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  • Question 1 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father, who...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father, who is concerned about a red rash on her arms and chest. She has been feeling sick, with cold-like symptoms preceding the rash. The rash is erythematous, macular and symmetrical to both arms and chest and is non-blanching. She is currently without fever and appears to be in good health.
      What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Different Skin Conditions: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura, eczema, intertrigo, meningococcal disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all skin conditions that can present with various rashes and symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to distinguish between these conditions in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, joint and abdominal pain, and nephritis. Eczema is characterized by areas of erythema that are blanching, dry skin with fine scales, and excoriations. Intertrigo primarily affects the flexures with erythematous patches that may progress to intense inflammation. Meningococcal disease presents with a non-blanching rash that rapidly progresses to purpura and requires immediate treatment. Systemic lupus erythematosus is rare in children and presents with a malar or butterfly rash on the face, joint pain, fever, or weight loss.

      By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old man is being evaluated at the smoking cessation clinic. Is there...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man is being evaluated at the smoking cessation clinic. Is there any medical condition that would make it inappropriate to prescribe bupropion for him?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Reduced seizure threshold is a contraindication for the use of bupropion in patients with epilepsy.

      NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      113.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer: Inflammation in all layers from mucosa to serosa

      Correct Answer: Pseudopolyps

      Explanation:

      Pseudopolyps observed during endoscopy are indicative of ulcerative colitis.

      Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is interested in...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is interested in using sildenafil to treat his erectile dysfunction. Is there any medication that could potentially prohibit its use?

      Your Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      Nitrates and nicorandil are contraindicated with PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil due to the nitrate component in nicorandil and its additional function as a potassium channel activator.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old female with multiple sclerosis reports experiencing tingling in her hands when...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female with multiple sclerosis reports experiencing tingling in her hands when she flexes her neck. What type of symptom is this?

      Your Answer: Lhermitte's sign

      Explanation:

      Lhermitte’s sign is a well-known symptom that suggests the presence of an underlying condition in the cervical cord’s dorsal column nuclei. This sign is also observed in cases of subacute combined degeneration of the cord and cervical stenosis.

      Multiple Sclerosis: Common Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disease that can present with various non-specific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis of MS can be made based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion together with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

      MS can affect different parts of the body, leading to a range of symptoms. Visual symptoms are common, with optic neuritis being a frequent presenting feature. Other visual symptoms include optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon (worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature), and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome (paraesthesiae in limbs on neck flexion). Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms such as ataxia and tremor may also occur.

      In addition to these symptoms, MS can also cause urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration. It is important to note that not all patients with MS will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity and frequency of symptoms can vary widely between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old male patient presents to discuss his recent blood test results. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents to discuss his recent blood test results. He has been taking ramipril for 6 weeks and his blood pressure has been well controlled. His baseline creatinine level was 92 µmol/L. However, his most recent creatinine level has increased to 118 µmol/L and he is concerned about the potential impact on his kidney function.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril immediately

      Correct Answer: Continue current dose of ramipril and check urea and electrolytes at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old woman goes to a family planning clinic to talk about contraception...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman goes to a family planning clinic to talk about contraception options. She has been experiencing migraine with aura for the past year and a half. According to the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria, which contraceptive method is considered safe to use without caution or contraindication in this situation?

      Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      The use of combined oral contraceptive pills is completely contraindicated in patients with migraine with aura due to an increased risk of ischaemic stroke (UKMEC class 4). However, progestogen-based contraception methods and the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device are considered safe (UKMEC 2) as the benefits of using these methods outweigh the potential risks. The copper intrauterine device is the only form of contraception recommended by UKMEC as having no contraindication in this condition (UKMEC 1).

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      97.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with associated lethargy. He has mild asthma which is well controlled with a steroid inhaler but has no other medical history of note. He does not smoke but drinks up to 30 units of alcohol a week, mostly on the weekends.
      Observations are as follows: Temperature is 37.2 oC, blood pressure is 108/68 mmHg, heart rate is 92 bpm and regular.
      On examination, the patient appears to be clinically dehydrated, but there are no other abnormalities noted.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Urea 9.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 178 µmol/l
      (bloods carried out one year
      previously showed a creatinine
      of 76) 50–120 µmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 131 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Which of the following is most suggestive of acute kidney injury rather than chronic renal failure?

      Your Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be difficult to diagnose, especially when there are no previous urea and electrolyte levels available for comparison. However, there are certain signs and symptoms that can indicate whether the condition is acute or chronic.

