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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?
Your Answer: Skull
Correct Answer: Pelvis
Explanation:The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 53 year old female, longstanding case of rheumatoid arthritis comes for a review. Which of the following features are commonly associated with her condition?
Your Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joint involvement in the hands
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is a polyarthritis that results in symmetrical pain and swelling of the affected joints (also at rest). It particularly affects the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCPJs) and proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPJs), not the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).
Ulcerative colitis and IBD are associated with seronegative arthritides, not RA. The condition can also cause various extra-articular manifestations such as ocular symptoms, rheumatoid nodules and pulmonary fibrosis. Scleritis, episcleritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca are more common than uveitis. Early intervention with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) plays a decisive role in successful treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68 year old male, previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis presents to your clinic with acute on chronic pain in his big toe. Past history is significant for hypertension for which he takes Bendroflumethiazide 5mg daily. Examination reveals an erythematous, red hot metatarsophalangeal joint that has a knobbly appearance. X-ray shows punched out bony cysts. Which of the following would be the most appropriate long term management for this patient?
Your Answer: Stop Bendroflumethiazide and substitute a calcium antagonist
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is chronic tophaceous gout, which is classically associated with chronic renal impairment or long term diuretic therapy. There is tophus formation due to urate crystal deposition in and around the joint. These tophi can also form in the bones and soft tissues. Renal manifestations with uric acid include nephrolithiasis and uric acid nephropathy. Whenever there is an acute on chronic attack of gout, the inciting cause must be established and in case of diuretic use, they should be immediately replaced with another medication. Allopurinol is never started during an acute episode. it is first allowed to settle before administration of allopurinol. Although dietary restriction must be observed in people with a propensity of gout, this scenario clearly presents diuretics as the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 22 year old nulliparous female presents with shortness of breath. She has a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis. Complete blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results: Hb: 12.4 g/dl Plt: 137 WBC: 7.5*109/l PT: 14 secs APTT: 46 secs Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:The combination of APTT and low platelets with recurrent DVTs make antiphospholipid syndrome the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 56 year old woman taking procainamide develops drug induced erythematosus. Which of the following features is the most characteristic of this condition?
Your Answer: It does not occur with isoniazid
Correct Answer: It may occur with chlorpromazine
Explanation:Drug induced lupus is usually positive for antinuclear and antihistone antibodies, typically without renal or neurologic involvement. However, pulmonary involvement is common. Drugs that can induce lupus include isoniazid, hydralazine, procainamide, chlorpromazine, and other anticonvulsants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?
Your Answer: Anti-Sm titres
Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres
Explanation:A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.
In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.
A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.
Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?
Your Answer: Oral NSAIDs
Explanation:NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias that have been occurring for a month. You suspect polyarteritis nodosa and arrange for some lab investigations. Which of the following abnormality would most likely be present?
Your Answer: Elevated creatinine
Explanation:People with polyarteritis nodosa often exhibit anaemia of chronic disease. Leucocytosis and eosinophilia may also be present. ANCA is only rarely positive. As polyarteritis nodosa affects the kidneys as well, the creatinine is elevated in most cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?
Your Answer: Linear areas of low density
Explanation:Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?
Your Answer: Monozygotic twin
Explanation:An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her right elbow that is accompanied by numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits. The symptoms are aggravated when the elbow is bent for a prolonged period. Which of the following explains the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Radial tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that involves pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve (also known as the “funny bone” nerve), which can cause numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th digit, pain in the forearm, and/or weakness in the hand. Epicondylitis of the elbow is a condition associated with repetitive forearm and elbow activities. Both lateral epicondylitis (commonly known as tennis elbow) and medial epicondylitis (commonly known as golfer’s elbow) are characterized by elbow pain during or following elbow flexion and extension. Radial tunnel syndrome is a set of symptoms that include fatigue or a dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with use. Although less common, symptoms can also occur at the back of the hand or wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?
Your Answer: Splenomegaly
Explanation:Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She has a history of adult onset Still's disease and complains of joint pains and persistent skin rash despite undergoing treatment with methotrexate and etanercept. On examination, an erythematous macular rash and active synovitis is noted. CRP is high (95 mg/dl). Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?
Your Answer: Mepolizumab
Correct Answer: Anakinra
Explanation:Adult onset Still’s disease (AOSD) is an uncommon systemic inflammatory disease on the clinical spectrum of autoinflammatory disorders. Its presentation and clinical course may result in several well-differentiated phenotypes: from a systemic and highly symptomatic pattern to a chronic articular pattern. Overproduction of numerous pro-inflammatory cytokines is observed in AOSD. Anakinra, a human interleukin (IL)-1R antagonist, has recently been approved in the treatment of AOSD. Denosumab is a RANK ligand inhibitor used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Mepolizumab is used in the treatment of severe asthma with elevated eosinophils. There is some evidence to support the use of tocilizumab, an anti-IL6 monoclonal antibody in adult onset Still’s, but there is stronger data favouring the use of tocilizumab in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Rituximab is usually reserved for patients who are unresponsive to anakinra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she has been experiencing for the last 4 weeks. She does not remember getting injured previously. The pain worsens on movement especially when she is moving the arm quickly. At night, lying on the affected side is painful. Examination reveals no erythema or swelling. However, pain is felt on passive abduction between 60 to 120 degrees and she is unable to abduct the arm past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis
Explanation:Supraspinatus tendinopathy is a common and disabling condition that becomes more prevalent after middle age and is a common cause of pain in the shoulder. A predisposing factor is resistive overuse. This patient has the classic painful arc that is a sign of shoulder impingement characteristic of supraspinatus tendonitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?
