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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old woman has been experiencing symptoms of the flu for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman has been experiencing symptoms of the flu for the past four days and has had to take time off work from her job as a receptionist. She would like a sick note to give to her employer. How long can she self-certify before needing to obtain a note from her GP?

      Your Answer: Three days

      Correct Answer: Seven days

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fit Notes: When They’re Required and for How Long

      Fit notes are an important aspect of managing employee sickness, but it can be confusing to know when they’re required and for how long. Here’s a breakdown:

      – Seven days: A fit note is not required until after seven days of sickness. Employees can self-certify with their employer up until this time.
      – 14 days: A fit note would be required if an employee has been absent for 14 days.
      – Three days: Employers should allow employees to self-certify for up to three days of sickness absence.
      – One month: A fit note is required for an absence of one month. A doctor should assess the patient’s need for absence and determine if they are unfit for work or able to work with adjustments.
      – Three months: A fit note is required for prolonged sickness. In the first six months, the maximum time for a fit note is three months. After this, a doctor can extend the note as needed.

      Understanding these guidelines can help employers and employees manage sickness absence effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old woman received a blood transfusion of 2 units of crossmatched blood...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman received a blood transfusion of 2 units of crossmatched blood 1 hour ago, following acute blood loss. She reports noticing a funny feeling in her chest, like her heart keeps missing a beat. You perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows tall, tented T-waves and flattened P-waves in multiple leads.
      An arterial blood gas (ABG) test shows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 7.1 mmol/l 5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl–) 96 mmol/l 95–105 mmol/l
      Given the findings, what treatment should be given immediately?

      Your Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia: Understanding the Role of Calcium Gluconate, Insulin and Dextrose, Calcium Resonium, Nebulised Salbutamol, and Dexamethasone

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias. When a patient presents with hyperkalaemia and ECG changes, the initial treatment is calcium gluconate. This medication stabilizes the myocardial membranes by reducing the excitability of cardiomyocytes. However, it does not reduce potassium levels, so insulin and dextrose are needed to correct the underlying hyperkalaemia. Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, reducing serum potassium levels by 0.6-1.0 mmol/l every 15 minutes. Nebulised salbutamol can also drive potassium intracellularly, but insulin and dextrose are preferred due to their increased effectiveness and decreased side-effects. Calcium Resonium is a slow-acting treatment that removes potassium from the body by binding it and preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. While it can help reduce potassium levels in the long term, it is not effective in protecting the patient from arrhythmias acutely. Dexamethasone, a steroid, is not useful in the treatment of hyperkalaemia. Understanding the role of these treatment options is crucial in managing hyperkalaemia and preventing serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 34-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for a sexual health...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for a sexual health screening. He complains of a painful and red sore that appeared on the shaft of his penis a few days ago. He reports that his wife, his only regular sexual partner, has not experienced any symptoms. Upon further questioning, he mentions feeling tired and run down after a stressful situation at work, which led to the development of painful mouth ulcers on his gums and lip. He has no significant medical history except for a few instances of painful and gunky eyes that he treated at home. On examination, the physician observes two small, healing ulcers in the patient's mouth and an oval sore with an erythematosus border. The patient also has a 0.5 cm lesion on his penile shaft that appears erythematosus but has no discharge. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Type 2 herpes simplex virus

      Correct Answer: Behcet's disease

      Explanation:

      Behcet’s disease is an autoimmune condition that affects small blood vessels, causing inflammation. It is classified as a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, which occurs when immune complexes deposit in small vessels. The most common symptoms of Behcet’s disease are recurrent oral and genital ulcers, anterior uveitis, and skin lesions. This condition is more prevalent in people of East Mediterranean descent and can be triggered by infections such as parvovirus or herpes simplex virus.

      In contrast, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted infection that typically causes symptoms such as dysuria, frequency, and changes in discharge. It does not typically present with ulcers. Syphilis, on the other hand, is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Treponema pallidum. Primary syphilis is characterized by a solitary, small, painless genital chancre that heals within a few weeks. It is not associated with eye symptoms. Guttate psoriasis, another condition, presents with numerous small, scaly papules that are pink or red and occur all over the body.

