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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old construction worker comes to you with a puncture wound that got...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old construction worker comes to you with a puncture wound that got contaminated with rusted metal while working on a construction site. You want to know if he needs protection against tetanus and find out that he received 5 doses of tetanus vaccine in the past, with the last dose being 6 years ago. What is the recommended course of action for tetanus treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Requires booster vaccine but not immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: No booster vaccine or immunoglobulin required

      Explanation:

      If the patient has received all 5 doses of tetanus vaccine and the last dose was administered less than 10 years ago, they do not need a booster vaccine or immunoglobulins, regardless of the severity of the wound.

      In case the last vaccine was administered more than 10 years ago, a booster vaccine would be required for a lower risk wound.

      For a high-risk wound or if the vaccination status is unknown, both a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin would be necessary.

      Currently, there is no need for two consecutive booster vaccines.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye. He has been encountering flashes/floaters and spider webs for the past 2 days, and now there is some darkening on the periphery of vision. Additionally, he has observed that straight lines appear somewhat jagged. There is no associated pain or injury. The patient is in good health and has no chronic medical conditions.
      What is the probable diagnosis for the aforementioned symptoms?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      If you experience peripheral vision loss accompanied by spider webs and flashing lights, it could be a sign of retinal detachment. This condition is often described as a curtain coming down over your vision and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Additionally, you may notice floaters or string-like shapes, and straight lines may appear distorted due to the retina detaching from the choroid.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Interstitial

      Correct Answer: Panacinar

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics

      Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.

      Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.

      Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.

      Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.

      Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.

      Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.

      In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22.3
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with his spouse, reporting a chronic cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with his spouse, reporting a chronic cough and swelling in his neck. He has been experiencing these symptoms for several years but only sought medical attention today because his wife urged him to address his bad breath. The man's wife also notes that he makes noise while eating and drinking and occasionally has difficulty swallowing, leading to regurgitation of food. The patient has a history of hospitalization for pneumonia following one of these choking episodes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing his likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prescribe omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Surgical repair and resection

      Explanation:

      Pharyngeal pouch may lead to dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia, and halitosis.

      Understanding Pharyngeal Pouch or Zenker’s Diverticulum

      A pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum, is a condition where there is a posteromedial diverticulum through Killian’s dehiscence. This triangular area is found in the wall of the pharynx between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles. It is more common in older patients and is five times more common in men.

      The symptoms of pharyngeal pouch include dysphagia, regurgitation, aspiration, neck swelling that gurgles on palpation, and halitosis. To diagnose this condition, a barium swallow combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy is usually done.

      Surgery is the most common management for pharyngeal pouch. It is important to address this condition promptly to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Understanding the symptoms and seeking medical attention early can help in the proper management of pharyngeal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      27.3
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis after presenting with pedal oedema. She is being treated with furosemide 40 mg and prednisolone 60 mg. Her potassium level is 3.0 mEq/l (3.5–5.1).
      Which of the following medications will not increase potassium levels?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Medications that can cause hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can be caused by certain medications. Here are some medications that can lead to hyperkalaemia:

      1. Corticosteroids: Oral or IV steroids with glucocorticoid properties, such as prednisone and hydrocortisone, can be used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and increase renal potassium excretion.

      2. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs): Use of ARBs can be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. It is important to monitor serum potassium levels shortly after initiating therapy.

      3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors: Use of ACE inhibitors can also be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by suppressing angiotensin II, which leads to a decrease in aldosterone levels.

      4. Spironolactone: Hyperkalaemia is an established adverse effect of both spironolactone and eplerenone. Potassium levels should be monitored regularly in patients taking spironolactone.

      5. Digoxin: Hyperkalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in acute digoxin toxicity. Chronic toxicity does not cause hyperkalaemia. Digoxin blocks the sodium-potassium ATPase pump.

