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Question 1
Correct
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You see a 56-year-old man with a medical background of hypertension and alcohol dependency. An alcohol history reveals he consumes 60 units of alcohol per week. He presents with feelings of unsteadiness while walking, for 2 weeks. You believe he may have developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Which of the following potential features is most suggestive of the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?Your Answer: Ataxia
Explanation:Symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal vs. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Alcohol withdrawal and Wernicke’s encephalopathy can both present with various symptoms, but it is important to differentiate between the two. Ataxia, confusion, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma are all classic symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which requires urgent admission for parenteral thiamine. Excessive sweating and anxiety are common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, but not typically associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Headache can occur in both conditions, but a thorough history and examination are necessary to determine the cause. Tremor is also common in alcohol withdrawal, but a resting tremor is not the same as the ataxic features seen in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Proper recognition and diagnosis of these conditions is crucial for appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter, who is a Psychiatric Nurse, for a consultation. The daughter reports that she and other relatives have noticed a change in the patient’s behaviour and believes that he is experiencing ‘delirium, but certainly not dementia’.
Which of the following findings is most likely, assuming the daughter’s assessment of the patient is correct?Your Answer: Unimpaired attention
Correct Answer: Altered consciousness
Explanation:Distinguishing Delirium from Dementia: Key Differences to Note
When it comes to altered consciousness, delirium often causes wild fluctuations in consciousness level, while dementia typically only affects consciousness in severe cases. Additionally, delirium has an acute onset over hours to days, while dementia develops more gradually over months to years. Delirium is usually diagnosed within days of onset, while dementia is typically diagnosed 2-3 years after symptoms begin. Symptoms of delirium tend to fluctuate over the course of 24 hours, while dementia symptoms slowly worsen over time. Finally, while delirium can be reversible with early treatment of the underlying cause, dementia cannot be reversed, though treatment may slow its progression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old gentleman presents with a small non-tender lump in the natal cleft. He reports no discharge from the lump. You suspect this to be a pilonidal sinus.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Refer to general surgeons
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Pilonidal Sinus Disease
A watch and wait approach is recommended for individuals with asymptomatic pilonidal sinus disease. It is important for patients to maintain good perianal hygiene through regular bathing or showering. However, there is no evidence to support the removal of buttock hair in these patients. If cellulitis is suspected, antibiotic treatment should be considered. Referral to a surgical team may be necessary if the pilonidal sinus is discharging or if an acute pilonidal abscess requires incision and drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A woman presents 6 weeks postpartum following a normal vaginal delivery. She is Breastfeeding her son who is growing well along the 50th centile. She does however complain of intermittent severe bilateral nipple pain during feeding which persists for a few minutes afterwards. She has noticed her nipples turn very pale after feeds when the pain is present and occasional also a blueish colour. She has seen the local breastfeeding team who have observed her feeding and reassured that the infant’s latch is good. On examination of her breasts, they appear normal with no tenderness or nipple cracks evident. Her infant appears well with a normal tongue and no evidence of tongue tie.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nipple eczema
Correct Answer: Raynaud’s disease of the nipple (vasospasm)
Explanation:Raynaud’s disease of the nipple can cause pain in women who are breastfeeding.
Symptoms of Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as nipple blanching followed by cyanosis and/or erythema. Pain subsides when the nipple returns to its normal color. Other possible causes of nipple pain, such as candidiasis or poor latch, should also be considered. Treatment options for Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs after feeding, avoiding caffeine, and quitting smoking. If symptoms persist, referral to a specialist for a trial of oral nifedipine may be necessary (although this is off-license).
Option one is the correct answer, as the clinical history is consistent with Raynaud’s disease of the nipple. Option two is incorrect, as pain would be more localized and may be accompanied by a white spot or tenderness. Option three is also incorrect, as pain is usually more generalized and occurs during the first few minutes of feeding. Option four is incorrect, as an infection would likely present with purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Option five is also incorrect, as an eczematous rash would likely be present with itching and dry, scaly patches.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with stable sickle cell anaemia presents with an erythematous rash all over her body, which is associated with painful swollen joints. On examination she has clinical signs of anaemia. The full blood count shows absent reticulocytes in the peripheral blood.