      Behcet’s syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the arteries and veins due to an autoimmune response, although the exact cause is not yet fully understood. The condition is more common in the eastern Mediterranean, particularly in Turkey, and tends to affect young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. Men are more commonly affected than women, although this varies depending on the country. Behcet’s syndrome is associated with a positive family history in around 30% of cases and is linked to the HLA B51 antigen.

      The classic symptoms of Behcet’s syndrome include oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. Other features of the condition may include thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, gastrointestinal problems like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis, and erythema nodosum. Diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome is based on clinical findings, as there is no definitive test for the condition. A positive pathergy test, where a small pustule forms at the site of a needle prick, can be suggestive of the condition. HLA B51 is also a split antigen that is associated with Behcet’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, who...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, who found her on the bathroom floor. She is ataxic, appears confused and her speech is slurred, however she does not smell of alcohol. She says she 'took something' because she wanted to end her life. She has vomited twice.

      On the blood gas, there is a metabolic acidosis.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this situation?

      Your Answer: Fomepizole

      Explanation:

      Fomepizole is an effective treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity as it inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, slowing down the production of toxic metabolites. Ethanol can also be used if fomepizole is not available. Symptoms of ethylene glycol poisoning include ataxia, vomiting, dysarthria, and metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap. In severe cases, convulsions and coma can occur. Atropine is used to treat organophosphate poisoning, which can cause anxiety, restlessness, headache, muscle weakness, respiratory failure, and bronchospasm with bronchial secretions. Flumazenil is used to treat benzodiazepine overdose, which can cause drowsiness, dizziness, ataxia, coma, and respiratory depression. Glucagon is used to treat beta blocker overdose, which can cause sinus bradycardia, hypotension, and coma.

      Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.

      In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.

      Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain during bowel movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain during bowel movements for the past 4 days. Upon examination, a tender, oedematous, and purple subcutaneous mass is found at the anal margin. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit for incision and drainage of abscess

      Correct Answer: Stool softeners, ice packs and analgesia

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from thrombosed haemorrhoids, which is characterized by anorectal pain and a tender lump on the anal margin. Since the patient has a 4-day history, stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia are the recommended management options. Referral for excision and analgesia would be appropriate if the history was <72 hours. However, a 2-week wait referral for suspected cancer is not necessary as the patient's symptoms and examination findings are not indicative of cancer. Although this condition typically resolves within 10 days with supportive management, reassurance alone is not enough. The patient should be given analgesia and stool softeners to alleviate the pain. Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife, complaining of feeling excessively tired during the day. He has been prescribed donepezil for Alzheimer's disease (AD), and he has observed some improvement in his cognitive abilities with this medication. However, his wife reports that he struggles to sleep at night and is becoming increasingly lethargic during the day.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Correct Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alzheimer’s Disease: Choosing the Right Treatment

      Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. Patients with AD often experience sleeping difficulties due to changes in circadian rhythms and medication side-effects. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, is often used as adjunctive treatment in patients with AD to manage insomnia. Along with sleep hygiene measures, such as avoidance of naps, daytime activity, and frequent exercise, trazodone is likely to help this patient’s sleeping problems.

      Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage the psychotic manifestations of AD. However, the clinical scenario has not provided any evidence that the patient is suffering from psychosis. Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is unlikely to benefit the patient who is already taking a similar medication.

      Memantine, an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy in patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. However, this patient is experiencing sleeping difficulty and is more likely to benefit from a medication that specifically targets this clinical problem.

      Tacrine, a centrally acting anticholinesterase inhibitor medication, was previously used for the management of AD. However, due to its potent side-effect profile of fatal hepatotoxicity, it is now rarely used. Additionally, tacrine is unlikely to help this patient’s insomnia.