      It is important to be aware of these medications and their potential to cause hyperkalaemia, and to monitor serum potassium levels in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      23.5
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  • Question 6 - As an FY-1 doctor working on a gynaecology ward, you have a postmenopausal...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY-1 doctor working on a gynaecology ward, you have a postmenopausal patient who has been diagnosed with atypical endometrial hyperplasia. She is in good health otherwise. What is the recommended course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Total hysterectomy

      Correct Answer: Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

      Explanation:

      For women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia who are postmenopausal, it is recommended to undergo a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy to prevent malignant progression. A total hysterectomy alone is not sufficient for postmenopausal women. It is also not recommended to undergo a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy without removing the endometrium. A watch and wait approach is not advisable due to the potential for malignancy, and radiotherapy is not recommended as the condition is not yet malignant.

      Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.

      The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the most suitable vitamin D supplement for a patient with liver...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable vitamin D supplement for a patient with liver and kidney failure, considering the need for enzymatic conversion of naturally occurring analogues?

      Your Answer: Alphacalcidol (1-hydroxycholecalciferol)

      Correct Answer: Calcitriol (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol)

      Explanation:

      Vitamin D Activation

      Vitamin D is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health and immune function. However, not all forms of vitamin D are active and readily available for use by the body.

      Alphacalcidol, a partly activated form of vitamin D, is not the correct answer as it still requires further hydroxylation by the liver. Similarly, cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) and ergocalciferol (vitamin D2) are naturally occurring analogues that require activation by both the liver and kidneys.

      The correct answer is calcitriol (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol), an active form of vitamin D that has undergone the necessary hydroxylation by both the kidneys and liver.

      It is important to understand the different forms of vitamin D and their activation processes in order to ensure adequate intake and absorption for optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is a competitive antagonist of aldosterone? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a competitive antagonist of aldosterone?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Diuretics: A Closer Look at Spironolactone

      Diuretics are medications that promote the excretion of excess fluids and salts from the body. Spironolactone is a type of diuretic that works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone promotes the excretion of sodium and water, while retaining potassium.

      However, when used in combination with other medications such as ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Therefore, it is important to monitor electrolyte levels when using spironolactone.

      Other types of diuretics include amiloride, which inhibits epithelial sodium channels, bendroflumethiazide, which inhibits the thiazide-sensitive sodium chloride symporter, and furosemide, which promotes the loss of sodium via inhibition of the sodium-potassium-chloride symporter. Lithium, on the other hand, blocks the action of vasopressin, which can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in some patients.

      In summary, spironolactone is a diuretic that works by blocking aldosterone and promoting the excretion of sodium and water while retaining potassium. However, it should be used with caution in combination with other medications and electrolyte levels should be monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5
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  • Question 9 - A cohort study of 5,000 elderly patients aimed to determine whether the consumption...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study of 5,000 elderly patients aimed to determine whether the consumption of green tea has an effect on cognitive decline. Roughly half of the patients drank green tea regularly and half did not.
      What is a drawback of conducting a cohort study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When the outcome of interest is rare a very large sample size is needed

      Explanation:

      Cohort Studies: Advantages and Disadvantages

      A cohort study is a research method that involves following a group of individuals over a period of time to determine whether exposure to a particular factor has an effect on the incidence of disease. Although they are time-consuming and expensive, cohort studies have several advantages. For instance, they can be used to study rare exposure factors and are less prone to recall bias than case-control studies. Additionally, they can measure the incidence or risk of a disease, which is useful in determining the effectiveness of interventions.

      One of the main advantages of cohort studies is that they allow researchers to study exposure factors that are rare. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which means that even if the exposure factor is rare, it may still be possible to observe its effects. Another advantage is that cohort studies are less susceptible to recall bias than case-control studies. This is because the exposure factor is measured before the disease occurs, which reduces the likelihood of participants misremembering their exposure.

