin from UV radiation. By knowing your skin type and taking appropriate precautions, you can reduce your risk of developing skin cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old smoker presents with non-healing sores on his lower lip that have been gradually enlarging for several months. Upon examination, a lesion is found at the vermilion border of the lower lip. What is the most probable type of lesion?
Your Answer: Bowen's disease
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
Explanation:Common Skin Lesions and Cancers: Characteristics and Clinical Presentations
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), actinic keratosis, Bowen’s disease, cold sores, and leukoplakia are common skin lesions and cancers that have distinct characteristics and clinical presentations.
SCC is a malignant tumour that commonly affects the backs of the hands and forearms, the upper part of the face, and the lower lip and pinna in men. The first clinical sign is induration, which may take on nodular, plaque-like, verrucous, or ulcerated characteristics. The limits of induration are not sharp and usually extend beyond the visible margins of the lesion. The surrounding tissue is often inflamed. SCCs rarely metastasize.
Actinic keratosis is a sun-induced scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion that has the potential to become malignant. It is characterized by multifocal, scaly, hyperpigmented or scaly lesions, usually brown with a scaly base, occurring on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.
Bowen’s disease is an intraepidermal (in situ) squamous cell carcinoma that arises in sun-exposed sites, especially the lower legs in women. It is characterized by well-defined pink and scaly patches or plaques that may become crusty, fissured, or ulcerated as lesions grow.
Cold sores are recurrent infections of orofacial herpes simplex that present as grouped vesicles, especially of the lips and perioral skin. The eruption is often preceded by a tingling, itching, or burning sensation. Over a few days, the vesicles form a crust, and the eruption resolves within 7–10 days.
Leukoplakia is a white patch or plaque of the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other condition.
A non-healing lesion is also of concern, especially in patients with a history of smoking and advanced age, as it may indicate a malignant cause. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing the progression of these skin lesions and cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial stages of Lyme disease?
Your Answer: Erythema marginatum
Correct Answer: Erythema chronicum migrans
Explanation:Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches on her inner elbows, back of knees, and thighs. The skin on her right thigh is oozing. She reports feeling fatigued and wonders if she has had a fever. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Based on your assessment, you diagnose her with moderately severe eczema.
What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 1% cream
Correct Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 0.025% cream plus 10 days of oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection
Moderately severe eczema with evidence of superimposed infection requires a specific treatment regime. The severity of eczema is categorized into four categories: clear, mild, moderate, and severe. In this case, the patient has small areas of dry skin mainly in the flexures, and there is evidence of superimposed infection with the erythematous, weeping patch of skin in the lateral thigh, indicating infected eczema/cellulitis.
The treatment regime should include a regular emollient ointment, such as Diprobase®, applied generously to the skin multiple times a day. Additionally, a moderately potent topical corticosteroid, such as betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%, should be used sparingly on the inflamed areas once a day. The patient must be advised to apply the steroid first and allow 15–20 min for it to be absorbed before applying the emollient. Treatment should last 7–14 days and should continue until 48 h after the eczematous patches have cleared.
Furthermore, oral antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of infected eczema. Oral flucloxacillin is considered first-line, and treatment usually lasts for a 10-day period.
It is important to note that hydrocortisone 1% cream is only a mild steroid and not indicated in the initial management of moderate eczema. Betamethasone valerate 1% cream is a potent topical corticosteroid and should be reserved for the management of acute flare-ups of severe eczema. Oral flucloxacillin alone is not sufficient for treatment, and there is a need for a moderately potent topical corticosteroid as well to settle the inflammation.
In conclusion, a combination of regular emollient ointment, moderately potent topical corticosteroid, and oral antibiotics is necessary for the effective treatment of moderately severe eczema with superimposed infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she is in good health. What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?
Your Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the most probable side-effect that he may experience?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia
Correct Answer: Dry skin
Explanation:Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects
Isotretinoin is an oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found that two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of oral isotretinoin experience long-term remission or cure. However, it is important to note that this medication also comes with a number of adverse effects that patients should be aware of.