      Acute renal failure may present with acute lethargy/fatigue, dehydration, shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, oliguria, acute onset peripheral edema/edema of the face, confusion, seizures, and coma. On the other hand, chronic renal failure may manifest as anemia, pruritus, long-standing fatigue, weight loss, reduced appetite, and a history of underlying medical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension.

      Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is a hallmark of renal failure and can be an early sign of acute renal injury. Nocturia, or increased urination at night, is often found in patients with chronic kidney disease. Peripheral neuropathy is likely to be present in patients with chronic renal failure due to an underlying history of diabetes. Raised parathyroid hormone levels are more commonly found in chronic renal failure, secondary to low calcium levels associated with the condition. Small kidneys are also seen in chronic renal failure, as long-standing conditions affecting the kidney can cause atrophy and reduce function, leading to progressive renal failure. The kidneys are more likely to be of normal size in acute injury.

      In summary, understanding the signs and symptoms of acute and chronic renal failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      149.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 5-year-old girl presents with a sore throat that has been bothering her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with a sore throat that has been bothering her for 3 days. She has no cough or runny nose. Her mother has kept her home from preschool. Upon examination, she has a fever and swollen tonsils with white patches. She also has tender lymph nodes in her neck.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Tonsillitis Based on Centor Score

      Tonsillitis is a common condition that can be caused by a bacterial or viral infection. Antibiotics are not always necessary for a sore throat, but in cases where the patient has a high probability of a bacterial infection-induced sore throat, antibiotic therapy may be beneficial. The Centor score is a tool used to predict bacterial infection in people with a sore throat. A score of 3 or 4 means that the patient has a high probability of having a bacterial infection-induced sore throat and may benefit from antibiotics.

      The first-line antibiotic therapy for tonsillitis is 10 days of phenoxymethylpenicillin. However, it is important to check the patient’s allergy status before prescribing penicillin. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, 5 days of erythromycin or clarithromycin can be used. Amoxicillin and other broad-spectrum antibiotics should be avoided in the blind treatment of throat infections.

      In cases where the Centor score is 2, a bacterial infection is less likely, and antibiotic therapy is unlikely to be required. In such cases, conservative management such as mouth rinses can be used to alleviate discomfort and swelling.

      It is important to note that antibiotic therapy should only be prescribed when necessary, and a delayed prescription may be considered in some cases. A delayed prescription should only be considered if it is safe not to treat immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An aging patient in a care facility is prescribed quetiapine for persistent aggressive...

    Incorrect

    • An aging patient in a care facility is prescribed quetiapine for persistent aggressive behavior that has not improved with non-pharmacological interventions. What potential adverse effects do antipsychotics increase the likelihood of in older patients?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      Elderly individuals taking antipsychotics are at a higher risk of experiencing stroke and VTE.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      62.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a local bar. He appears to be heavily intoxicated and is loudly claiming that he was bitten on the hand while attempting to throw a punch. Upon examination, there is evidence of a bite mark on his right hand that has broken the skin but has not caused any bleeding. The wound site shows no signs of redness, swelling, necrotic tissue, or discharge. Despite being disruptive and agitated, the man is otherwise stable and does not have a fever. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate antibiotic for treating human bites, as well as animal bites. If a human bite breaks the skin and draws blood, antibiotics should be administered. In the scenario provided, the man was bitten in a high-risk area, which includes the hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures, or an area of poor circulation. Even if the bite did not draw blood, antibiotics should still be considered if the person is at high risk or if the bite is in a high-risk area. Co-amoxiclav is the first choice antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of human and animal bites. If the patient has a penicillin allergy or if co-amoxiclav is not suitable, doxycycline with metronidazole is the preferred alternative. Flucloxacillin is not effective in treating human and animal bites. If there is discharge present from the wound site, a swab should be taken for microbiological sampling, and antibiotic choice can be adjusted based on the results. Initial wound management should include removing foreign bodies, irrigating the site, and debridement, especially if the wound is dirty. Pain management should also be provided. However, due to the location of the bite in a high-risk area, antibiotics are necessary.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain on the left side of her chest for the past 24 hours. She is generally healthy and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill.
      What is the highest scoring factor in the Wells' scoring system for suspected pulmonary embolism (PE)?

      Your Answer: Previous DVT/PE

      Correct Answer: Clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score: Clinical Signs and Symptoms of DVT

      The Two-Level PE Wells Score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE). One of the key factors in this score is the presence of clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), which includes leg swelling and pain on palpation of the deep veins. This carries three points in the score, and is a crucial factor in determining the likelihood of a PE.