      However, cohort studies also have some disadvantages. One of the main disadvantages is that they are time-consuming and expensive to perform. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which requires a significant amount of resources. Additionally, cohort studies may not be suitable for studying diseases that have a long latency period, as it may take many years for the disease to develop. Finally, cohort studies may be affected by loss to follow-up, which can reduce the validity of the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden pain in her right groin. She mentions that she had noticed a swelling in the area on and off for a few years, but it never bothered her before. She denies any nausea, vomiting, changes in bowel habits, or weight loss.

      Upon examination, the abdomen appears normal, but there is a tender and irreducible swelling below and to the side of the pubic tubercle.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Femoral Hernia

      The patient’s hernia is located in the typical position of a femoral hernia, which is below and to the side of the pubic tubercle. The patient has reported an intermittent swelling that has become irreducible. Based on these symptoms, it is likely that the femoral canal has been blocked by omentum, rather than a loop of bowel becoming trapped. Since the patient has no other concerning signs, it is safe for them to undergo hernia repair on the next available CEPOD list.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting rectal bleeding and a significant family...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting rectal bleeding and a significant family history of colon cancer. The doctor refers him to a colorectal surgeon who orders a colonoscopy. The results show a cancerous tumor in the sigmoid colon after a biopsy and pathological analysis. What is the colon's venous drainage, and where is colonic cancer likely to spread?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid veins to the inferior mesenteric veins

      Explanation:

      Venous Drainage of the Intestines

      The intestines are drained by a complex network of veins that ultimately lead to the hepatic portal vein. The sigmoid veins drain into the inferior mesenteric veins, while the superior rectal veins drain into the same. The left colic vein drains into the inferior mesenteric vein, while the middle colic vein drains into the superior mesenteric vein. Finally, the jejunal and ileal veins drain into the middle colic vein. This intricate system of venous drainage is essential for the proper functioning of the digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old black woman presents with complaints of pelvic pressure and heavy menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old black woman presents with complaints of pelvic pressure and heavy menstrual bleeding. Upon undergoing a pelvic ultrasound scan, a large pelvic mass is discovered and subsequently removed through surgery. Histological examination reveals the presence of smooth muscle bundles arranged in a whorled pattern.
      What is the correct statement regarding this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This tumour may be associated with obstetric complications

      Explanation:

      Myoma: Common Benign Tumor in Women

      Myoma, also known as uterine fibroids, is a benign tumor commonly found in women. It is characterized by histological features and symptoms such as menorrhagia and pressure. Although it may occur in teenagers, it is most commonly seen in women in their fourth and fifth decades of life. Black women are more likely to develop myomas and become symptomatic earlier. Having fewer pregnancies and early menarche are reported to increase the risk.

      Myomas are benign tumors and do not metastasize to other organs. However, they may cause obstetric complications such as red degeneration, malpresentation, and the requirement for a Caesarean section. Surgical complications or intervention-related infections may lead to mortality, but associated deaths are rare. The 5-year survival rate is not applicable in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A male toddler, on physical examination at the age of 2, is noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A male toddler, on physical examination at the age of 2, is noticed to have an abnormal opening of the urethra on to the ventral surface of the penis.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypospadias

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Penile Deformities and Conditions

      Hypospadias, Cryptorchidism, Exstrophy, Epispadias, and Phimosis are all congenital penile deformities and conditions that affect newborn boys. Hypospadias is the most common, occurring in about 1 in every 150-300 boys. It is characterized by an abnormal opening of the urethral meatus on the ventral surface of the penis, ventral curvature of the penis, and a hooded foreskin. Cryptorchidism, on the other hand, is the failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac and is seen in 3% of all full-term newborn boys. Exstrophy is a rare condition where the bladder protrudes through a defect in the lower abdominal wall. Epispadias is defined as an abnormal opening of the urethra on the dorsal aspect of the penis, while Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans of the penis. These conditions may have genetic components and can lead to complications such as infection, urinary tract obstruction, and other associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      0
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  • Question 14 - Which hormones are increased after eating? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormones are increased after eating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin and GLP-1 (glucagon-like-peptide 1)

      Explanation:

      Hormones and their roles in postprandial metabolism

      Insulin is the primary hormone responsible for regulating postprandial metabolism. However, other hormones produced by L cells in the small intestine, such as GLP-1, PYY, and oxyntomodulin, also play a significant role. Insulin acts on various tissues to regulate plasma glucose concentration and promote macronutrient storage. In the liver, it promotes glycogen and triglyceride synthesis, while in muscle, it increases glucose uptake and glycogen synthesis. In adipose tissue, insulin increases fatty acid uptake and glucose uptake via GLUT4, which is then used for fatty acid synthesis.