      Choosing the right medication for AD requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and potential side-effects. Trazodone may be a suitable option for managing insomnia in patients with AD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD)...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD) on day 4 of her 30-day menstrual cycle. She wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after the removal of the IUD, and there are no contraindications to the COCP. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today and use barrier contraception for 5 days

      Correct Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today, no further contraceptive is required

      Explanation:

      No additional contraception is needed when switching from an IUD to COCP if it is removed on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle. The COCP is effective immediately if started on these days, but if started from day 6 onwards, barrier contraception is required for 7 days. There is no need to delay starting the COCP after IUD removal. If the patient had recently taken ulipristal as an emergency contraceptive, she would need to wait for 5 days before starting hormonal contraception.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Maxillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 21-year-old man is brought to the psychiatrist by his father. He expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought to the psychiatrist by his father. He expresses concern for his son's mental health, as he has noticed him talking to himself frequently over the past 6 months. The patient is hesitant to speak with the psychiatrist and insists that his father stay in the room with him. During the psychiatric evaluation, it is revealed that the patient has been hearing a voice in his head for the past year, but denies any thoughts of self-harm or harm to others. The psychiatrist recommends a referral for further treatment, which causes the father to become emotional and question if he did something wrong as a parent. Which factor from the patient's history is a poor prognostic indicator for his condition?

      Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Pre-morbid social withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is more likely to be diagnosed if the patient presents with Schneider’s first-rank symptoms, such as auditory hallucinations, which are characteristic of the condition. However, the presence of auditory hallucinations alone does not indicate a poor prognosis. A poor prognosis is associated with pre-morbid social withdrawal, low IQ, family history of schizophrenia, gradual onset of symptoms, and lack of an obvious precipitant. There is no known link between a family history of an eating disorder and a poor prognosis in schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - At what site does rheumatoid arthritis typically initiate inflammation? ...

    Correct

    • At what site does rheumatoid arthritis typically initiate inflammation?

      Your Answer: Synovium

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a long-term inflammatory condition that affects the joints and surrounding tissues. The exact cause of RA is unknown, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disorder where the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissues. The disease typically affects multiple joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. Over time, the condition can progress and lead to joint deformity and limited mobility. This chronic condition can significantly impact a person’s quality of life, making it important to seek early diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of a painless lump in his...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of a painless lump in his testicle that has been present for a month. After an ultrasound, the GP refers him to the hospital for suspected testicular cancer. The patient undergoes an orchidectomy and is diagnosed with stage 1 seminoma. What is the most likely tumour marker to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: HCG

      Explanation:

      Seminomas are often associated with elevated levels of LDH.
      Prostate cancer is frequently accompanied by an increase in PSA.
      Colorectal cancer is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CEA.
      Melanomas and schwannomas often result in elevated levels of S-100.

      Understanding Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.

      The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been inserted through the left fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line.
      As well as the intercostal muscles, which other muscle is likely to have been pierced?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Chest Drains: Understanding the Anatomy

      The human body is a complex system of muscles, bones, and organs that work together to keep us alive and functioning. When it comes to chest drains, understanding the anatomy of the surrounding muscles is crucial for successful placement and management. Let’s take a closer look at some of the key muscles involved.

      Serratus Anterior
      The serratus anterior muscle is located on the lateral chest and plays a vital role in protracting the scapula and contributing to rotation. It is likely to be pierced with most chest drains due to its position, with its lower four segments attaching to the fifth to eighth ribs anterior to the mid-axillary line.

      Latissimus Dorsi
      The latissimus dorsi muscle is a back muscle involved in adduction, medial rotation, and extension of the shoulder. It is not pierced by a chest drain.

      External Oblique
      The external oblique muscle is located in the anterior abdomen and is not involved with a chest drain.

      Pectoralis Major
      The pectoralis major muscle is situated in the anterior chest and is not affected by a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line. It flexes, extends, medially rotates, and adducts the shoulder.

      Pectoralis Minor
      The pectoralis minor muscle lies inferior to the pectoralis major on the anterior chest. It is a small muscle and is not usually pierced with a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the muscles surrounding the chest is essential for successful chest drain placement and management. Knowing which muscles are likely to be pierced and which are not can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 61-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy for bowel obstruction. On postoperative day 2,...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy for bowel obstruction. On postoperative day 2, while walking in the hallway he experiences a sudden sharp pain and tearing sensation in his lower abdomen. Physical examination of the abdomen reveals separated wound margins with a tiny gaping area and splitting of the sutures in the lower half of the incision. His vital measurements indicate a blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, and a heart rate of 96 beats per minute.