      Other factors in the score include an alternative diagnosis being less likely than a PE, heart rate over 100 beats/min, immobilization or recent surgery, previous DVT/PE, haemoptysis, and malignancy. Each of these factors carries a certain number of points, and a score of over 4 points indicates a high likelihood of a PE, while a score of 4 points or less indicates a lower likelihood.

      Overall, understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score and the clinical signs and symptoms of DVT is important in accurately assessing the likelihood of a patient having a PE and determining the appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to her pediatrician with concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to her pediatrician with concerns about her development. The baby was born at 37 weeks with a low birth weight of 2,100 grams. The mother reports that the baby is able to sit unsupported but tends to use her right hand only to grasp toys, even when they are on her left side. When a task requires both hands, the baby uses her left hand to assist the right, but it appears uncoordinated. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a child development service for multidisciplinary assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child shows a preference for one hand before the age of 12 months, it may be a sign of cerebral palsy and should be addressed promptly. The appropriate course of action is to refer the child to a child development service for a comprehensive evaluation by a multidisciplinary team. Children with cerebral palsy typically receive specialized care from birth, but in some cases, the condition may be suspected in a primary care setting. According to NICE guidelines, delayed motor milestones such as not sitting by 8 months (adjusted for gestational age), not walking by 18 months (adjusted for gestational age), early asymmetry of hand function, and persistent toe-walking may indicate cerebral palsy. In this case, as the child is exhibiting hand preference before the age of 1 year and has a risk factor for cerebral palsy (low birth weight), an urgent referral is necessary. Other options are not appropriate and may delay diagnosis and treatment.

      Common Developmental Problems and Possible Causes

      Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points such as not smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and failure to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may also arise, such as abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could indicate cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, as they can also be caused by environmental deprivation or general development delay.

      It is important to recognize these developmental problems early on and seek appropriate interventions to address them. By doing so, children can receive the necessary support to reach their full potential and overcome any challenges they may face. With proper care and attention, many children with developmental problems can go on to lead happy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      119.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old woman comes to your clinic 10 months after a heart attack....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to your clinic 10 months after a heart attack. She complains of feeling down, having difficulty concentrating, and loss of appetite since the incident. She attempted online cognitive behavioural therapy but it did not help. She feels that life has lost its meaning and that she is a burden to her family. You decide to initiate treatment with an SSRI. Which medication would be the most suitable to begin with?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      After a myocardial infarction, Sertraline is the preferred SSRI due to its extensive research in this patient population compared to other SSRIs. It is important to note that the patient may also be taking antiplatelets and should be cautioned about the potential for dyspepsia and gastrointestinal bleeding. Co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor should be considered.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      137
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman is referred with fatigue. Her primary care physician observes that...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is referred with fatigue. Her primary care physician observes that she has jaundice and suspects liver disease. She also presents with angular cheilitis. She has a history of taking steroid inhalers for asthma, but no other significant medical history. A blood smear shows signs of megaloblastic anemia, and her serum bilirubin level is elevated, but her other laboratory results are normal. There are no indications of gastrointestinal (GI) issues.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Anaemia: Understanding the Causes

      Anaemia is a common condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here, we will discuss some of the possible causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings.

      Pernicious Anaemia: This type of anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 due to impaired intrinsic factor (IF) production. It is usually seen in adults aged 40-70 years and is characterized by megaloblastic changes in rapidly dividing cells. Anti-parietal cell antibodies are present in 90% of patients with pernicious anaemia. The Schilling test is useful in confirming the absence of IF. Treatment involves parenteral administration of cyanocobalamin or hydroxycobalamin.

      Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia: CML is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in increased proliferation of granulocytic cells. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly. Mild to moderate anaemia is usually normochromic and normocytic. Diagnosis is based on histopathological findings in the peripheral blood and Philadelphia chromosome in bone marrow cells.

      Iron Deficiency Anaemia: This type of anaemia is primarily a laboratory diagnosis and is characterized by microcytic and hypochromic erythropoiesis. It is caused by chronic iron deficiency and can be due to multiple causes, including chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate.