      GLP-1 is a gut hormone that is released in response to food ingestion and has an important incretin effect. This effect amplifies glucose-stimulated insulin release in pancreatic beta cells, resulting in a significantly greater insulin response than the same amount of glucose administered intravenously. This effect has been utilized in newer medications used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, such as exenatide and liraglutide.

      On the other hand, ghrelin is another gut hormone that is released by D1 cells in the stomach. Its release is inhibited by food ingestion, and it is raised in the fasting state. Ghrelin acts at the hypothalamus to increase hunger and is sometimes referred to as the hunger hormone. Glucagon, on the other hand, is the major regulator of fasting metabolism and falls in the postprandial state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old farmer presents to his general practitioner (GP) with gradually progressive shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old farmer presents to his general practitioner (GP) with gradually progressive shortness of breath over the last year, along with an associated cough. He has no significant past medical history to note except for a previous back injury and is a non-smoker. He occasionally takes ibuprofen for back pain but is on no other medications. He has worked on farms since his twenties and acquired his own farm 10 years ago.
      On examination, the patient has a temperature of 36.9oC and respiratory rate of 26. Examination of the chest reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles. His GP requests a chest X-ray, which shows bilateral reticulonodular shadowing.
      Which one of the following is the most likely underlying cause of symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pulmonary Fibrosis: Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by shortness of breath and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. It can be caused by various factors, including exposure to inorganic dusts like asbestosis and beryllium, organic dusts like mouldy hay and avian protein, certain drugs, systemic diseases, and more. In this scenario, the patient’s occupation as a farmer suggests a possible diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis or hypersensitivity pneumonitis, which is caused by exposure to avian proteins or Aspergillus in mouldy hay. It is important to note that occupational lung diseases may entitle the patient to compensation. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, silicosis, crocidolite exposure, and beryllium exposure are less likely causes in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 16 - A 63-year-old man was diagnosed with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) two years ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man was diagnosed with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) two years ago and achieved remission after receiving pulsed cyclophosphamide. He has been maintained on oral azathioprine and a low dose of prednisolone since then. Recently, he returned to the clinic before his scheduled appointment with worsening ENT symptoms, haemoptysis, and declining renal function. Two months prior, he had a superficial bladder cancer (stage Ta, no invasion, single lesion) that was resected, followed by a single dose of postoperative chemotherapy. Given his new diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment for his vasculitis flare?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rituximab therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Dilemma for a Patient with Vasculitis

      This patient is facing a difficult situation as he requires immunosuppressive therapy to manage his vasculitis, which is organ-threatening, but most immunosuppressants increase the risk of cancer. Increasing oral steroids would provide short-term relief but come with significant side effects. Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are unlikely to control his disease in time and are associated with an increased risk of malignancy. Cyclophosphamide should be avoided as it is known to cause bladder cancer.

      However, there is a potential solution in rituximab, a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a surface marker on most B cells. Rituximab has been shown to be as effective as cyclophosphamide in treating ANCA vasculitis, but with a much better side effect profile. A two-year course of rituximab therapy can even allow for the withdrawal of other immunosuppressants, which would be particularly helpful in this patient’s case. Overall, while the patient’s situation is challenging, rituximab may provide a viable treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and fullness, bilateral yellow nasal discharge and difficulty smelling. Prior to this episode she describes having a minor cold, with sore throat and clear nasal discharge. She has no past medical history. On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C and there is mild tenderness to palpation over the maxillofacial area. There are no nasal polyps. Her throat appears normal.
      What should be included in the management of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Sinusitis: Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use

      Acute sinusitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Self-care measures such as paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to manage symptoms of pain or fever. However, if symptoms persist for around ten days or more without improvement, a high-dose nasal corticosteroid may be prescribed for 14 days. While nasal corticosteroids may improve symptoms, they are not likely to affect how long they last and could cause systemic effects.