Which pathogen is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer: Hepatitis B virus
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 Infection: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications
Parvovirus B19 infection is a common viral illness that is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, but can also be transmitted through contaminated surfaces. Children between the ages of 6 and 10 are most commonly affected, with up to 70% of the population having been infected by the age of 20. Susceptible adults can also become infected, often through exposure to the virus from their own children. Epidemics tend to occur every 4-5 years, with peak infection rates in the winter and spring.
The most common symptom of parvovirus B19 infection is erythema infectiosum, a rash illness characterized by a red rash on the face and extremities. The rash typically appears 17-22 days after exposure to the virus and is preceded by mild fever and fatigue. In addition to the rash, more than 80% of adults with parvovirus B19 infection experience joint pain and swelling, particularly in the small joints of the hands and feet. A positive test for parvovirus B19-specific IgM indicates current or recent infection.
While parvovirus B19 infection typically doesn’t cause significant anemia in individuals with normal red-cell lifespan and function, it can lead to a more severe form of anemia called aplastic crisis in individuals with shortened red-cell lifespan, such as those with sickle-cell anemia. During the acute phase of aplastic crisis, there is a lack of reticulocytes in the blood and erythroid aplasia in the bone marrow. However, recovery is typically marked by the presence of reticulocytosis and giant pronormoblasts in the bone marrow.
In summary, parvovirus B19 infection is a common viral illness that can cause a range of symptoms, including rash and joint pain. While typically not severe, it can lead to complications in individuals with certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment. He recently had his yearly medication review and blood tests were conducted as part of the review. The results of his full blood count show a microcytic anaemia with a haemoglobin level of 100 g/L.
Further blood tests confirm that he has iron deficiency anaemia with a low ferritin level. However, his B12, folate, anti-TTG, and haemoglobin electrophoresis blood tests are all normal. He reports feeling well, with no changes in weight or gastrointestinal symptoms. His bowel movements are regular, and he has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous per rectum. Upon review of his systems, there is no indication of blood loss, and he has no history of haematuria, haemoptysis, or haematemesis.
Upon clinical examination, there are no notable findings. His abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, his chest is clear, and his urine dipstick test is normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Unexplained Iron Deficiency Anaemia in Men Over 60
According to NICE guidelines, men over 60 with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L or less should be urgently referred to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for further assessment. In this case, the patient has been confirmed to have iron deficiency anaemia with a haemoglobin level below 120 g/L, despite being otherwise well with no other focal signs or symptoms, including gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, based solely on the unexplained nature and level of the iron deficiency anaemia, urgent referral is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with Down syndrome has started exhibiting increased stubbornness, irritability, and withdrawal. Additionally, her caregivers have noticed some recent memory loss. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Visual deterioration
Correct Answer: Dementia
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Behavioural Changes and Memory Problems in People with Down Syndrome
People with Down syndrome are at a significantly higher risk of developing dementia, which can lead to memory impairment as well as personality and behavioural changes. While sensory changes such as deafness or visual deterioration could also contribute to these behavioural changes, the history of memory problems and the higher incidence of dementia make it the more likely cause. Other potential factors, such as depression or hypothyroidism, should be considered as differentials but may not fully explain the observed symptoms. Therefore, it is important to monitor and address the cognitive and emotional health of individuals with Down syndrome, and to provide appropriate support and care as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female presents with a four month history of having problems sleeping at night.