      Crohn’s Disease: This chronic inflammatory process can affect any part of the GI tract and can cause anaemia due to chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate. However, the lack of GI symptoms in the clinical scenario provided is not consistent with a history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Autoimmune Hepatitis: This chronic disease is characterized by continuing hepatocellular inflammation and necrosis, with a tendency to progress to cirrhosis. Elevated serum aminotransferase levels are present in 100% of patients at initial presentation. Anaemia, if present, is usually normochromic. However, this clinical picture and laboratory findings are not consistent with the scenario given.

      In conclusion, understanding the different causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      93.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is commonly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.

      The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious on the street with a syringe and used pack of oxycodone and alprazolam nearby. Upon examination, he is lethargic with pinpoint pupils, reduced bowel sounds, and fresh needle marks on his right arm. His vital signs are: blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 55/min, oxygen saturation of 95% on room air, temperature 36ºC, and respiratory rate of 5 breaths per minute. His blood glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      The individual displays classic symptoms of acute opioid overdose, including slow breathing, constricted pupils, and changes in consciousness.

      The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal is recommended if ingested within an hour, followed by N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation if necessary. Salicylate overdose can be managed with urinary alkalinization using IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose can be treated with flumazenil in severe cases. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, but class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics should be avoided. Lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis in severe cases. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose can be treated with protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be managed with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning can be treated with the same. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose can be treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose can be managed with desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning can be treated with dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be managed with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning can be treated with hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about his worsening haemorrhoids. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about his worsening haemorrhoids. He reports having to manually push them back in after bowel movements.
      Which class of haemorrhoids is most likely present?

      Your Answer: Grade III

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Grading System for Hemorrhoids

      Hemorrhoids are a common condition that affects many people. To help diagnose and treat this condition, clinicians use a grading system to classify the severity of the hemorrhoids. The grading system proposed by Banov et al. in 1985 is the most commonly used system.

      Grade I hemorrhoids are the mildest form and only project into the anal canal. They often bleed but do not prolapse. Grade II hemorrhoids may protrude beyond the anal verge with straining or defecating, but reduce spontaneously when straining ceases. Grade III hemorrhoids protrude spontaneously or with straining and require manual reduction. Grade IV hemorrhoids are the most severe and chronically prolapse. They cannot be reduced and may present with acute thrombosis or strangulation. These lesions usually contain both internal and external components.

      The grading system helps clinicians correlate symptoms with therapeutic approaches. For example, grade I and II hemorrhoids may be treated with conservative measures such as dietary changes and topical medications. Grade III and IV hemorrhoids may require more invasive treatments such as rubber band ligation or surgery.

      In conclusion, understanding the grading system for hemorrhoids is important for both patients and clinicians. It helps guide treatment decisions and ensures the best possible outcome for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a few weeks after a sore throat. On examination, small, drop-shaped, salmon-pink plaques are observed. What is the most probable cause of this rash?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Skin Conditions: Guttate Psoriasis, Dermatitis, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, Pityriasis Rosea, and Pustular Psoriasis

      Skin conditions can be uncomfortable and sometimes even painful. Here are some common skin conditions and their characteristics:

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, drop-shaped plaques on the chest, arms, legs, and scalp. It is usually caused by a streptococcal infection and can last for up to three months. Topical agents, such as steroids or calcipotriol, can be used to treat it.

      Dermatitis, also known as eczema, results in rough patches of skin that are dry and itchy, particularly with exposure to irritants. In children and adults with long-standing disease, eczema is often localised to the flexure of the limbs.

      Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFMD) is an acute viral illness characterised by vesicular eruptions in the mouth and papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs. It should not be confused with foot and mouth disease of animals, which is caused by a different virus.

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin rash that is characterised by distinctive, scaly, erythematous lesions. It is thought to be a reaction to exposure to infection.

      Pustular psoriasis is a rarer type of psoriasis that causes pus-filled blisters (pustules) to appear on your skin. Different types of pustular psoriasis affect different parts of the body.

      It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      76.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old man is recuperating on the ward after an emergency laparotomy and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man is recuperating on the ward after an emergency laparotomy and ileocolic resection for Crohn's disease. The nursing staff has raised concerns about his abdominal wound on the fifth day post-operation. Upon review, you observe a clear wound dehiscence in the central area of his laparotomy incision, with a small portion of the bowel visible.