      IV antibiotics should only be used in severe cases of systemic infection, intraorbital or periorbital complications, or intracranial complications. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that antibiotics, when compared with placebo, did not significantly increase the proportion of people in whom symptoms were cured or improved at 3–5 days follow-up. At 7–15 days follow-up, moderate quality evidence showed a statistically significant difference in effectiveness, but the clinical difference was small. This was not evident in the longer term.

      For acute sinusitis following a cold, symptoms for <10 days are more commonly associated with a cold rather than viral or bacterial acute sinusitis. Prolonged symptoms (for around ten days or more without improvement) can be caused by either viral (more likely) or bacterial acute sinusitis. Only 0.5–2% of viral sinusitis is complicated by bacterial infection. Even then bacterial sinusitis is usually self-limiting and does not routinely need antibiotics. There is no evidence that topical antibiotics are useful in acute or chronic sinusitis. Understanding Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use for Acute Sinusitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of ankle swelling. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of ankle swelling. She has started taking a new medication for her blood pressure. She believes that this medication is responsible for her ankle oedema and wants you to investigate. What is the medication most likely to have caused her ankle swelling?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Nifedipine is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil or other antihypertensive medications. This is because nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (CCB), which can cause vasodilation and increased leakage of small blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the interstitial space and resulting in ankle edema. Diltiazem, an alternative CCB, is less likely to cause ankle edema but may increase the risk of heart failure. Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, can also cause edema but is less commonly used than nifedipine. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is more likely to cause angioedema than peripheral edema.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department following a fall during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department following a fall during a walk. She reports experiencing discomfort in her right shoulder. During the examination, the right arm is externally rotated and abducted, and she resists all movements. The acromion is noticeable, and the X-ray shows the humeral head in a subcoracoid position in the anteroposterior view. What proportion of shoulder dislocations exhibit the same characteristics as this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: >95%

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dislocations are a common occurrence, with the humeral head often dislocating to a subcoracoid position. X-rays can reveal associated injuries such as Hill-Sachs deformities, Bankart lesions, and greater tuberosity fractures. Bankart lesions are often found alongside Hill-Sachs deformities. Hill-Sachs deformities refer to a fracture on the posterolateral humeral head caused by impact with the anterior glenoid rim, while Bankart lesions are injuries to the anteroinferior aspect of the glenoid labral complex. Inferior shoulder dislocations are rare, accounting for less than 1% of cases.

      Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.

      There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a two-month history of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath during physical activity. She is currently using a progesterone-only oral contraceptive and taking hydrocortisone 10 mg twice daily and fludrocortisone 100 µg per day. Her glycaemic control has been reasonable, with a last HbA1c of 65 mmol/mol (20-46), and she is receiving mixed insulin twice daily. On examination, she appears pale. A full blood count reveals the following results: haemoglobin 52 g/L (120-160), MCV 115 fL (80-96), WCC 4.2 ×109/L (4-11), platelets 126 ×109L (150-400), and MCH 32 pg (28-32). The blood film shows multilobed nuclei in neutrophils and macrophages. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic Anemia and Pernicious Anemia

      This patient is suffering from a macrocytic anemia, specifically a megaloblastic anemia, which is characterized by multilobed nuclei. The most probable cause of this condition is a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is commonly associated with pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is part of the autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome, which is linked to other autoimmune disorders such as Addison’s disease, type 1 diabetes, Sjögren’s disease, and vitiligo. Although there are other potential causes of macrocytosis, none of them are evident in this patient. Hypothyroidism, for example, does not cause megaloblastic anemia, only macrocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 21 - You are a medical senior house officer seeing a patient called Edith with...