One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in developing fetuses. As such, females who are taking this medication should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, as well as low mood and depression (although this is a controversial topic). Patients may also experience raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nose bleeds, and photosensitivity.
It is important for patients to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Additionally, patients should always follow their healthcare provider’s instructions for taking isotretinoin and should not combine this medication with tetracyclines due to the risk of intracranial hypertension. By being informed and proactive, patients can help to ensure that they receive the best possible care while taking isotretinoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited her physician with complaints of a severe sore throat, fatigue, and headache. The doctor prescribed amoxicillin to treat an upper respiratory tract infection. However, two days ago she developed a pruritic maculopapular rash that has spread throughout her body. Additionally, her initial symptoms have not improved. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Penicillin allergy
Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Patients with infectious mononucleosis should not be prescribed amoxicillin. Instead, supportive treatment is recommended for their care.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female patient presents with concerns about her acne and its impact on her self-esteem. She has been experiencing acne for a few years and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, which has provided some relief. After a thorough discussion, you decide to initiate treatment with topical isotretinoin. What other side effect, in addition to its teratogenic effects, should you inform her about?
Your Answer: Yellowing of skin
Correct Answer: Erythema
Explanation:The initial approach to treating acne involves the use of a topical retinoid (such as tretinoin, isotretinoin, or adapalene) or benzoyl peroxide, particularly if there are papules and pustules present. Patients should be informed of the potential side effects of topical retinoids, which may include burning, redness, and dryness of the skin, as well as eye irritation and swelling. However, topical retinoids are not associated with aggravating acne, causing headaches or nausea, or leading to yellowing of the skin.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.
The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents with a two day history of increasing dysuria. During examination, inflamed blisters are observed on the outer labia.
What is the most suitable treatment option?Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Understanding Genital Herpes and Treatment Options
Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1 or HSV-2). It presents as clusters of papules and vesicles on the outer genitals in both men and women, usually appearing 4-7 days after sexual exposure to HSV for the first time. Unfortunately, there is no cure for genital herpes, but treatment with aciclovir can reduce the duration of symptoms. Other treatment options include antibiotics like azithromycin and clindamycin for bacterial infections, antifungal agents like fluconazole for fungal infections, and metronidazole for anaerobic bacteria and protozoa. It is important to seek medical attention and start treatment as soon as possible to manage symptoms and prevent transmission to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of an itchy rash on his face and upper chest that has been bothering him for three weeks. He has a history of HIV but has not been taking his antiretroviral medications as prescribed. During the examination, the doctor observes redness on the eyebrows, nasolabial folds, and upper chest, as well as excoriations around the rash. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Topical ketoconazole
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is the likely diagnosis for this man’s rash, especially given his medical history of HIV. The recommended first-line treatment for this condition is topical ketoconazole. While oral fluconazole may be useful for treating fungal infections and preventing them in HIV patients, it is not effective for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Oral prednisolone is only used for short periods to treat severe inflammatory skin diseases like atopic dermatitis and is not indicated for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Although topical steroids like hydrocortisone can be used to treat seborrhoeic dermatitis, they are not the preferred initial treatment.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on the flexural surface of both his arms that has been present for 1 week. On examination, the rash appears polygonal and shiny with a white lines pattern on the surface. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: No further testing required, start treatment
Explanation:Diagnostic Testing for Lichen Planus: Understanding Skin Patch Testing, Skin Prick Testing, and RAST
Lichen planus is a clinical diagnosis that can be made based on the characteristic appearance of the rash. However, in some cases, a biopsy may be helpful if the presentation is atypical. The diagnosis is typically made without the need for further testing, and treatment can be started promptly.
Skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus, as they are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin patch testing is used for contact dermatitis and other type IV hypersensitivity reactions, while skin prick testing is used for type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as food allergies and pollen allergies.
Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) is also unsuitable for diagnosing lichen planus, as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
In summary, diagnostic testing is not typically required for lichen planus, as it can be diagnosed clinically. Skin patch testing, skin prick testing, and RAST are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus and are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 78-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease is evaluated at a nursing home. She presents with tense blistering lesions on her legs, measuring approximately 1 to 3 cm in diameter, and reports mild itching. Her mouth and vulva examination are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation:If there are blisters or bullae present without any involvement of the mucosal lining, the condition is likely to be bullous pemphigoid. However, if there is mucosal involvement, the condition is more likely to be pemphigus vulgaris.
Understanding Bullous Pemphigoid
Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering of the skin due to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230. This condition is more common in elderly patients and is characterized by itchy, tense blisters that typically appear around flexures. However, the blisters usually heal without scarring, and there is usually no mucosal involvement.
To diagnose bullous pemphigoid, a skin biopsy is necessary, and immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction. Treatment for this condition involves referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis, as well as the use of oral corticosteroids as the mainstay of treatment. Topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and antibiotics may also be used.
It is worth noting that while mucosal involvement is seen in some patients, it is not a classic feature of bullous pemphigoid and is therefore not always mentioned in exam questions. Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of bullous pemphigoid is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 55-year-old man complains of persistent itching caused by shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of his wrists. Lichen planus is suspected. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: Topical clobetasone butyrate
Explanation:Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Still, his symptoms did not improve, and his rheumatologist prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago.
On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
What is the underlying condition?Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Explanation:Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and their Causes
Skin hypersensitivity reactions can range from mild to life-threatening. Here are some common types and their causes:
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is the most serious skin hypersensitivity reaction, with a high mortality rate. It is usually caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol and penicillins.
Erythema Multiforme: This is a target-like lesion that commonly occurs on the palms and soles. It is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs and sulfa drugs. Mycoplasma and herpes simplex infections can also cause erythema multiforme.
Erythema Nodosum: This is an inflammatory condition of subcutaneous tissue. The most common causes are recent streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fixed Drug Reaction: This is a localised allergic drug reaction that recurs at the same anatomic site of the skin with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by aspirin, NSAIDs, tetracycline and barbiturate.
Morbilliform Rash: This is a mild hypersensitivity skin reaction that manifests as a generalised maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. The rash can be caused by penicillin, sulfa drugs, allopurinol and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for diabetes. Due to the widespread skin alterations, including some oral changes, what other potential underlying condition should be taken into account?
Your Answer: Internal malignancy
Explanation:While acanthosis nigricans may occur on its own in individuals with dark skin, it is typically a sign of insulin resistance and associated conditions such as type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and hypothyroidism. Certain medications, including corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications, can also cause this condition. If acanthosis nigricans appears suddenly and in unusual areas such as the mouth, it may indicate the presence of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is least commonly associated with rosacea?
Your Answer: Blepharitis
Correct Answer: Pruritus
Explanation:It is uncommon for pruritus to be present in cases of acne rosacea.
Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of pale skin on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Leukopaenia-induced fungal infection
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.
Understanding Vitiligo
Vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in the loss of melanocytes and causing depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 20-30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the peripheries being the most affected. Trauma can also trigger new lesions, known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. Management of the condition includes the use of sunblock for affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up, and topical corticosteroids, which may reverse the changes if applied early. There may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients.
In summary, vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that can be managed with various treatments, including sunblock, make-up, and topical corticosteroids. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, and caution should be exercised when using certain treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with PUVA therapy in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Malignant melanoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell cancer
Explanation:Squamous cell skin cancer is the most notable adverse effect of PUVA therapy in treating psoriasis.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. During the examination, the doctor observes several purple papular rashes on the flexural surface of her wrists. Additionally, a similar rash is present at the edges of a laceration wound she suffered a week ago. What is the recommended initial treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone cream
Explanation:Lichen planus is present in this woman, but it appears to be limited in scope. The initial treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Oral azathioprine or prednisolone is only prescribed if the condition is widespread. Coal tar cream and calcitriol ointment are not effective treatments for lichen planus.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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