      What is the best initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Surgical management in theatre

      Correct Answer: Cover with sterile saline-soaked gauze + IV antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The initial management of abdominal wound dehiscence involves covering the wound with saline impregnated gauze and administering IV broad-spectrum antibiotics. Bedside suturing should be avoided to prevent further infections. Blood grouping and cross-match followed by blood transfusion is not necessary at this stage as the patient is not actively bleeding and vital measurements are stable. Manual reduction with sterile gloves is not recommended as it can cause damage to the gut loops. If necessary, arrangements for a return to the operation theatre should be made.

      Abdominal wound dehiscence is a serious issue that surgeons who perform abdominal surgery frequently encounter. It occurs when all layers of an abdominal mass closure fail, resulting in the protrusion of the viscera externally. This condition is associated with a 30% mortality rate and can be classified as either superficial or complete, depending on the extent of the wound failure.

      Several factors increase the risk of abdominal wound dehiscence, including malnutrition, vitamin deficiencies, jaundice, steroid use, major wound contamination (such as faecal peritonitis), and poor surgical technique. To prevent this condition, the preferred method is the mass closure technique, also known as the Jenkins Rule.

      When sudden full dehiscence occurs, the wound should be covered with saline impregnated gauze, and the patient should receive IV broad-spectrum antibiotics, analgesia, and IV fluids. Arrangements should also be made for a return to the operating theatre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a follow-up on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a follow-up on her Dupuytren's contracture. She has been experiencing more difficulty lately with her job, which involves a lot of typing. Despite taking Naproxen, she has not found much relief. During the examination, the GP observes that the metacarpophalangeal joints on her right hand's little finger and ring finger are bent forward by 30 degrees, and she is unable to place her hand flat on the table. What should be the GP's next appropriate step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroid injection

      Correct Answer: Make a routine referral to orthopaedics to be seen by a hand specialist

      Explanation:

      When a patient with Dupuytren’s contracture is unable to straighten their metacarpophalangeal joints and place their hand flat on a table, surgical treatment should be considered. This condition occurs when the palmar fascia becomes stiff and fibroses, causing the affected fingers to contract, typically the ring and little finger of the right hand.

      The severity of the condition will determine the appropriate management approach. In cases where the condition is severe and impacting the patient’s quality of life, referral to a hand specialist for secondary intervention is recommended. This may involve either surgical intervention or injectable enzyme therapy, which should only be initiated by a specialist.

      For minor cases where the condition is not significantly affecting the patient’s quality of life, primary care management may be appropriate. This will involve reassurance that the condition may improve over time, regular reviews, and advice on when to return for referral if necessary.

      It is important to note that corticosteroid injections are not effective in treating Dupuytren’s contracture. Additionally, as this is not an acute problem, patients should not be advised to attend the emergency department.

      Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.

      The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.

      Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a complaint of numbness in the skin over his scrotum. Can you identify the nerve responsible for supplying sensation to this area?

      Your Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply to Male Genitalia

      The male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve provides sensory nerve supply to the surface of the scrotum. On the other hand, the pudendal nerve, which gives rise to the dorsal nerve of the penis, is responsible for innervations of the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles, which are essential for erectile and ejaculatory functions.

      However, the long course of the genitofemoral nerve, which includes travel through the superficial inguinal ring along with the spermatic cord, makes it susceptible to injury. Any damage to this nerve can result in sensory loss in the scrotum, leading to discomfort and pain.

      The inferior anal and rectal nerve, which is also a branch of the pudendal nerve, provides sensory and motor innervation to the anal canal and rectum. These nerves play a crucial role in bowel and bladder control, and any damage to them can result in fecal and urinary incontinence.