Your Answer: Urine for microscopic haematuria
Correct Answer: Blood pressure
Explanation:Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:
Your Answer: Osteoblast function
Correct Answer: Osteoclast function
Explanation:It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer: Female sex
Correct Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Presence of HLA-B27 antigen on tissue typing
Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray
Explanation:Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache, fever and malaise. He also complains of scalp sensitivity while combing his hair. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following would be the definite test?
Your Answer: CT scan
Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy
Explanation:Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling, and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Arthritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease
Correct Answer: Reiter’s syndrome
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?
Your Answer: Malar rash
Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Drug induced lupus typically presents with pulmonary involvement and no renal or neurological involvement. Hence glomerulonephritis would be highly unlikely in this case. Rash and arthralgias are classic presentations. Pleurisy can be present as pulmonary involvement may occur with DILE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination: BP: 101/74 mmHg RR: 22 breaths/min PR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?
Your Answer: Decrease in the production of collagen
Correct Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin
Explanation:Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she has sclerodactyly, thickened skin of the shoulders and bi-basal crepitations. Her HRCT chest shows ground glass changes. Raynaud phenomenon is suspected and she is started on a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for 6 months and a daily dose of 10 mg of oral prednisolone. However, she returned over a period of few weeks after developing exertional dyspnoea, pedal oedema and feeling unwell. On examination, JVP is raised, there is marked pedal oedema and bi basal crepitations on chest auscultation. Urine dipstick shows haematuria (++) and proteinuria (++). What in your opinion is the most likely cause of her deteriorating renal function?
Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis
Explanation:Scleroderma renal crisis (SRC) is a rare but severe complication in patients with systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by malignant hypertension, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes and oligo/anuric acute renal failure. SRC occurs in 5% of patients with systemic scleroderma, particularly in the first years of disease evolution and in the diffuse form. Patients may develop symptoms of fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 55 year old female presents with progressive dyspnoea, dry cough and fever. She started methotrexate therapy six weeks ago. The current regimen includes methotrexate 15 mg/ week, folic acid 5 mg/day and aspirin 75 mg/day. There is no history of any other chronic illness. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 37.8C, pulse: 100 beats/min, BP: 110/80mmHg and SaO2: 90% on air. Examination reveals synovitis in both wrists, and metacarpophalangeal joints. On auscultation, there are scattered crepitations. Blood test reports are given below: Haemoglobin: 13.1g/dl (13.0 – 18.0 g/dL), WBC: 8.2 x109/l (4 – 11 x 109/l), Neutrophils: 5.1×109/l (1.5 – 7 x 109/l), Platelets: 280 x109/l (150 – 400 x 109/L), ESR: 48 mm/hr (0 – 30 mm/1st hr), Urea, electrolytes and creatinine: normal. CXR: patchy airspace shadows bilaterally What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Methotrexate pneumonitis
Explanation:Pneumonitis is a serious and unpredictable side-effect of treatment with methotrexate (MTX) that may become life-threatening. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxaemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Chest radiography reveals a diffuse interstitial or mixed interstitial and alveolar infiltrate, with a predilection for the lower lung fields. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive pattern with diminished diffusion capacity. Lung biopsy reveals cellular interstitial infiltrates, granulomas or a diffuse alveolar damage pattern accompanied by perivascular inflammation. Most patients present in the first few months of starting methotrexate. It is important that all patients receiving methotrexate be educated concerning this potential adverse reaction and instructed to contact their physicians should significant new pulmonary symptoms develop while undergoing therapy. If methotrexate pneumonitis is suspected, methotrexate should be discontinued, supportive measures instituted and careful examination for different causes of respiratory distress conducted. This may be treated with corticosteroids once underlying infection has been excluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at 290 U/L (normal range 35-120). Plain radiographs reveal sclerotic lesions of the bone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: Prostate cancer
Explanation:Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bony metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma. The other cancers listed in the options are osteolytic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most likely have which of the following hand conditions?
Your Answer: Nail dystrophy
Explanation:Nail dystrophy (pitting of nails, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis), dactylitis, sausage shaped fingers are most commonly seen with psoriatic arthropathy. There is asymmetric joint involvement most commonly distal interphalangeal joints. Uveitis and sacroiliitis may also occur. Arthritis mutilans may occur but is very rare. Cutaneous lesions may or may not develop. When they do, its usually much after the symptoms of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?
Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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