She has been woken on numerous occasions by her legs which are irritable and feel that they are being tugged. She needs to keep moving them. This urge lasts variable periods and she finds little relief from rubbing the legs. No abnormalities are noted on examination of her legs.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an uncomfortable sensation in the legs and a strong urge to move them. The exact cause of RLS is unknown, and there are no specific tests for diagnosis. However, the International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group has established four basic criteria for diagnosing RLS, including a desire to move the limbs, symptoms that worsen during rest and improve with activity, motor restlessness, and nocturnal worsening of symptoms.
Treatment for RLS depends on the severity of the condition. Ropinirole is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient, as it is the only agent among the options listed that is licensed for treating RLS. Pramipexole and rotigotine are also licensed for moderate to severe cases of RLS. If you are experiencing symptoms of RLS, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for your individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking. You plan to initiate bupropion therapy for her, but a few days later, you receive a call from the local emergency consultant informing you that she was admitted in status epilepticus. It turns out that you were not aware of her other medications. Which of the following drugs, when taken concomitantly with bupropion, may increase the risk of seizures?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Valproate
Explanation:Interactions and Contraindications of Bupropion
The metabolism of bupropion is complex, with the main active metabolite being hydroxybupropion. However, the levels of hydroxybupropion are affected by CYP2D6 activity. It is important to note that bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and affects the metabolism of sodium valproate, making concomitant use not recommended. In fact, bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of epilepsy.
There are also other drugs that interact with bupropion, including certain antidepressants, antiepileptics, antivirals, dopaminergics, and hormone antagonists. Neuropsychiatric effects have been reported in patients using Antipsychotic medications, anti-parkinsonian medications, and in younger patients taking malaria prophylaxis.
The Committee of Safety of Medicines has issued a reminder that bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures, eating disorders, CNS tumor, or acute alcohol withdrawal. Other factors that can increase the risk of seizures include alcohol abuse, history of head trauma, diabetes, and the use of stimulants and anoretics. It is important to consider these interactions and contraindications when prescribing bupropion to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A researcher is conducting a study that compares a new exercise program for improving cognitive function in adults over 60 with existing methods. Her null hypothesis is that there is no difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and existing cognitive function improvement methods. After collecting sufficient data, she wants to calculate the probability of finding a statistically significant difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and the existing methods.
Which value is this referring to?Your Answer: Null hypothesis value
Correct Answer: Power
Explanation:The correct term for the probability of detecting a statistically significant difference is power. It is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false and can be calculated as ‘1 – probability of a type II error’. The null hypothesis value is not a specific value used in statistics, but rather a statement that two treatments are equally effective. P-value is not the correct answer as it refers to the probability of obtaining a result by chance. Type I error value is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true, while a type II error is accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father, who has concerns about her behaviour. For the last four years, she has been getting into trouble at school, being aggressive with other children, and has 'meltdowns' if her routine must be changed. This is frequently leading to her needing a “time-out” in school and is impacting on her education. Her behaviour is better at home, where a strict routine is maintained. She is very interested in animals and has an extraordinary amount of knowledge about them.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Correct Answer: Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
Explanation:Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder in Children: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a condition that affects around 1% of children in the UK, with symptoms typically developing before the age of three. Boys are more commonly affected than girls, with a ratio of 4:1. Children with ASD exhibit a range of symptoms, including a lack of social awareness, a preference for rules and strict routines, difficulty coping with change, and specific interests about which they have extraordinary knowledge.
In school-age children, additional symptoms may include communication impairments, social impairments, and impairment of interests or behaviours. These symptoms can impact a child’s ability to function in a classroom setting and may lead to disruptive behaviour.
ADHD is another condition that can impact a child’s behaviour in the classroom. Symptoms of ADHD include poor attention span, motor overactivity, and impulsiveness. However, ADHD is not associated with a preference for specific interests or hobbies.
Conduct Disorder is a pattern of behaviour in which the basic rights of others or societal norms are broken. While some features of Conduct Disorder may be present in a child with ASD, the lack of additional symptoms makes it an unlikely diagnosis.
