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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented with a minor painless vaginal bleed at 38...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented with a minor painless vaginal bleed at 38 weeks' gestation. An ultrasound scan revealed that the placenta was anterior and partially covering the internal cervical os. The presenting foetal pole was in the cephalic position. The bleeding had ceased.
      What is the most suitable method of delivery? Choose the ONE most appropriate option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Admit into hospital and aim for elective caesarean section at 39 weeks

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, it is important to promptly assess her and focus on her and the fetus’s well-being. This includes monitoring vital signs, initiating electronic fetal monitoring, and obtaining blood tests to determine the need for Rh immunoglobulin and blood transfusions. If significant bleeding occurs, blood should be cross-matched for rapid replacement of blood volume. Once stability is achieved, the cause of the bleeding can be assessed through ultrasound and sterile speculum exams. If the bleeding is severe or fetal monitoring is non-reassuring, emergency caesarean delivery is necessary. Otherwise, the mode of delivery is determined by the proximity of the placenta to the internal os of the cervix. Hospitalization is recommended for at least 48 hours during a sentinel bleeding episode, and multiple episodes may require hospitalization until delivery. Disseminated intravascular coagulation should also be considered, and clotting studies may be ordered. this patient should be admitted and aim for elective caesarean section at 39 weeks
      Respiratory morbidity, including transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN), is more common in babies delivered by caesarean section, especially before 39 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      70.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant for the past two days. He reports feeling like he has the flu and his wife mentions that he has had a fever for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 38.1ºC, blood pressure at 100/60 mmHg, and pulse at 102/min. He experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant and his sclera have a yellowish tint. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice, and pain in the right upper quadrant indicates Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which is commonly associated with ascending cholangitis. This combination of symptoms is not typically seen in cases of acute cholecystitis.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child has epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. Genetic testing confirms an autosomal trisomy. What is the most frequent cardiac anomaly observed in infants with this disorder?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Down Syndrome Patients

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that often presents with physical characteristics such as epicanthic folds, single creases, and an autosomal trisomy. It is common for children with Down syndrome to have congenital heart disease, with 42% of the population affected. Of those, 23% have multiple cardiac abnormalities. The most prevalent cardiac abnormality, found in 37% of cases, is a complete atrioventricular septal defect. Ventricular septal defects are the second most common, affecting 30% of patients. Mitral valve disorders occur in up to 40% of Down syndrome patients, but mitral stenosis is less common. Atrial septal defects affect 15% of patients, while patent ductus arteriosus affects only 2%. Understanding the prevalence of these cardiac abnormalities in Down syndrome patients is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A woman contacts the local psychiatry crisis team, worried about her daughter -...

    Correct

    • A woman contacts the local psychiatry crisis team, worried about her daughter - who has previously been diagnosed with schizophrenia - becoming more isolated and paranoid about her surroundings. She reports that her daughter is increasingly concerned about her neighbors eavesdropping on her conversations. Her symptoms were previously well managed on daily risperidone. When the woman visited her daughter, she discovered unopened boxes of her medication on the counter.

      What would be a suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Depot risperidone injections

      Explanation:

      Considering the patient’s increasing symptoms of psychosis, it is possible that non-compliance with their risperidone medication is an issue. In such cases, it is recommended to consider once monthly IM antipsychotic depot injections for patients with poor oral compliance. However, the patient’s risperidone dose would need to be re-titrated to their previous level.

      Clozapine is typically used for treatment-resistant psychosis after trying two other antipsychotics. However, there is no evidence of the patient having tried multiple antipsychotics, and it appears that risperidone was effectively controlling their symptoms. If risperidone is not effective, quetiapine could be tried before considering Clozapine, provided there are no contraindications.

      While cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) can be helpful in reducing symptoms of psychosis, it is less likely to be effective than monthly depot injections.