      In summary, the male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions, and any damage to these nerves can result in discomfort, pain, and loss of function. It is essential to understand the anatomy and function of these nerves to prevent injury and provide appropriate treatment in case of damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain during bowel movements for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain during bowel movements for the past few days. He notices a small amount of fresh, bright-red blood on the toilet paper. He has been having one or two bowel movements per day, which is normal for him, but lately, he has been experiencing hard stools. He is concerned about the pain he will feel during his next bowel movement. He has no other symptoms, fever, or recent weight loss. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. The doctor diagnoses him with an anal fissure. What would be an appropriate management option at this point?

      Your Answer: Topical corticosteroid

      Correct Answer: Bulk-forming laxatives

      Explanation:

      When someone has an anal fissure, they typically experience painful rectal bleeding that appears bright red. The recommended course of action in this case would be to use bulk-forming laxatives and provide dietary guidance on consuming more fluids and fiber. These conservative methods are usually sufficient for treating most cases of acute anal fissures. Additionally, topical analgesics and anesthetics may be utilized.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A mother who has recently moved brings her 9-year-old child to a new...

    Incorrect

    • A mother who has recently moved brings her 9-year-old child to a new local GP for the first time to check for thyroid issues. During the examination, the GP observes that the child has a short neck, flattened nose, and is of short stature. Additionally, the GP notices prominent epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. What long-term condition is this child at a higher risk for?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Explanation:

      It is believed that around 50% of individuals over the age of 85 may suffer from Alzheimer’s. Asthma is an incorrect option as there is no evidence to suggest that individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of developing the condition. The patient was brought in for a thyroid check as there is a link between hypothyroidism and Down syndrome, but no association between Down syndrome and hyperthyroidism exists, making this option incorrect. While acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is associated with Down syndrome, lymphoma is not, making it an incorrect option.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy with an itchy rash that appeared this morning on her arms, legs, and trunk. She also has vesicles on her palms. She mentions feeling unwell for the past two days and experiencing a headache. Last week, she visited her niece in the hospital where a child was treated for a similar rash. Her vital signs are stable. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir and symptomatic relief

      Explanation:

      Managing Chickenpox in Pregnancy: Treatment and Care

      Chickenpox is a common childhood disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. When a pregnant woman contracts chickenpox, it can have detrimental effects on the fetus. However, with proper management and care, the risk of complications can be minimized.

      Oral acyclovir is recommended for pregnant women who develop chickenpox within 24 hours of the rash appearing and are at or over 20 weeks’ gestation. Symptomatic relief, such as adequate fluid intake, wearing light cotton clothing, and using paracetamol or soothing moisturizers, can also help alleviate discomfort.

      Immediate admission to secondary care is necessary for women with severe symptoms, immunosuppression, haemorrhagic rash, or neurological or respiratory symptoms. Women with mild disease can be cared for in the community and should avoid contact with susceptible individuals until the rash has crusted over.

      An immediate fetal growth scan is not necessary unless there are other obstetric indications or concerns. Women who develop chickenpox in pregnancy should have a fetal growth scan at least 5 weeks after the primary infection to detect any possible fetal defects.

      Varicella immunisation is not useful in this scenario, as it is a method of passive protection against chickenpox and not a treatment. Termination of pregnancy is not indicated for chickenpox in pregnancy, but the patient should be informed of the risks to the fetus and possible congenital abnormalities.

      Overall, proper management and care can help minimize the risk of complications from chickenpox in pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to seek medical care if symptoms worsen or if there are any concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What triggers the closure of the umbilical vein? ...

    Correct

    • What triggers the closure of the umbilical vein?

      Your Answer: Reduced blood flow

      Explanation:

      Closure of Fetal Circulatory Structures after Birth

      Following birth, the umbilical vein gradually fibrosis due to a reduction in flow. During fetal development, the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the ductus venosus and back to the inferior vena cava. However, after the placenta is born and the umbilical cord is clamped, flow in the umbilical vein decreases to zero. Over time, the vein transforms into the umbilical ligament, which attaches to the umbilicus as an extension of the ligamentum teres hepatis. In certain conditions, such as cirrhosis, the umbilical vein may reopen due to raised portal pressure.