Oppositional Defiance Disorder (ODD) is a pattern of angry and defiant behaviour that impacts a child’s social, educational, or occupational functioning. While aggression with other children may be a symptom of ODD, the absence of additional symptoms makes it an unlikely diagnosis in a child with ASD.
It is important to note that some behaviours, such as getting in trouble at school or having specific interests, can be a normal part of development. However, persistent behavioural problems and aggression that impact a child’s education and daily life warrant a specialist assessment for ASD. Early diagnosis and intervention can help maximise a child’s potential and provide support for parents and caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. Her usual peak flow is 400 L/min. What characteristic indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?
Your Answer: Peak flow rate 300 L/min
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 26/min
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their usual best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack.
According to BTS guidance, pulsus paradoxus is not an adequate indicator of the severity of an acute asthma attack and should not be used. A pulse of 101/min would not be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater. However, a respiratory rate of 26/min is clearly above the threshold advised by BTS and would be a marker of an acute severe attack. If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, then the patient should be admitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the highest ranked source of evidence in the hierarchy of evidence based medicine?
Your Answer: Expert committee report
Correct Answer: Meta-analysis
Explanation:Hierarchy of Evidence Grades
The strength of evidence provided by different study types is ranked in a hierarchy. This hierarchy is important to understand when making clinical decisions based on research. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) documents these evidence grades in Chapter 6 of their Guidelines manual (PMG6).
The strongest level of evidence is provided by meta-analyses, followed by randomized controlled trials (RCTs), controlled studies without randomization, quasi-experimental studies, non-experimental descriptive studies, and finally expert committee reports, opinions, and clinical experience.
It is crucial to consider the strength of evidence when interpreting research findings and applying them to clinical practice. By understanding the hierarchy of evidence grades, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions that are based on the most reliable and robust evidence available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 14
Correct
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A 26-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having stopped breastfeeding her youngest child one week ago. She has a history of mastitis during breastfeeding her older children. On examination, a non-tender lump is found in the left breast at the three o'clock position, 4 cm away from the nipple. The skin overlying the lump appears unaffected. Her vital signs are as follows:
Heart rate: 88, respiratory rate: 12, blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg, Oxygen saturation: 98%, Temperature: 37.4 Cº.
What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?Your Answer: Galactocele, no further investigation necessary
Explanation:Galactocele and breast abscess can be distinguished based on clinical history and examination findings, without the need for further investigation. Recent discontinuation of breastfeeding is a common risk factor for both conditions. However, galactoceles are typically painless and non-tender on examination, with no signs of infection, while breast abscesses are usually associated with local or systemic signs of infection. Although the patient’s history of mastitis raises suspicion for a breast abscess, the absence of tenderness, erythema, and fever strongly suggests a galactocele in this case.
Understanding Galactocele
Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and doesn’t cause any local or systemic signs of infection.
In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and doesn’t require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 15
Correct
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A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30 pills during a weekend trip. She usually remembers to take her pill but has missed days 10, 11, and 12 of her packet, and it is now day 13. Despite taking the day 13 pill this morning, she is worried about the possibility of pregnancy as she had unprotected sex while away. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: No action needed but use condoms for next 7 days
Explanation:The patient is protected for the next 7 days as she had taken the pill for 7 days in a row previously. According to the FSRH guidelines, emergency contraception is not required after taking seven consecutive pills. However, the guidelines suggest using condoms for the next 7 days in this scenario. Please refer to the provided link for more information.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. Can you prescribe something to help her sleep?
Is this response appropriate for a patient who has experienced a traumatic event?Your Answer: Depression
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after four weeks have passed.
Although this scenario has the potential to develop into post-traumatic stress disorder, it is currently classified as acute stress disorder as it has only been two weeks since the event. It is important to monitor the patient’s progress and reassess in two weeks.
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month.
Depression is characterized by persistent low mood and/or loss of pleasure in most activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive, pervasive, and uncontrollable worry, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms that occur on a continuum of severity. To be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the symptoms must be pervasive and persistent for longer than two weeks.