      Based on the patient’s history, there is no indication that they pose a risk to themselves or others that would warrant admission. Therefore, efforts should be made to manage the patient in the community.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      80.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman is 30 weeks pregnant and presents with a blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is 30 weeks pregnant and presents with a blood pressure reading of 162/110 mmHg, protein +++ on urine dipstick, and significant ankle edema. Despite these symptoms, she reports feeling generally well. What is the initial treatment approach for her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      The patient is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, initial treatment for severe hypertension in pregnancy (160/110mmHg or higher) should be labetalol. Delivery should not be considered before 34 weeks, unless the hypertension remains unresponsive to treatment or there are maternal or fetal indications as specified by the consultant plan. After completing a course of corticosteroids, delivery should be offered to women with pre-eclampsia at 34 weeks. In critical care situations, intravenous magnesium sulphate may be used for women who have previously experienced eclamptic fits due to severe hypertension or pre-eclampsia, but not solely to lower blood pressure. Frusemide should not be used to treat hypertension in pregnancy as it can reduce placental perfusion and cross the placental barrier.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried about her continued bedwetting at night. They had visited the clinic 4 weeks ago and have seen no improvement despite following general management advice and a basic reward system. The girl is healthy otherwise and has no history of constipation or daytime incontinence. She does not complain of any issues at home or school. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities.
      What additional treatment options would you suggest for her?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When general management advice has not been effective for nocturnal enuresis, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line recommendation. This device detects urine moisture and triggers an alarm (either through sound or vibration) to wake the child and prompt them to use the toilet. Enuresis alarms have a high success rate when used consistently, and a review is typically conducted after four weeks to assess progress. Bladder training and retention control training are not recommended by NICE guidelines due to limited evidence and concerns about promoting voiding dysfunction. Desmopressin, a vasopressin analogue that reduces urine production, may be considered if the family is not receptive to or finds an enuresis alarm ineffective. However, an enuresis alarm should be offered first. Desmopressin can provide short-term control, but it can cause hyponatremia. Desmopressin plus oxybutynin may be helpful if there are daytime symptoms or if desmopressin alone does not improve the condition. As not all anticholinergic medications have UK marketing authorization for bedwetting treatment, a healthcare professional with appropriate expertise should manage this combination, often requiring a specialist referral and further investigations.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      142.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb, and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus. Joint position sense is impaired at her left great toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal.
      Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate site of the lesion from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Left lumbosacral plexus

      Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest Brown-Séquard syndrome, which is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord. This results in ipsilateral pyramidal weakness and loss of joint position/vibration sense, along with contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation. The patient’s lesion is located in the left mid-thoracic cord. A lesion in the left lumbosacral plexus would only affect the left lower limb. A cervical cord lesion would affect the upper limbs. A central lesion would produce bilateral symmetrical defects, which is not the case here. A right mid-thoracic cord lesion would produce similar symptoms, but on the right side instead. Other spinal cord syndromes include complete cord transection, anterior cord syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, syringomyelia, and cauda equina syndrome. Each of these has a distinct set of symptoms and affected areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      240.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She had her last period 6 weeks ago and is sexually active without using any hormonal contraception. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has a heart rate of 84 bpm and a blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa. A pregnancy test confirms that she is pregnant, and further investigations reveal a 40 mm left adnexal mass with no heartbeat. The serum b-hCG level is 6200 IU/L. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring

      Explanation:

      For women with no other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingotomy. In the case of a patient with acute-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding after 6-8 weeks following her last period, a positive pregnancy test, and ultrasound findings confirming an ectopic pregnancy, laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring is the correct course of action. This is especially true if the size of the ectopic pregnancy is greater than 35 mm and the beta-hCG levels are higher than 5000 IU/L. Salpingotomy may require further treatment with methotrexate and may not remove the ectopic pregnancy entirely, making salpingectomy the preferred method. Expectant management and monitoring, laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring, and methotrexate and monitoring are all inappropriate for this patient’s case.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      121.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan, resulting in the alleviation of his symptoms.
      What is the mechanism of action of the drug?

      Your Answer: Causing vasoconstriction of cranial arteries

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Sumatriptan: A Migraine and Cluster Headache Treatment

      Sumatriptan is a medication commonly used to treat migraine and cluster headaches. It works by activating specific serotonin receptors (5-HT1D and 5-HT1B) found on cranial and basilar arteries, causing vasoconstriction of these blood vessels. This medication can be administered orally, by subcutaneous injection, or intranasally.

      It is important to note that sumatriptan has no effect on adrenergic receptors or acetylcholinesterase receptors. It is also not a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor or an opioid receptor agonist or antagonist.

      In addition to its effects on blood vessels, sumatriptan has been shown to decrease the activity of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for its effectiveness in treating cluster headaches.