      What are the initial steps that should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer: Cover the wound with sterile saline-soaked gauze and administer antibiotics while awaiting a senior review

      Explanation:

      When an abdominal wound reopens after surgery, it is called wound dehiscence. This can happen for various reasons, including infection, poor surgical technique, and malnutrition. As a junior doctor, it is important to know how to manage this emergency situation. The initial steps involve administering broad-spectrum antibiotics intravenously, covering the wound with sterile gauze soaked in sterile saline to prevent the abdominal contents from drying out, and arranging for the patient to undergo wound repair in the operating theatre. It is not advisable to attempt to close the wound on the ward, as this can be unsafe and increase the risk of infection or bowel injury. A nasogastric tube is not necessary, and simply redressing the wound without moist gauze can lead to fluid loss from the abdominal contents. It is also not necessary to arrange a CT scan, as the problem is evident and requires immediate management. While antibiotics and surgery are necessary, leaving the wound open and uncovered can lead to fluid loss and infection.

      Abdominal wound dehiscence is a serious issue that surgeons who perform abdominal surgery frequently encounter. It occurs when all layers of an abdominal mass closure fail, resulting in the protrusion of the viscera externally. This condition is associated with a 30% mortality rate and can be classified as either superficial or complete, depending on the extent of the wound failure.

      Several factors increase the risk of abdominal wound dehiscence, including malnutrition, vitamin deficiencies, jaundice, steroid use, major wound contamination (such as faecal peritonitis), and poor surgical technique. To prevent this condition, the preferred method is the mass closure technique, also known as the Jenkins Rule.

      When sudden full dehiscence occurs, the wound should be covered with saline impregnated gauze, and the patient should receive IV broad-spectrum antibiotics, analgesia, and IV fluids. Arrangements should also be made for a return to the operating theatre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      122.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following can be utilized for monitoring patients with colorectal...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following can be utilized for monitoring patients with colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen can be utilized for post-operative recurrence monitoring in patients or evaluating the effectiveness of treatment in those with metastatic disease.

      Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the frequency of the cervical cancer screening program in England for...

    Incorrect

    • What is the frequency of the cervical cancer screening program in England for women over 50 years old?

      Your Answer: 25-49 years - 5-yearly screening; 50-64 years - 3-yearly screening

      Correct Answer: 25-49 years - 3-yearly screening; 50-64 years - 5-yearly screening

      Explanation:

      In England, cervical cancer screening is recommended every 3 years for women aged 25-49 and every 5 years for women aged 50-64.

      Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 9-year-old boy with asthma comes to the clinic with his mother, who...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy with asthma comes to the clinic with his mother, who is worried about his breathing problems. He has an oxygen saturation of 90%, his chest is slightly wheezy, but there is weak inspiratory effort, and his lips are pale.
      What is the probable classification of the acute asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Life-threatening acute asthma

      Explanation:

      The child is experiencing life-threatening acute asthma, which is a medical emergency. This is defined as having any of the following features: SpO2 below 92%, peak expiratory flow below 33% of the best or predicted, silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, hypotension, exhaustion, or confusion. Therefore, 999 should be called immediately. This is not moderate or mild acute asthma, nor is it acute severe asthma, as the child is showing signs of cyanosis. Acute severe asthma is defined as having any of the following: SpO2 between 33-50% of the best or predicted, inability to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed, heart rate above 125 beats/min (for ages over 5) or above 140 beats/min (for ages 1-5), or respiratory rate above 30 breaths/min (for ages over 5) or above 40 breaths/min (for ages 1-5).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - As a foundation year two doctor in the emergency department, you are tasked...

    Correct

    • As a foundation year two doctor in the emergency department, you are tasked to assess a twenty-six-year-old man who fell on his right ankle while intoxicated last night. According to the patient, he was able to bear weight after the incident and continued his night out. However, he woke up the next day with ankle swelling and pain. Upon examination, you observed minimal swelling and bruising, but there is general tenderness and good mobility. What imaging modality would you recommend for this case?

      Your Answer: No imaging

      Explanation:

      The Ottowa ankle rules specify that imaging is necessary after trauma if there is point tenderness over the distal 6 cm of the lateral or medial malleolus, or an inability to bear weight by at least four steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department. X-ray is the recommended first-line imaging. As this patient does not exhibit any of these indications, an x-ray is not needed.

      Ottawa Rules for Ankle Injuries

      The Ottawa Rules provide a guideline for determining whether an ankle x-ray is necessary after an injury. These rules have a sensitivity approaching 100%, meaning they are highly accurate. An ankle x-ray is only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and one of the following findings: bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone or medial malleolar zone, or inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department.