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with haematuria. Investigations confirm the presence of a bladder carcinoma.
In his occupational history, select the single substance exposure which would be a significant risk factor for his current diagnosis.Your Answer: Asbestos
Correct Answer: Aromatic amines
Explanation:Occupational and Environmental Carcinogens: A Brief Overview
Exposure to certain chemicals and substances in the workplace and environment can increase the risk of developing cancer. Bladder carcinoma, for example, is linked to exposure to aromatic amines found in various industries such as dyes, paints, and textiles. Smoking is also a major contributor to bladder cancer. Asbestos, commonly found in construction materials, increases the risk of lung cancer and mesothelioma. Vinyl chloride, used in plastic production and tobacco smoke, is associated with liver cancer, brain cancer, lung cancer, lymphoma, and leukemia. Arsenic exposure predisposes individuals to skin cancer, while nickel exposure increases the risk of squamous-cell carcinomas in the lung and nasal cavity. It is important for individuals to be aware of potential carcinogens in their workplace and environment to take necessary precautions and reduce their risk of developing cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man has an irregular tachycardia with a ventricular rate of 130. He played in a football match the previous day and consumed 28 units of alcohol on the evening of the match. On examination his blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Atrial Flutter
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Common Cardiac Arrhythmias and Their Characteristics
Acute atrial fibrillation is characterized by a sudden onset within the past 48 hours and may be triggered by excessive alcohol or caffeine intake. An ECG is necessary for diagnosis. Atrial flutter is less common than atrial fibrillation and typically presents with a rapid, irregular or regular pulse with a ventricular rate of approximately 150 beats per minute. Extrasystoles are extra heartbeats that disrupt the normal rhythm of the heart and can originate from either the atria or ventricles. Sinus arrhythmia is a common occurrence in children and young adults and involves cyclic changes in heart rate during breathing. Sinus tachycardia is a physiological response to various stimuli such as fever, anxiety, pain, exercise, and hyperthyroidism, and is characterized by a regular heart rate of over 100 beats per minute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on her back that has grown quickly over the past few months. She has a history of frequent sunbed use. The lesion measures 9.5 mm in diameter. She is referred to Dermatology, where a diagnosis of malignant melanoma is confirmed.
What characteristic of the lesion would indicate the worst prognosis for this disease?Your Answer: Lack of surface ulceration
Correct Answer: Breslow thickness > 3 mm
Explanation:Prognostic Factors for Malignant Melanoma
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be staged based on several prognostic factors. The Breslow thickness, measured in millimetres from the dermo-epidermal junction, is a key factor. A thickness greater than 3.5 mm is associated with a poor prognosis, while a thickness less than 1.5 mm has a 5-year survival rate of over 90%. The diameter of the melanoma, however, has not been found to be a significant factor.
Clarke’s level is another important factor, measured from I to IV based on the level of invasion through the dermis. A Clarke’s level of I indicates that the melanoma has not invaded past the basement membrane, which is associated with a better outcome for the patient.
Microsatellite metastases, which are cutaneous metastases around the primary melanoma, can increase the TNM staging score and result in a worse prognosis. Therefore, the lack of microsatellite metastasis is a positive prognostic factor.
Surface ulceration, or the presence of an open sore on the skin, is a poor prognostic indicator and is accounted for in TNM scoring. The absence of surface ulceration is a positive factor for the patient’s prognosis.
Overall, these factors can help predict the prognosis for patients with malignant melanoma and guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 48-year-old man presents to an out-of-hours community hospital walk-in centre feeling light-headed and short of breath. Shortly after he arrives, he loses consciousness. He continues to breathe spontaneously, and a nurse is able to maintain his airway and administer oxygen. Observations show a heart rate of 38 bpm and blood pressure of 88/44 mmHg. An electrocardiogram shows complete heart block.