    Incorrect

    • You are a medical senior house officer seeing a patient called Edith with your consultant. Edith is a very frail 88-year-old lady with urinary sepsis and a history of metastatic bladder carcinoma. Your consultant completes her ward round and is of the opinion that cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) would be unsuccessful if Edith were to have a cardiac arrest. After the round, a nurse asks you to complete a Do Not Attempt Resuscitation order (DNAR), which will mean that Edith would not undergo CPR in the event of a cardiac arrest. Edith does not currently have mental capacity to make decisions about her care. You have not discussed resuscitation with Edith or her family and do not have any more information available to you at this time. Her son has been appointed Power of Attorney, which includes provision for him to make decisions about Edith’s welfare and medical care.
      Select the most appropriate action to take in this case.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attempt to contact Edith’s son to discuss the DNACPR order first and then complete the DNAR form

      Explanation:

      Making Decisions about DNACPR and DNAR Orders for Patients without Capacity

      When a patient lacks capacity, decisions about their care must be made by their appointed Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for health and welfare. In the case of Edith, a decision has been made by the consultant that CPR would not be successful, and a DNACPR order must be put in place to avoid futile attempts at resuscitation. It is good practice to discuss this decision with Edith’s son, who has been assigned as her LPA. However, if he cannot be reached, the order must still be put in place, with continued attempts to contact him for discussion.

      It is important to note that a DNAR form should only be completed when the patient has regained mental capacity and can consent to the decision. In Edith’s case, a senior clinician has already determined that attempts at resuscitation would be unsuccessful, and waiting for the consultant to sign the DNAR form may cause harm to Edith if she suffers a cardiac arrest before it is completed.

      While it is important to involve the LPA in discussions about the patient’s care, the decision on whether to attempt CPR is ultimately a clinical decision made by the multidisciplinary team. If there is disagreement between the healthcare team and the LPA, a second opinion can be sought, and if necessary, the Court of Protection may be asked to make a declaration. However, the priority should always be the patient’s best interest and avoiding unnecessary distress or harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing surgery to have her appendix removed. The peritoneal cavity has been opened using the appropriate approach and the caecum is visible. What would be the most appropriate feature to follow in order to locate the appendix?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taeniae coli

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Large Bowel: Taeniae Coli, Appendices Epiploicae, Haustrations, Ileocolic Artery, and Right Colic Artery

      The large bowel is composed of various structures that play important roles in digestion and absorption. Among these structures are the taeniae coli, which are three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle found on the outside of the large bowel. These bands produce haustrations or bulges in the colon when they contract. Additionally, the appendices epiploicae, or epiploic appendages, are protrusions of subserosal fat that line the surface of the bowel. The large bowel also contains the ileocolic artery, which runs over the ileocaecal junction, and the right colic artery, which supplies the ascending colon. Understanding the anatomy of the large bowel is crucial in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for an elective total hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for an elective total hip replacement. Thromboprophylaxis with dalteparin is administered before the surgery. After eight days, the patient complains of pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. The full blood count results reveal a pulmonary embolism. The following are the patient's blood count results: Hb 124 g/L (Female: 115-160; Male: 135-180), Platelets 76 * 109/L (150-400), and WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0-11.0). What is the most probable cause of the pulmonary embolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a possible side effect of heparin. HIT occurs when heparin binds to platelet factor 4 (PF-4) on inactivated platelets, forming a heparin-PF4 complex that triggers an immune response. Some individuals develop IgG antibodies that recognize the heparin-PF4 complex and destroy it in the spleen. This process activates platelets, leading to clot formation and a decrease in platelet count. HIT can cause serious conditions such as pulmonary embolism, stroke, and myocardial infarction. Treatment involves discontinuing heparin and starting a non-heparin anticoagulant.