      Overall, understanding the mechanisms of sumatriptan can help healthcare professionals and patients better understand how this medication works to alleviate the symptoms of migraine and cluster headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      56.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An infant develops bile-stained vomiting; an abdominal X-ray shows a ‘double bubble’ appearance....

    Correct

    • An infant develops bile-stained vomiting; an abdominal X-ray shows a ‘double bubble’ appearance. The infant is also hypotonic with brachycephaly.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders and Associated Phenotypic Features

      Trisomy 21: Down Syndrome and Duodenal Atresia
      Neonates with Down syndrome have an increased risk of duodenal atresia, accounting for around a third of cases. Prenatal imaging can detect this condition, which presents with bilious vomiting within hours of birth. Down syndrome is also characterized by distinct physical features such as brachiocephaly, upward slanting palpebral fissures, and joint hyperflexibility.

      45,XO: Turner Syndrome and Cardiac Defects
      Turner syndrome affects females with a genetic complement of 45XO. It is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and lymphoedema. Cardiac defects, including coarctation of the aorta, may also be present.

      Fragile X: Learning Disability and Autism
      Fragile X is a common X-linked form of learning disability and autism. Physical features are difficult to detect in infancy, but delayed motor milestones and speech and language delay may be present. Macro-orchidism is almost universal post-puberty, and cardiac defects, including mitral valve prolapse, may occur.

      Trisomy 18: Edwards’ Syndrome and Neonatal Hypotonia
      Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is characterized by neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures. There is severe psychomotor and growth retardation, microcephaly, and microphthalmia. Over 90% have cardiac defects, commonly VSD, as well as anomalies in most organ systems.

      47,XXY: Klinefelter’s Syndrome and Infertility
      Klinefelter’s syndrome affects males with a genetic complement of either 47,XXY or 48,XXXY. It is a random mutation, not inherited, and is characterized by tall stature, poorly developed testes or cryptorchidism, and gynaecomastia. Infertility is common. Physical features are not obvious in infancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 19-year-old man with a history of anxiety and depression is being managed...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old man with a history of anxiety and depression is being managed by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service. They have suggested prescribing an SSRI. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Fluoxetine is the preferred SSRI for children and adolescents.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines include BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.

      Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics

      Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.9
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with weight loss, dry eyes...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with weight loss, dry eyes and palpitations. He reports feeling jittery and nervous for the past few weeks. Upon examination, a fine tremor, regular pulse of 105 bpm, exophthalmos and a moderate, smooth goitre are noted. The results of his thyroid function tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.03 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
      Free T4 38.5 pmol/l 12.0–22.0 pmol/l
      Free T3 11.8 pmol/l 3.1–6.8 pmol/l
      Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies Positive
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Thyrotoxicosis: A Brief Overview

      Thyrotoxicosis, or hyperthyroidism, can be caused by various conditions, including Graves’ disease, De Quervain’s thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, hypothyroidism, and toxic multinodular goitre. Among these, Graves’ disease is the most common cause, characterized by autoimmune dysfunction and typical hyperthyroid symptoms. About a third of patients with Graves’ disease also develop eye signs, while pretibial myxoedema or clubbing of the fingers may occur rarely. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is associated with transient hyperthyroidism following a viral infection and neck pain. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune condition, causes hypothyroidism instead of hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism presents with weight gain, fatigue, constipation, dry skin, and depression, and is characterized by raised TSH and reduced T4 or T3. Finally, toxic multinodular goitre is the second most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the UK, presenting with a multinodular goitre and hyperthyroidism without Graves’ disease symptoms. However, in the case presented, the positive TPO antibodies and typical Graves’ disease symptoms make it the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      88.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man complains of bilateral leg pain that occurs during walking. He...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man complains of bilateral leg pain that occurs during walking. He has a history of peptic ulcer disease and osteoarthritis. The pain usually starts after walking for about 5 minutes and goes away when he sits down. He has noticed that leaning forward or crouching helps relieve the pain. There are no abnormalities found during musculoskeletal and vascular examination of his lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      This presentation is typical of spinal stenosis. Although peripheral arterial disease is a possible alternative diagnosis, the pain relief factors and absence of abnormalities in the vascular examination suggest otherwise.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      110.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
      Free T4 35 pmol/L
      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).