      The lateral malleolar zone is from the tip of the lateral malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the fibular, while the medial malleolar zone is from the tip of the medial malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia. These rules help healthcare professionals determine whether an ankle x-ray is necessary, which can save time and resources. It is important to note that there are also Ottawa rules available for foot and knee injuries. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide efficient and effective care for ankle injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 56-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of back pain and fever that have persisted for two weeks. During the examination, it is discovered that he has weakness in his right lower limb. The patient has a history of stroke and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Although he has not traveled recently, discitis is suspected. What is the probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.

      To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.

      Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      273.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP for a routine check-up after her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP for a routine check-up after her initial cervical smear. She has no medical history, no family history of gynaecological cancers, and no known allergies to medications. She is currently taking the progesterone-only pill. The results of her smear test indicate:
      Positive for HPV
      Low-grade dyskaryosis cytology
      What is the next course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy referral

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s cervical cancer screening shows a positive result for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) and cytological abnormalities, they should be referred for a colposcopy. This is because HPV increases the risk of developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and abnormal cytology indicates the need for further investigation. If the sample is inadequate, a repeat test should be offered in 3 months. However, there is no situation in which a patient is asked to return for a repeat test in 6 months. If the patient is hrHPV negative, they would be returned to normal recall as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. If the patient is hrHPV positive but has normal cytology, they would be invited for a repeat test in 12 months to assess for resolution of HPV or for further increased surveillance before considering a colposcopy. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and return them to normal recall if they are hrHPV positive and have dyskaryosis.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash on his upper arm. During the examination, the doctor observes several raised lesions that are approximately 2 mm in diameter. Upon closer inspection, a central dimple is visible in most of the lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      73.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the most probable side-effect that he may experience?

      Your Answer: Dry skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects

      Isotretinoin is an oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found that two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of oral isotretinoin experience long-term remission or cure. However, it is important to note that this medication also comes with a number of adverse effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in developing fetuses. As such, females who are taking this medication should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, as well as low mood and depression (although this is a controversial topic). Patients may also experience raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nose bleeds, and photosensitivity.

      It is important for patients to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Additionally, patients should always follow their healthcare provider’s instructions for taking isotretinoin and should not combine this medication with tetracyclines due to the risk of intracranial hypertension. By being informed and proactive, patients can help to ensure that they receive the best possible care while taking isotretinoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man presents with intermittent leg pain that worsens with movement and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with intermittent leg pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest. He reports no recent illness or injury. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine 5mg daily. He is a smoker with a BMI of 30 kg/m². On examination, there is no visible deformity in his lower limbs, and his calves are soft and nontender bilaterally with no edema. The ankle-brachial pressure index is 0.8. The patient is started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. What other treatment should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines recommend that patients with peripheral arterial disease should be treated with clopidogrel and atorvastatin. This patient is experiencing intermittent claudication, which is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease caused by atherosclerosis. It is important to differentiate this from critical limb ischaemia, which is characterised by pain at rest. An ankle-brachial pressure index of < 0.9 suggests PAD, with an index < 0.5 suggesting critical limb ischaemia. This patient has several risk factors, including smoking, hypertension and obesity. Aspirin is not the first-line antiplatelet for PAD and should only be used if clopidogrel is not tolerated. Low molecular weight heparin is indicated for deep vein thrombosis, which is characterised by unilateral calf pain and swelling with tenderness along the deep venous system. Metformin is indicated for diabetes mellitus, which cannot be diagnosed without a HbA1c or blood glucose reading. Regular glucose checks are recommended for patients with vascular risk factors. Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery. There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      112.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain. She is experiencing severe pain in the epigastric region that radiates to her back and is vomiting excessively. When questioned, she confesses to having had too many drinks at a bachelorette party the night before. Her serum amylase level is 1190 u/l. What is the most suitable initial management step?

      Your Answer: Fluid resuscitation

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Diagnosis of Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis can lead to systemic inflammatory response syndrome and multiple organ dysfunction syndromes. The mainstay of treatment is supportive measures such as fluid resuscitation and oxygen supplementation. Abdominal ultrasound can be useful to identify gallstones as the cause of pancreatitis, but fluid resuscitation takes priority. IV antibiotics are not indicated unless complications occur. Enteral feeding is preferred over nil by mouth, and parenteral feeding should be considered if enteral feeding is not tolerated. Urgent CT of the abdomen is not necessary in the acute stage unless complications are suspected. However, for severe pancreatitis, contrast-enhanced CT may be indicated four days after initial symptoms to assess for complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      21.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (4/5) 80%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/3) 67%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (2/2) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Passmed