What is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Your Answer: Administer atropine 1 mg IV
Explanation:Treatment Options for Bradycardia: Understanding the Correct Administration of Medications
Bradycardia is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate, which can lead to serious complications if left untreated. There are several treatment options available for bradycardia, but it is important to understand the correct administration of medications to ensure the best possible outcome.
Administering atropine 1 mg IV is the first-line treatment for bradycardia caused by third-degree heart block. Atropine blocks parasympathetic activity and may improve node conduction. If necessary, it can be repeated every 3-5 minutes to a total of 3 mg.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is not appropriate for patients with a pulse and breathing.
Adenosine 3 mg IV is contraindicated in heart block and is used in the treatment and diagnosis of atrioventricular node-dependent supraventricular tachycardias.
Aminophylline 100 mg IV may be indicated as the first line to treat life-threatening bradycardia in certain patients, but it is not the first-line treatment for all cases.
Adrenaline 1 mg IV is an alternative treatment option if atropine is ineffective, but it is not the first-line treatment.
Understanding the correct administration of medications is crucial in the treatment of bradycardia. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate treatment plan for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are seeing an elderly patient with advanced gastric cancer at home who has called you due to persistent vomiting. The patient is receiving palliative care.
The patient reports persistent large volume vomiting with little preceding nausea, frequent hiccups, early satiety, and acid reflux. The patient also reports that vomiting provides relief.
Which antiemetic medication would be the most appropriate to prescribe?Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Treatment options for gastric stasis in palliative care
Gastric stasis can cause distressing symptoms such as large volume vomiting, acid reflux, hiccoughs, and early satiety. In palliative care, the use of metoclopramide is advised despite restrictions issued by the European Medicines Agency. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing prokinetic drugs with antimuscarinic activity. Haloperidol is effective in treating nausea and vomiting caused by chemical imbalances, while cyclizine is indicated for patients with cerebral disease, motion sickness, and nausea due to mechanical bowel obstruction. Levopromazine is a broad-spectrum antiemetic that can be used when first-line treatments fail. Ondansetron, a 5-HT3 antagonist, is commonly used to treat emetogenic chemotherapy. By understanding the various treatment options available, healthcare professionals can provide effective symptom management for patients with gastric stasis in palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 79-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. He was seen a few days ago with gradual onset exertional breathlessness over the last few months and a clinical diagnosis of cardiac failure was made.
He reports reduced exercise tolerance, being easily fatigued and some mild breathlessness lying flat in bed at night. He has never smoked and aside from a 10 year history of hypertension is otherwise fit and well with no other medical problems. He takes lisinopril 10 mg OD.
On examination he is comfortable at rest sitting in a chair with no appreciable shortness of breath. He has very subtle pitting pedal oedema and some scattered bibasal crepitations on auscultation of the chest. Heart sounds are normal. Pulse rate is 72 bpm, blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% in room air.
On reviewing the patient today with some initial investigations you can see that his chest x ray has been reported as 'cardiothoracic ratio is at the upper limit of normal with clear lung fields' and his ECG shows sinus rhythm with no evidence of previous myocardial infarction and no left ventricular hypertrophy or bundle branch block.
His blood tests show a 'raised' brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 900 ng/l.
What is the next step in your management?Your Answer: Refer for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Referral for specialist assessment not needed, initiate treatment for heart failure in primary care
Explanation:The Importance of SNP Measurement in Suspected Heart Failure
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N terminal-pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) are peptide hormones produced in the heart that can help diagnose heart failure. Elevated levels of these hormones in the blood are indicative of cardiac failure and tend to correlate with the severity of the condition.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that SNP measurement be performed in patients with suspected heart failure to determine which patients should be referred for specialist assessment and echocardiography. It is important to note that the units used to measure SNP levels may vary between labs, so it is crucial to consider the units when interpreting the results.
If a patient has a raised BNP level, they should be referred for assessment within six weeks. However, if a patient presents with signs and symptoms of heart failure and has previously had a myocardial infarction, SNP measurement may not be necessary, and they should be referred directly for assessment within two weeks.