      DIC is a severe condition where blood clots form throughout the body, blocking small blood vessels. It can be caused by sepsis, trauma, or malignancy and presents with multiple petechiae, ecchymosis, hypoxia, and hypotension. The patient would be severely unwell and present acutely.

      Hypersplenism is characterized by splenomegaly, which is not present in this scenario.

      ITP is a condition that is more common in children and typically occurs 1-2 weeks after an infection. It is the least likely diagnosis for this patient.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This type of thrombocytopenia is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that can cause this condition include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate, and heparin.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will develop drug-induced thrombocytopenia. However, those who do may experience symptoms such as easy bruising, bleeding gums, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding from cuts. In severe cases, the condition can lead to life-threatening bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old healthcare worker presents to the occupational health service clinic at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old healthcare worker presents to the occupational health service clinic at the hospital due to her potential involvement in a cluster of MRSA cases on her unit. Upon evaluation, it is discovered that she is a carrier of MRSA in her nasal passages.

      What is the recommended course of treatment for this individual's MRSA colonisation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mupirocin ointment to the nose and chlorhexidine washes

      Explanation:

      Treating Nasal Carriage of MRSA

      Nasal carriage of MRSA can be reduced with the use of chlorhexidine, mupirocin, and neomycin creams. However, the most effective treatment is a combination of nasal mupirocin and chlorhexidine wash. Regular face washing is not likely to have any impact, and oral flucloxacillin is ineffective against MRSA. While oral vancomycin is useful in treating C. difficile, it is not effective in treating systemic infections as it remains in the gut. Unfortunately, nasal carriage of MRSA is likely to recur in susceptible individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of fatigue, lethargy, and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of fatigue, lethargy, and abdominal discomfort with constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined. On examination, she appears pale and thin with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg. Her laboratory results show low potassium levels, high bicarbonate levels, and a slightly elevated ESR. A chest X-ray is normal. Based on these findings, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa and Electrolyte Imbalances

      Anorexia nervosa is a possible diagnosis for a patient with low sodium and potassium levels, especially if vomiting is present. Interestingly, despite the severe weight loss associated with anorexia nervosa, albumin levels tend to remain normal. However, if albumin levels are reduced, other causes such as sepsis should be considered. Addison’s disease and Conn’s syndrome are also conditions that can cause electrolyte imbalances, but their clinical presentations differ from that of anorexia nervosa. Cushing’s disease, on the other hand, is not a likely diagnosis in this case. It is important to consider the underlying cause of electrolyte imbalances in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 26 - The blood gases with pH 7.38, pO2 6.2 kPa, pCO2 9.2 kPa, and...

    Incorrect

    • The blood gases with pH 7.38, pO2 6.2 kPa, pCO2 9.2 kPa, and HCO3– 44 mmol/l are indicative of a respiratory condition. Which respiratory condition is most likely responsible for these blood gas values?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Failure in Common Lung Conditions

      When analyzing blood gases, it is important to consider the type of respiratory failure present in order to determine the underlying cause. In cases of low oxygen and high carbon dioxide, known as type 2 respiratory failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the most likely culprit. Asthma, on the other hand, typically causes type 1 respiratory failure, although severe cases may progress to type 2 as the patient tires. Pulmonary embolism and pneumonia are also more likely to cause type 1 respiratory failure, while pulmonary fibrosis is associated with this type of failure as well. Understanding the type of respiratory failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of these common lung conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 27 - A 47-year-old patient arrives at the dialysis center for their thrice-weekly haemodialysis. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old patient arrives at the dialysis center for their thrice-weekly haemodialysis. They have end stage renal failure caused by membranous glomerulonephritis and no other health issues. The patient reports feeling fatigued but is otherwise in good health. During routine blood work, their haemoglobin level is found to be 89 g/L (115-165). If the anaemia is a result of their renal disease, what is the appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous iron plus or minus parenteral erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      Patients with end stage kidney disease have poor iron absorption and lack endogenous erythropoietin, making parenteral iron replacement and erythropoietin the best management. Anaemia is common in these patients due to poor oral iron absorption and GI blood loss. Acute packed red cell transfusion is extreme and renal transplant may be an option, but the patient’s haemoglobin can be modified with increased IV iron and epo doses. Oral iron tablets are poorly absorbed and tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 28 - A 38-year-old man comes to his primary care clinic complaining of an itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man comes to his primary care clinic complaining of an itchy rash on his arm. During the examination, you observe polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner part of his forearm. Some of these papules have merged to form plaques. He has no history of skin disorders and is not presently taking any medications.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Disorders: Characteristics and Differences

      Lichen planus is a skin disorder that is believed to be autoimmune in nature. It is characterized by a purple, polygonal, and papular rash that is often accompanied by itching. This condition is rare in both young and elderly populations and typically appears acutely on the flexor aspect of the wrists, forearms, and legs.

      Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a condition that usually presents as a red, itchy rash on the flexural areas of joints such as the elbows and knees. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 5. As the patient in question has no history of skin disease, it is unlikely that he has eczema.

      Scabies is a contagious skin condition that is most commonly seen in children, young adults, and older adults in care homes. It causes widespread itching and linear burrows on the sides of fingers, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrists.

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that typically presents with itchy white spots. It is most commonly seen on the vulva in elderly women or on the penis in men.

      Plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that presents as itchy white or red plaques on the extensor surfaces of joints such as the elbows.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 24-year-old man, who is a known intravenous drug user, presented with progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man, who is a known intravenous drug user, presented with progressive dyspnoea. On examination, his respiratory rate was 31 breaths per minute and his chest X-ray showed diffuse infiltrates in a bat-wing pattern. However, chest auscultation was normal. While staying in hospital, he developed sudden severe dyspnoea, and an emergency chest X-ray showed right-sided pneumothorax.
      What is the underlying disease of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Injection Drug User with Dyspnea and Chest X-ray Findings

      A young injection drug user presenting with gradually progressive dyspnea and a typical chest X-ray finding is likely to have Pneumocystis jirovecii infection, an opportunistic fungal infection that predominantly affects the lungs. This infection is often seen in individuals with underlying human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection-related immunosuppression. Other opportunistic infections should also be ruled out. Pneumocystis typically resides in the alveoli of the lungs, resulting in extensive exudation and formation of hyaline membrane. Lung biopsy shows foamy vacuolated exudates. Extrapulmonary sites involved include the thyroid, lymph nodes, liver, and bone marrow.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cystic fibrosis, pneumoconiosis, and pulmonary histoplasmosis, are less likely. COPD and pneumoconiosis are typically seen in individuals with a history of smoking or occupational exposure to dust, respectively. Cystic fibrosis would present with a productive cough and possible hemoptysis, while pulmonary histoplasmosis is not commonly found in Europe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension experiences painful swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension experiences painful swelling in his right knee after starting a new medication prescribed by his GP. What is the most conclusive test to confirm his diagnosis?

      The definitive investigation to confirm his diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Joint aspirate for microscopy

      Explanation:

      Gout: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis

      Gout is a medical condition characterized by severe joint pain, redness, and swelling, particularly in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe. This condition is caused by hyperuricaemia, which leads to the deposition of sodium monourate crystals in the joint. Gout attacks can be triggered by various factors, including trauma, surgery, starvation, infection, and diuretics.

      Diagnosing gout can be challenging, as serum uric acid levels are not always elevated. However, the identification of urate crystals in tissues and synovial fluid can accurately confirm the diagnosis. During an acute attack of gout, serum uric acid levels may even fall acutely and be within the normal range. Microscopy of synovial fluid can reveal negatively birefringent crystals and neutrophils with ingested crystals.

      In summary, gout is a painful condition that can be caused by various factors and is characterized by joint pain, redness, and swelling. Accurate diagnosis can be made by identifying urate crystals in tissues and synovial fluid, as serum uric acid levels may not always be elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Clinical Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
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