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  • Question 1 - What is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?

      Your Answer: Maternal diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Oligohydramnios

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - In a 40-year-old woman, what is the probability of having a child with...

    Incorrect

    • In a 40-year-old woman, what is the probability of having a child with Down syndrome? Please choose one option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: 1 in 10000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      The chance of Down syndrome increases with maternal age:
      Age (years) Chance
      20 1:1500
      30 1:800
      35 1:270
      40 1:100
      >45 >1:50

      Therefore, the correct answer is 1 in 100.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - During a cardiorespiratory exam, a 5-year-old boy is found to have pectus excavatum...

    Correct

    • During a cardiorespiratory exam, a 5-year-old boy is found to have pectus excavatum and pulmonary stenosis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Noonan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Noonan syndrome is diagnosed in a young boy who exhibits a webbed neck, pulmonary stenosis, ptosis, and short stature, despite having a normal karyotype.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      129.8
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  • Question 4 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father who is worried about a non-blanching petechial rash on her arms and legs. The child had a cold recently but currently has normal observations and seems to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Correct Answer: Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)

      Explanation:

      ITP is a possible diagnosis for a child who presents with petechiae and no fever, while HUS and meningitis are unlikely. HSP may also be considered, but the child in the question has not experienced other symptoms of HSP. Non-accidental injury should also be considered as a differential for any petechial rash. However, ITP is more likely as it is often preceded by a viral illness and presents with isolated thrombocytopenia, causing the classic petechial rash. Blood results are needed to confirm the diagnosis.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.7
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  • Question 5 - You are evaluating a 12-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 12-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom should prompt you to consider alternative diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Expiratory wheeze

      Correct Answer: Temperature of 39.7ºC

      Explanation:

      When a child has bronchiolitis, it is common for them to have a low-grade fever. However, if the child has a high fever (over 39°C) and/or persistently focal crackles, it may indicate a diagnosis of pneumonia.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.9
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  • Question 6 - A 6-week-old infant presents to the clinic with a red rash on their...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old infant presents to the clinic with a red rash on their scalp accompanied by yellow flakes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Irritant contact dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition that affects children, typically appearing on the scalp, nappy area, face, and limb flexures. One of the earliest signs is cradle cap, which can develop in the first few weeks of life. This condition is characterized by a red rash with coarse yellow scales.

      Fortunately, seborrhoeic dermatitis in children is not harmful and usually resolves within a few weeks. Parents can help manage the condition by massaging a topical emollient onto the scalp to loosen scales, brushing gently with a soft brush, and washing off with shampoo. If the condition is severe or persistent, a topical imidazole cream may be prescribed.

      It’s important to note that seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age. Parents should not be overly concerned and can take comfort in knowing that this condition is common and easily managed. By following these simple steps, parents can help their child feel more comfortable and alleviate any discomfort associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      33.6
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  • Question 7 - A 6-week-old baby is observed to have rocker-bottom feet, microcephaly and a small...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old baby is observed to have rocker-bottom feet, microcephaly and a small retracted chin. The mother is a refugee from Syria who gave birth recently but could not attend antenatal screening. What is the probable syndrome?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Edwards' syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Genetic Conditions: Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ Syndrome)

      Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards’ syndrome, is a genetic condition that results in a range of physical and developmental abnormalities. Neonates with trisomy 18 often present with neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures, as well as severe psychomotor and growth retardation. Other common features include microcephaly, microphthalmia, microstomia, micrognathia, clenched fingers, and rocker-bottom feet. Over 90% of individuals with trisomy 18 have cardiac defects, commonly ventricular septal defect (VSD), as well as anomalies in most organ systems. Unfortunately, many fetuses will die in utero, and neonates born with trisomy 18 have a 40% chance of survival to 1 month.

      It is important to note that an Edwards’ syndrome diagnosis should be made in the prenatal period. Low levels of AFP (α-fetoprotein), estradiol, and hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) on triple test biochemistry are suggestive, and the diagnosis can be confirmed on ultrasonography.

      Other genetic conditions, such as Pierre-Robin syndrome, Down’s syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, and Noonan’s syndrome, have their own distinct features and should be differentiated from trisomy 18. Understanding these conditions and their unique characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.9
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  • Question 8 - A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic. He reports that the baby sometimes rejects feeds, frequently vomits, and cries for extended periods after feeds. The baby's weight was at the 50th percentile during birth but has now dropped to the 40th percentile. What advice should you give?

      Your Answer: Routine referral to paediatrics

      Correct Answer: Trial of Gaviscon

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, breastfed infants who experience frequent regurgitation accompanied by significant distress should be given a trial of alginate therapy (such as Gaviscon) after each feed for a period of 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor (such as oral omeprazole) or a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (such as oral ranitidine) should be administered. If symptoms continue despite these treatments, it may be necessary to refer the infant to a paediatrician. For bottle-fed infants with reflux, thickened feeds are recommended.

      Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      27.8
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  • Question 9 - You are requested to assess a premature infant born at 34 weeks, 48...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a premature infant born at 34 weeks, 48 hours after delivery without any complications. During the examination, you observe a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left subclavicular thrill. Additionally, you notice a bounding pulse and a widened pulse pressure. There are no indications of cyanosis or crackles on auscultation. The mother confirms that there were no complications during pregnancy, and antenatal scans and screening did not reveal any abnormalities. There is no family history of significant illnesses. What would be the most appropriate management option for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Give prostaglandin E1 to the neonate

      Correct Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate

      Explanation:

      To promote closure of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), indomethacin or ibuprofen is administered to the neonate. This is the correct course of action based on the examination findings. The ductus arteriosus typically closes naturally with the first breaths, but if it remains open, prostaglandin synthesis can be inhibited with medication. Administering indomethacin to the mother would not be effective. Prostaglandin would have the opposite effect and maintain the PDA’s patency, which is not desirable in this scenario. Involving surgeons or monitoring the baby without treatment would also not be appropriate. If left untreated, PDA can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary hypertension or Eisenmenger’s syndrome.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      29
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet begun menstruating. During the physical examination, you observe that she has a short stature and a webbed neck. What would you anticipate hearing when listening to her heart?

      Your Answer: Pansystolic murmur

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur

      Explanation:

      The ejection systolic murmur present in this patient is likely due to her Turner’s syndrome, which is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve. A continuous machinery murmur, late systolic murmur, and mid-late diastolic murmur are less likely causes, as they are associated with different conditions that are not commonly seen in patients with Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.7
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Paediatrics (1/10) 10%
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