      In contrast to the closure of the umbilical vein, the closure of the ductus arteriosus is a more complex process. When arterial oxygen tension increases, prostaglandin production decreases, leading to the contraction of the ductus arteriosus. However, elevated prostaglandin levels keep the ductus arteriosus open. At birth, pulmonary arterial pressures decrease as air enters the lungs, causing flow reversal through the foramen ovale in the atrial septum and resulting in its closure.

      Overall, the closure of fetal circulatory structures after birth involves different mechanisms and processes. While the umbilical vein gradually fibrosis due to reduced flow, the ductus arteriosus closure is regulated by prostaglandin levels. The closure of the foramen ovale is also influenced by changes in pulmonary arterial pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at university. She is described by others as quite a reserved character. She has one friend but prefers solitary activities and has few interests. Sarah has never had a boyfriend and does not seem to be interested in companionship. When she is praised or criticised by others, she remains indifferent to their comments. There is no history of low mood or hallucinations.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for Sarah's condition?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder exhibits similar negative symptoms to those seen in schizophrenia. This disorder is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise or criticism, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and a disregard for social norms. John displays more than three of these traits, indicating a possible diagnosis of schizoid personality disorder. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by feelings of inadequacy and social inhibition, while borderline personality disorder involves mood swings and impulsive behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is marked by attention-seeking behavior and exaggerated emotions.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      4.9
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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old woman with homozygous sickle cell disease is hospitalized for an acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman with homozygous sickle cell disease is hospitalized for an acute painful crisis. Despite taking oral medication, her pain remains uncontrolled and she is initiated on patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with morphine. She is currently on a regimen of paracetamol, ibuprofen, dihydrocodeine, phenoxymethylpenicillin, and lactulose. What medication from her regular regimen should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Correct Answer: Dihydrocodeine

      Explanation:

      Dihydrocodeine, an oral opioid medication, should not be prescribed concurrently with an opioid PCA. It is recommended to discontinue dihydrocodeine while the patient is using the PCA and resume it once the patient no longer requires the PCA. Ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, should be continued to assist with pain management. Lactulose, a laxative, should also be continued as constipation is a common side effect of opioid-based painkillers. Paracetamol, another painkiller, should also be continued alongside the PCA to aid in pain control.

      Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.

      For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.

      Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominal Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.

      Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 58-year-old man is seen in the geriatric clinic for review. He has...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man is seen in the geriatric clinic for review. He has developed a symmetrical tremor and bradykinesia. His general practitioner is concerned that he may have developed Parkinson’s disease. He has a long medical history and is on various medications. You are concerned that his presentation may be related to a drug-induced effect, rather than a primary neurological disease.
      Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Parkinsonism: Understanding the Effects of Common Medications

      Drug-induced parkinsonism is a condition that can be caused by certain medications. One such medication is metoclopramide, which acts as a dopamine antagonist and can prevent dopamine from binding to receptors in the basal ganglia, leading to Parkinsonian-like symptoms. Other medications that can cause this condition include typical and atypical anti-psychotics, as well as certain antiemetics.

      However, not all medications have this effect. Cyclizine, for example, is a H1-histamine receptor blocker and is not implicated in the development of drug-induced parkinsonism. Similarly, gabapentin, simvastatin, and tramadol are not known to cause this condition.

      It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and to differentiate between drug-induced parkinsonism and Parkinson’s disease, as the former can present with bilateral symptoms. By being aware of the effects of common medications, healthcare professionals can better manage their patients’ conditions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are a general practitioner and a 85-year-old woman presents with a complaint...

    Correct

    • You are a general practitioner and a 85-year-old woman presents with a complaint of severe itching in her left nipple. During examination, you observe that the nipple is red and there is some discharge with blood stains on her bra. What would be the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Imaging and biopsy

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with skin changes resembling eczema in Paget’s disease of the nipple, it is important to consider the possibility of breast cancer. In this case, the best course of action would be to conduct imaging and biopsy to rule out malignancy, especially in an elderly patient. Emollients and hydrocortisone are typically used to treat eczema.

      Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with breast cancer. It is present in a small percentage of patients with breast cancer, typically around 1-2%. In half of these cases, there is an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of those patients will have an invasive carcinoma. Even in cases where there is no mass lesion, around 30% of patients will still have an underlying carcinoma. The remaining cases will have carcinoma in situ.

      One key difference between Paget’s disease and eczema of the nipple is that Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar, whereas eczema does the opposite. Diagnosis of Paget’s disease involves a punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment will depend on the underlying lesion causing the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman is currently on 40 mg fluoxetine for her depression but...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is currently on 40 mg fluoxetine for her depression but is planning to conceive. Her psychiatrist has recommended switching to sertraline. What is the appropriate regimen for transitioning from one selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) to another?

      Your Answer: Reduce fluoxetine to 20 mg, and cross-taper with low-dose sertraline for two weeks

      Correct Answer: Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, and wait 4–7 days after stopping fluoxetine before starting sertraline

      Explanation:

      Switching from Fluoxetine to Sertraline: Recommended Approach

      When switching from fluoxetine to sertraline, it is important to follow a recommended approach to minimize the risk of adverse effects. Here are some options and their respective explanations:

      1. Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, and wait 4-7 days after stopping fluoxetine before starting sertraline. This approach is recommended because fluoxetine has a long half-life, and a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI. Gradual withdrawal is also recommended for doses over 20 mg.

      2. Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, then start sertraline as soon as fluoxetine has stopped. This approach is not recommended because a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI.

      3. Reduce fluoxetine to 20 mg, and cross-taper with low-dose sertraline for two weeks. This approach is not recommended because fluoxetine has a long half-life, and a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI.

      4. Stop fluoxetine immediately, and start sertraline the following day. This approach is not recommended because fluoxetine has a long half-life, and a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI. Gradual withdrawal is also recommended for doses over 20 mg.

      5. Stop fluoxetine immediately, wait 4-7 days, then start sertraline. This approach is not recommended because gradual withdrawal is recommended for doses over 20 mg. Abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to adverse effects.

      In summary, reducing fluoxetine gradually over two weeks and waiting for a washout period before starting sertraline is the recommended approach. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      23.8
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  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation due to left flank pain indicative of renal colic. During the physical examination, a significant midline abdominal scar is observed, which is consistent with a previous small bowel resection. An abdominal X-ray without contrast shows several kidney stones.
      What kind of kidney stones are most likely present in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Calcium oxalate stones

      Explanation:

      Types of Kidney Stones and Their Causes

      Kidney stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause severe pain when they pass through the urinary tract. There are different types of kidney stones, each with their own causes and treatment options.

      Calcium Oxalate Stones
      Increased urinary oxalate can be genetic, idiopathic, or enteric. Calcium citrate supplementation is the preferred therapy to reduce stone formation. Pain relief and infection prevention are important during the acute period of renal colic. Lithotripsy can be used to break up larger stones.

      Uric Acid Stones
      Uric acid stones are not visible on X-rays.

      Cystine Stones
      Cystine stones are also not visible on X-rays.

      Calcium Carbonate Stones
      These stones are linked to high levels of calcium in the body, either from diet or conditions like hyperparathyroidism.

      Magnesium Carbonate Stones
      Also known as struvite stones, these are made from magnesium, ammonia, and phosphate and are associated with urinary tract infections.

      Understanding the different types of kidney stones and their causes can help with prevention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the brain region responsible for controlling body temperature? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the brain region responsible for controlling body temperature?

      Your Answer: Lateral medulla

      Correct Answer: Pre-optic hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The Hypothalamus and Temperature Regulation

      The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating body temperature. This area of the brain is responsible for maintaining a stable internal temperature, regardless of external conditions. It is important to note that this process is completely automatic and not related to the sensation of heat or cold.

      However, certain drugs can interfere with the hypothalamus’s ability to regulate temperature. Neuroleptics, amphetamine-like compounds, and SSRIs are examples of drugs that can disrupt this process. It is important for individuals taking these medications to be aware of the potential side effects and to consult with their healthcare provider if they experience any changes in body temperature.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is responsible for temperature regulation, and certain drugs can interfere with this process. the role of the hypothalamus in maintaining a stable internal temperature is important for maintaining overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a lack of blood flow to the brain four weeks ago but has since made a remarkable recovery. However, the patient experienced severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea when he switched from taking 300mg of aspirin daily to 75 mg of clopidogrel. Consequently, he stopped taking clopidogrel, and his symptoms have subsided.
      What would be the most suitable medication(s) to recommend for preventing a secondary stroke?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole

      Explanation:

      When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking either medication alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended for this purpose by NICE, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP to extract a common bile duct stone discovered during an episode of biliary colic.
      What is the primary medical condition for which ERCP would be the most beneficial diagnostic procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic duct strictures

      Explanation:

      ERCP and its Indications for Diagnosis and Management of Pancreatic Duct Strictures

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used for imaging the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts. It involves the injection of contrast to outline the ducts, allowing for visual inspection of the ampullary region of the pancreas and outlining of the pancreatic duct. ERCP is helpful in identifying stones, strictures, and tumors that cause obstruction, as well as for therapeutic interventions such as stone extraction or stent insertion.

      ERCP is indicated for patients with evidence or suspicion of obstructive jaundice, biliary/pancreatic duct disease, pancreatic cancer, pancreatitis of unknown origin, pancreatic pseudocysts, sphincter of Oddi dysfunction, and for therapeutic drainage. However, ERCP is not indicated for the diagnosis or management of alcoholic cirrhosis or hereditary hemochromatosis. Diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis can generally be based on clinical and laboratory findings, while liver biopsy can be used to confirm diagnosis if the cause is unclear. Gilbert syndrome, a mild self-limiting condition that causes pre-hepatic jaundice, does not require ERCP for diagnosis. Although ERCP may be used in the therapeutic management of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma with obstructive jaundice, it is not useful in the diagnosis of the condition itself.

      In conclusion, ERCP is a valuable tool for the diagnosis and management of pancreatic duct strictures, but its indications should be carefully considered in each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A patient has been diagnosed with a melanoma on his left hand, which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with a melanoma on his left hand, which measures 1.5 cm. He is booked in to have surgery to remove it.
      During the excision biopsy what margin size will be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 mm

      Explanation:

      Surgical Margins for Skin Cancer Excision

      When removing skin cancer through excision biopsy, it is important to use appropriate surgical margins to ensure complete removal of the cancerous cells. The size of the margin depends on the type and thickness of the cancer.

      For melanomas, a 2 mm margin is used for the initial excision biopsy. After calculating the Breslow thickness, an additional wide excision is made with margins ranging from 1 cm to 2 cm, depending on the thickness of the melanoma. A 1 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring 1.0–4.0 mm, while a 2 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring >4 mm.

      Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) requires a 4 mm excision margin, while basal-cell carcinoma (BCC) requires a 3 mm margin.

      Using appropriate surgical margins is crucial for successful removal of skin cancer and preventing recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP for a follow-up on her depression. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP for a follow-up on her depression. She is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of low mood, anhedonia, poor appetite, and poor sleep, despite completing a full course of cognitive behavioural therapy. Her therapist has recommended medication, and the patient is open to this option. What is the appropriate first-line treatment for her depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Antidepressant Medications: Recommended Use and Precautions

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for moderate to severe depression or mild depression that has not responded to initial interventions. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are not recommended as first-line treatment due to their toxicity in overdose. Dosulepin, in particular, has been linked to cardiac conduction defects and other arrhythmias. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), like phenelzine, may be prescribed by a specialist in refractory cases but are not recommended as first-line treatment. Venlafaxine, a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor, is also not recommended as first-line treatment due to the risk of hypertension, arrhythmias, and potential toxicity in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the most appropriate medication for individual cases of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Surgery (2/5) 40%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/3) 0%
Clinical Sciences (3/4) 75%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
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