In summary, SNP measurement is a valuable tool in diagnosing heart failure and can help determine the appropriate course of action for patients with suspected cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic acid intake. The patient has a medical history of insulin-treated type 1 diabetes. What recommendations would you make regarding the duration and dosage of folic acid supplementation?
Your Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy
Correct Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken after conception and until week 12 of pregnancy
Explanation:Folic Acid Requirements for Women During Pregnancy
Most women are advised to take 400 mcg of folic acid daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects, such as those with a history of bearing children with NTDs, or women with diabetes or taking anticonvulsants, should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy.
Another group of women who require a higher dose of folic acid are those with sickle cell disease. They need to take 5 mg of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, and even when not pregnant, they’ll usually be taking folic acid 5mg every 1 to 7 days, depending on the severity of their disease. It’s important for women to consult with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose of folic acid for their individual needs during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with Down syndrome attends your clinic alone for his annual health check. He has a history of mild asthma, which is well controlled with his inhalers. He lives with his mother and her partner. When asking about his diet, he tells you that he always eats his dinner, because his mother’s partner says he will hit him if he doesn’t. He doesn't seem concerned about this.
What is the most appropriate response to this information?Your Answer: Ask him if this bothers him. If not, agree not to do anything further
Correct Answer: Raise the issue with the safeguarding lead at the practice
Explanation:Steps to Take When Concerned About a Patient’s Home Situation
If you are a healthcare professional and have concerns about a patient’s home situation, there are several steps you can take. One option is to raise the issue with the safeguarding lead at the practice. They can provide information on whether any concerns have been raised previously and help you decide what to do next.
It is not appropriate to do nothing if you have concerns. Asking the patient if the situation bothers them is not enough, as they may not have the capacity to make decisions or may not want to disclose any issues. Similarly, notifying the police via 101 is not appropriate if the patient is not in immediate danger.
Another option is to contact the duty social worker. However, it is best to gather more information about the family first, which can be done through discussion with the safeguarding lead. If they are not available, then contacting a social worker would be appropriate.
Making an appointment with the patient’s mother and partner to discuss the issue is not recommended, as it could potentially put the patient at more risk. It is important to take appropriate steps to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old boy is presented by his father. He was exclusively breastfed for the first month of life before being switched to formula. Over the past eight weeks, he has been experiencing various issues such as vomiting, regurgitation, eczema, and diarrhea. Despite these problems, he has maintained his weight at the 50th percentile. Physical examination reveals no significant findings except for some dry skin on his chest. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Correct Answer: Cow's milk protein intolerance
Explanation:If symptoms appear after formula is introduced, it strongly indicates the presence of cow’s milk protein intolerance.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Correct
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A 4-year-old child presents to the out of hours service with a two-night history of earache. The child has a fever, but no ear discharge. There is no vomiting, but loose stool was reported twice today and the child passed urine four hours ago. The child had a similar episode six months ago that resolved with antibiotics. The child has no significant medical history. On examination, the child is well hydrated, has no rash, and clear chest. The left ear has an erythematous bulging eardrum with no perforation or discharge. The right ear and throat show no abnormalities, and there is no cervical lymphadenopathy or mastoid tenderness. The child has a fever of 39°C, HR 130, RR 30, CRT <2 sec. Based on the NICE 'traffic light' system, what is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Advise on fluids and regular analgesia and send home with worsening advice as low risk of serious illness
Explanation:Management of Unilateral Otitis Media in Primary Care
This child doesn’t exhibit any life-threatening symptoms or signs of serious illness. Based on the NICE ‘traffic light’ system, there are no ‘red’ or ‘amber’ indicators. The most probable diagnosis is unilateral otitis media, which can be safely managed in primary care. Parents should be advised to administer Calpol and/or Nurofen for pain relief and encourage oral fluids. The average duration of acute otitis media is four days.
Immediate antibiotics are only necessary for children with bilateral acute otitis media under the age of two, otorrhoea, systemic illness, symptoms and signs of serious illness and/or complications, or high risk of complications due to pre-existing comorbidity. Despite national guidelines, a large primary care study has shown that antibiotic prescribing remains high. Antibiotic prescriptions for otitis media have increased from 77% in 1995 to 85% in 2011. Therefore, it is crucial to educate patients on the natural duration of common infections and the potential harm of inappropriate antibiotic use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling of the metacarpo-phalangeal joints and the proximal inter-phalangeal joints of both hands. She reports that the symptoms are worse in the morning and her hands are very stiff. The symptoms have been present for eight weeks. Her rheumatoid factor is reported as weakly positive.
What is the most suitable course of action for a general practitioner? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Urgent referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis
If a patient presents with persistent synovitis of unknown cause, it is important to consider the possibility of rheumatoid arthritis. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary if the small joints of the hands or feet are affected, more than one joint is affected, or symptoms have been present for three months or longer before presentation. This referral should be made even if the patient’s erythrocyte sedimentation rate is normal and they are negative for rheumatoid factor and anticyclic citrullinated peptide.
While a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug may be prescribed by a general practitioner for pain control, the urgent referral to a rheumatologist is the most appropriate option. In secondary care, a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) such as methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine should be started as soon as possible, ideally within three months of the onset of persistent symptoms. Short-term bridging treatment with glucocorticoids may also be considered when starting the DMARD.
In summary, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary for suspected rheumatoid arthritis, even if certain diagnostic markers are negative. Prompt treatment with a DMARD is crucial for managing the disease and preventing long-term joint damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You see a 6-month-old boy who you suspect has non-IgE-mediated cow's' milk protein allergy. He is exclusively breastfed. You would like to do a trial elimination of cows' milk from his diet.
What would you advise the mother to achieve this trial elimination?Your Answer: Exclude cows' milk protein from her diet for 1 week
Correct Answer: Exclude cows' milk protein from her diet for 4 weeks
Explanation:Managing Non-IgE-Mediated Cow’s’ Milk Protein Allergy in Infants
When dealing with a breastfed infant suspected of having non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy, it is recommended to advise the mother to exclude cows’ milk from her diet for 2-6 weeks. During this period, calcium and vitamin D supplements may be prescribed to ensure the infant’s nutritional needs are met. After the exclusion period, reintroducing cows’ milk is advised to determine if it is the cause of the infant’s symptoms. If there is no improvement or the symptoms worsen, a referral to secondary care may be necessary.
For formula-fed or mixed-fed infants, replacing cow’s milk-based formula with hypoallergenic infant formulas is recommended. Extensively hydrolysed formulas (eHF) are typically the first option, and amino acid formulas are an alternative if the infant cannot tolerate eHFs or has severe symptoms. It is important to note that parents should not switch to soy-based formulas without consulting a healthcare professional, as some infants with cow’s’ milk protein allergy may also be allergic to soy.
In cases where there is faltering growth, acute systemic reactions, severe delayed reactions, significant atopic eczema with multiple food allergies suspected, or persistent parental concern, a referral to secondary care should be considered. With proper management and guidance, infants with non-IgE-mediated cow’s’ milk protein allergy can still receive adequate nutrition and thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You assess a 63-year-old man who has recently been released from a hospital in Hungary after experiencing a heart attack. He presents a copy of an echocardiogram report indicating that his left ventricular ejection fraction is 38%. During the examination, you note that his pulse is regular at 78 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 124/72 mmHg, and his chest is clear. He is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, and lisinopril. What would be the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol
Explanation:The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers. NICE guidelines suggest that all individuals with heart failure should be prescribed both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrognathia
Explanation:Symptoms of Sleep Apnoea
Sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Apart from this, there are other common symptoms that may be experienced by individuals with this condition. These include apparent personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less common symptom. Sleep apnoea may also be associated with other medical conditions such as acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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