      The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.

      On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 48-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of hip and back pain that has been getting worse over the past 3 years. The patient reports that the hip pain is more severe when bearing weight and improves with rest. During the examination, you observe frontal bossing and leg bowing.

      What is the initial treatment option that should be considered for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D replacement

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone.
      Replacing vitamin D is not an effective treatment for Paget’s disease.
      Radiotherapy is used to treat osteosarcoma, not Paget’s disease.
      Cinacalcet is used to treat hypercalcemia caused by hyperparathyroidism, not Paget’s disease.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, accompanied by red and weeping areas. The dermatologist performs a skin biopsy, which reveals a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, particularly in the mouth. It is caused by autoantibodies to desmoglein 3, a component of the desmosome. The blisters are thin-walled and easily ruptured, leaving painful erosions. Diagnosis is made with a skin biopsy, and treatment involves high-dose corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive drugs.

      Bullous pemphigoid is another blistering disorder, but it involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured than in pemphigus vulgaris. Mucous membranes are typically not affected.

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic clusters of small blisters on the elbows, knees, back, and buttocks. It is associated with HLA-DQ2 and DQ8 and is often seen in patients with coeliac disease.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes the skin to become very fragile, leading to blistering and erosions. Symptoms appear at birth or shortly afterwards.

      Tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering and is a genetic disorder that causes benign tumours to grow in various organs, including the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      62.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. She is considering getting a Nexplanon implant. When is it appropriate to insert Nexplanon in this situation?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      593.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old female presents with an acutely painful hand. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female presents with an acutely painful hand. She has a history of hypertension, Raynaud's phenomenon, and has smoked twenty cigarettes a day since she was twenty-two years old. She describes the pain as 'different from her usual Raynaud's,' there has been no relief of symptoms despite wearing gloves and making sure her hands are warm.

      Upon examination, her blood pressure is 158/80 mmHg, her right hand is blanched white and feels cold, and the colour of her forearm is normal. The radial pulse is not palpable at the wrist. What is the most likely explanation for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Superficial vein thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Buerger's disease

      Explanation:

      If a patient with extremity ischaemia is diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon, Buerger’s disease should be considered as a possible underlying condition. Buerger’s disease is a condition where the small and medium arteries in the hands and feet become inflamed and thrombosed, leading to acute or chronic progressive ischaemic changes and potentially gangrene. It is strongly associated with smoking. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, presents with joint pain and swelling, typically in the wrist, knee, hip, or thumb base, and is more common with age. Radial artery dissection is unlikely in the given scenario as there is no history of traumatic injury. Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterised by transient vasospasm of the digits triggered by cold, is usually treated conservatively with warmth and sometimes calcium channel blockers in severe cases. It is mostly idiopathic but can be associated with underlying connective tissue disease.

      Understanding Buerger’s Disease

      Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      80.4
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera, and increasing abdominal girth. He admits to drinking 80 cl of whisky daily and has had several unsuccessful attempts at community detoxification. The patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis. During the examination, a significantly distended abdomen with a shifting dullness and an enlarged mass in the right upper quadrant are observed.

      What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Fluid restrict with IV 1.9% NaCl

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For patients with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis, it is recommended to prescribe an aldosterone antagonist, such as spironolactone, as the preferred diuretic to combat sodium retention. A low-salt diet should also be implemented. While furosemide can be useful in combination with spironolactone, it is not effective in blocking aldosterone and should not be used as a single agent. Nephrotoxic medications, including naproxen, should be avoided. ACE inhibitors, like ramipril, can induce renal failure and should be used with caution and careful monitoring of blood pressure and renal function. Restricting high sodium concentration fluids will not be beneficial, but a low sodium diet is recommended to prevent water retention.

      Understanding Ascites: Causes and Management

      Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal fluid in the abdomen. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. A SAAG level greater than 11g/L indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. On the other hand, a SAAG level less than 11g/L is caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, infections, and other factors such as bowel obstruction and biliary ascites.

      The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and fluid restriction, especially if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone and loop diuretics are often prescribed to patients. In some cases, drainage through therapeutic abdominal paracentesis is necessary. Large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality. Prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In severe cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

      Understanding the causes and management of ascites is crucial in providing appropriate medical care to patients. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      94.5
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  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).
      TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L and free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently in good health and shows no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time

      Explanation:

      According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.

      Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men, with a 2-5% chance per year. This risk is further increased if thyroid autoantibodies are present.

      Not all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism require treatment, and guidelines have been produced by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS) to help determine when treatment is necessary. If the TSH level is above 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, levothyroxine may be offered. If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be considered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms of hypothyroidism. For older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients may simply have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.

      In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and consideration of treatment options based on individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      271.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her GP with tearfulness and a low mood...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her GP with tearfulness and a low mood for the past few weeks. The GP notes from her medical history that she has a history of renal stones.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Low Mood and Renal Stones

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism:
      This condition can cause hypercalcemia, which may present as renal stones, osteoporosis, arthritis, nausea and vomiting, peptic ulcer disease, constipation, polyuria, depression, memory loss, and delirium.

      Hyperthyroidism:
      Hyperthyroidism may present with restlessness, irritability, insomnia, tremor, palpitations, weight loss, sweating, heat intolerance, diarrhea, oligomenorrhea, hair thinning, and muscle weakness. Graves’ disease may also cause a goiter and thyroid eye disease, presenting as proptosis, dry eyes, periorbital edema, and lagophthalmos.

      Hypothyroidism:
      Typical features of hypothyroidism include dry skin, brittle and diminished hair, lethargy, cold intolerance, dull or blank expression, puffy eyelids, and weight gain. Patients may also experience cerebellar ataxia, ascites, non-pitting edema of the hands and feet, and congestive cardiac failure.

      Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism:
      This condition may present with short fourth and fifth metacarpals, round face, short stature, basal ganglia calcification, and decreased IQ.

      Secondary Hyperparathyroidism:
      This condition may present with signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia, including perioral paresthesia, seizures, spasms, anxiety, increased smooth muscle tone, disorientation, dermatitis, impetigo herpetiformis, cataracts, Chvostek’s sign, and long Q–T interval.

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Low Mood and Renal Stones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 49-year-old school teacher presents with abdominal fullness and weight loss over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old school teacher presents with abdominal fullness and weight loss over the last six months. On examination, he is pale.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 102 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 68.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Neutrophil count 39.1 × 109/l 2.2–8.6 ×109/l
      Lymphocyte count 4.8 × 109/l 0.8–3.5 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 505 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 56 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
      His peripheral blood picture is shown here:
      Picture courtesy: Dr R Paul, MCH, Kolkata
      What is the next most definitive step in diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow study

      Correct Answer: Genotype study

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Approaches for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of blood cancer that can be diagnosed through various diagnostic approaches. A patient with elevated total leukocyte and neutrophil counts, mild anaemia, and an elevated platelet count, along with numerous myeloid line cells in different stages of differentiation, is likely to have CML. However, to confirm the diagnosis, a genotype study is necessary to demonstrate the cytogenetic hallmark of t(9:22). This can be done through molecular methods like fluorescence in situ hybridisation or cytogenetic analysis.

      A bone marrow study can also be performed, which will show a greatly increased myeloid: erythroid ratio, but it will not help in confirming the diagnosis. Similarly, a low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score can differentiate from a leukemoid reaction but cannot confirm the diagnosis. Immunophenotyping can show cells of myeloid lineage but cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.

      Iron kinetics studies are not necessary in this case as the increased total leukocyte count and peripheral smear picture suggest a chronic myeloproliferative state rather than iron deficiency. In conclusion, a genotype study is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis of CML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      99.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 5-year-old girl is seen in the Paediatric Admissions Unit with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is seen in the Paediatric Admissions Unit with a fever lasting for a week. During examination, she presents with red, painful lips and conjunctival injection. Additionally, her hands are swollen and red. Blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 13.1 g/dl, WBC 12.7 *109/l, Platelets 520 *109/l, and CRP 96 mg/L. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Still's disease

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      162.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old man presents to the clinic in the morning with a deformity...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the clinic in the morning with a deformity in his right hand. He denies any tingling or numbness but mentions experiencing slight difficulty in using his hand, particularly when writing. The little and ring fingers appear to be slightly flexed, with no observable weakness. What could be the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dupuytren's contracture

      Explanation:

      Dupuytren’s contracture is characterized by the thickening of the palmar aponeurosis, resulting in the inward bending of the medial digits. This can severely affect hand function, but does not involve any sensory issues, making nerve palsy unlikely. Ganglions typically appear as cystic swellings on the back of the hand, while trigger finger is associated with a digit catching or snapping during flexion.

      Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.

      The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.

      Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes a spirometry evaluation with the following findings: a decrease in forced vital capacity (FVC), an increase in the forced expiratory volume in one second to forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1:FVC ratio), and a decrease in the transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO), indicating impaired gas exchange. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      116.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old traveler, recently returned from Thailand, arrives at the Emergency Department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old traveler, recently returned from Thailand, arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of gradual right scrotal pain, tenderness, and swelling that has been worsening for the past 6 days. The medical team suspects epididymo-orchitis. What is the recommended empirical treatment in case the causative organism is unknown?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly single dose, plus oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 10-14 days

      Explanation:

      For a suspected case of epididymo-orchitis in a high-risk patient for sexually transmitted infections (STI), such as this young businessman returning from Thailand, the recommended empirical treatment is ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly single dose, plus oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 10-14 days. This is because the likely organisms involved are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If the clinical scenario suggests gram-negative organisms, as in the case of an older man with low risk of STI, ciprofloxacin 500mg twice daily for 10-14 days can be used as empirical treatment. However, amoxicillin, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are not suitable antibiotics to cover the possible organisms and are not recommended in the guidelines.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      70.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man complains of pain and redness around his first metatarsophalangeal joint....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man complains of pain and redness around his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Causes of Gout: Medications and Other Factors

      Gout is a type of joint inflammation that occurs due to the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in the synovium. This condition is caused by chronic hyperuricemia, which is characterized by high levels of uric acid in the blood (above 0.45 mmol/l).

      Several medications and other factors can contribute to the development of gout. Diuretics such as thiazides and furosemide, as well as immunosuppressant drugs like ciclosporin, can increase the risk of gout. Alcohol consumption, cytotoxic agents, and pyrazinamide are also known to be associated with gout.

      In addition, low-dose aspirin has been found to increase the risk of gout attacks, according to a systematic review. However, this risk needs to be weighed against the cardiovascular benefits of aspirin. Patients who are prescribed allopurinol, a medication used to treat gout, are not at an increased risk of gout attacks when taking low-dose aspirin.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential causes of gout, including medications and lifestyle factors, in order to prevent and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a painless lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a painless lump in her left breast. After undergoing triple assessment, she is diagnosed with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer and her oncologist prescribes anastrozole as treatment. What potential risks may this medication pose for her?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, may lead to the development of osteoporosis. This medication is commonly used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women by reducing the production of peripheral oestrogen. However, patients taking this medication are at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis. On the other hand, selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERM) like tamoxifen may cause amenorrhoea, endometrial cancer, vaginal bleeding, and venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is typically used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in pre-menopausal women.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      16.9
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and lower abdominal pain. She has had two sexual partners over the last three months and uses the combined oral contraceptive pill as contraception. She has noticed some spotting and post-coital bleeding since her last period and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the last few days. There is no past medical history of note and no known allergies.
      On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable organomegaly. On examination, there is a thick yellow vaginal discharge and mildly tender palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Diseases

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can present with a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common STD is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be asymptomatic or present with dysuria, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken, and a urinalysis and pregnancy test should be completed. The first-line treatment for C. trachomatis is doxycycline.

      Ceftriaxone is indicated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections, which can present similarly to chlamydia with discharge and dysuria. However, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is C. trachomatis, making doxycycline the correct answer.

      Benzylpenicillin is used in patients with suspected syphilis infection secondary to the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages with primary syphilis presenting as a painless chancre with local, non-tender lymphadenopathy prior to secondary disease with fever and a rash. This is not seen here, making syphilis a less likely diagnosis.

      Metronidazole is the recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis. However, it is not used in the treatment of C. trachomatis.

      Trimethoprim would be the recommended treatment if this patient was diagnosed with a urinary-tract infection (UTI). While the history of lower abdominal pain and dysuria are suggestive of a UTI, a foul-smelling vaginal discharge points towards an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      70
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Reproductive Medicine (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (2/3) 67%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (3/4) 75%
Musculoskeletal (3/4) 75%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Haematology/Oncology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed