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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old male has presented to your clinic with the complaint of a rash on his right forearm. On examination, you discover small reddish-purple spots on the skin measuring less than 2-3 mm. They do not blanch on applying pressure. Which one of the following best fits the description given above?
Your Answer: Macule
Correct Answer: Petechiae
Explanation:Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin measuring less than 3 mm, caused by minor haemorrhages which do not blanch on applying pressure.Purpura measures between 3mm and 1 cm in diameter, while ecchymoses are greater than 1 cm in diameter. Both are caused due to haemorrhage. Erythema is the generalised redness of the skin. A macule is a flat, discoloured area of the skin measuring less than 1 cm in diameter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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You're taking a history of a 59-year-old banker who has had heartburn in the past.Which of the following information about antacids is correct?
Your Answer: Magnesium carbonate can reduce the absorption of drugs taken at the same time
Explanation:Antacids such as aluminium hydroxide and magnesium carbonate are commonly used. They’re both water-insoluble and can reduce the absorption of drugs taken together. Allow at least 1-2 hours between taking these antacids and any other medications.Because it reduces gastrointestinal phosphate absorption, aluminium hydroxide can also be used to treat hyperphosphatemia in patients with renal failure.Magnesium carbonate has a laxative effect, whereas aluminium hydroxide has a constipating effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents to you with a history of fever. A rash began as small red dots on the face, scalp, torso, upper arms and legs shortly afterwards and has now progressed to small blisters and pustules. You make a diagnosis of chickenpox.The following complications of chickenpox is the LEAST likely.
Your Answer: Orchitis
Correct Answer: Bronchospasm
Explanation:Chickenpox (varicella zoster) is a highly contagious airborne disease and has an incubation period of between 7-21 days. It often has a prodromal phase when there is a fever, aches and headaches, dry cough, and sore throat before onset of rash.Some recognized complications of chickenpox are:OrchitisHepatitisPneumoniaEncephalitisInfected spotsOtitis mediaMyocarditisGlomerulonephritisAppendicitisPancreatitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient presents with severe vomiting. They take a maintenance dose of 12.5 mg of prednisolone daily for their COPD. They are unable to swallow or keep down tablets at present, and you plan on converting them to IV hydrocortisone.What dose of hydrocortisone is equivalent to this dose of prednisolone? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: 100 mg
Correct Answer: 50 mg
Explanation:Prednisolone is four times more potent than hydrocortisone, and therefore, a dose of 12.5 mg would be equivalent to 50 mg of hydrocortisone.The following table summarises the relative potency of the main corticosteroids compared with hydrocortisone:CorticosteroidPotency relative to hydrocortisonePrednisolone4 times more potentTriamcinolone5 times more potentMethylprednisolone5 times more potentDexamethasone25 times more potent
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: You can catch chickenpox from a patient with shingles.
Explanation:After primary infection, VZV remains latent in sensory ganglia and in about 20% of patients will reactivate resulting in shingles, a painful vesicular rash in the related dermatome. Shingles usually affects older people and the immunocompromised. Shingles lesions are infectious to non-immune individuals who are at risk of developing chickenpox. Shingles can not be contracted directly from chickenpox, or from other cases of shingles. Shingles is treated with systemic antiviral treatment to reduce the severity and duration of pain, reduce complications, and reduce viral shedding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The correct statement about the glomerular filtration barrier is which of the following?
Your Answer: The glomerular capillaries are continuous, with cells connected by tight junctions.
Correct Answer: The basement membrane is negatively charged, restricting filtration of negatively charged molecules.
Explanation:The main factor in determining whether a substance is filtered or not is molecular weight. Molecules < 7 kDa in molecular weight e.g. glucose, amino acids, urea, ions are filtered freely, but larger molecules are increasingly restricted up to 70 kDa, and there is very little filtration for anything above this. There is further restriction of negatively charged molecules because they are repelled by negative charges, particularly in the basement membrane. Albumin, which has a molecular weight of 69 kDa and is negatively charged, is filtered but only in very small amounts. All of the filtered albumin is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. Small molecules such as ions, glucose, amino acids and urea pass the filter without hindrance. Other than the ultrafiltrate being essentially protein free, it has an otherwise identical composition of plasma. Bowman's capsule consists of:- an epithelial lining which consists of a single layer of cells called podocytes- endothelium which is perforated by pores or fenestrations – this allows plasma components with a molecular weight of < 70 kDa to pass freely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency Department after taking 30 of her 200 mcg levothyroxine tablets. She tells you she's 'tired of life' and 'can't take it any longer.' She is currently asymptomatic, and her findings are all within normal limits.What is the minimum amount of levothyroxine that must be taken before thyrotoxicosis symptoms appear?
Your Answer: >2 mg
Correct Answer: >10 mg
Explanation:An overdose of levothyroxine can happen by accident or on purpose. Intentional overdosing is sometimes done to lose weight, but it can also happen in patients who are suicidal. The development of thyrotoxicosis, which can lead to excited sympathetic activity and high metabolism syndrome, is the main source of concern. The time between ingestion and the emergence of clinical features associated with an overdose is often quite long.After a levothyroxine overdose, the majority of patients are asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are usually only seen in patients who have taken more than 10 mg of levothyroxine in total.The following are the most commonly seen clinical features in patients developing clinical features:TremorAgitationSweatingInsomniaHeadacheIncreased body temperatureIncreased blood pressureDiarrhoea and vomitingLess common clinical features associated with levothyroxine overdose include:SeizuresAcute psychosisThyroid stormTachycardiaArrhythmiasComaThe continued absorption of the ingested levothyroxine causes a progressive rise in both total serum T4 and total serum T3 levels in the first 24 hours after an overdose. However, in some cases, the biochemical picture is completely normal. Thyroid function tests are not always recommended after a thyroxine overdose. Although elevated thyroxine levels are common, they have little clinical significance and have no impact on treatment. Following a levothyroxine overdose, the following biochemical features are common:T4 and T3 levels in the blood are elevated.Free T4 and Free T3 levels are higher.TSH levels in the blood are low.If the patient is cooperative and more than 10 mg of levothyroxine has been consumed, activated charcoal can be given (i.e., likely to become symptomatic)Within an hour of ingestion, the patient presents.The treatment is mostly supportive and aimed at managing the sympathomimetic symptoms that come with levothyroxine overdose. If beta blockers aren’t an option, try propranolol 10-40 mg PO 6 hours or diltiazem 60-180 mg 8 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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Regarding pressures and airflow during the normal breathing cycle, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Negative intrapleural pressure causes dynamic compression of the airways.
Explanation:Dynamic compression occurs during forced expiration, when as the expiratory muscles contract, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with mild dyspepsia seeks advice from her pharmacist on how to deal with her symptoms. In the first instance, the pharmacist advises her to take an over-the-counter antacid. She buys an antacid that contains aluminium hydroxide, which relieves her symptoms but has a negative side effect.She's most likely to have developed which of the following side effects?
Your Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Aluminium hydroxide is a common antacid that is used to treat ulcer dyspepsia and non-erosive gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.When antacids containing aluminium salts are given to patients with renal impairment, there is a risk of accumulation and aluminium toxicity. If renal function is normal, aluminium accumulation does not appear to be a risk.Because it reduces gastrointestinal phosphate absorption, aluminium hydroxide can also be used to treat hyperphosphatemia in patients with renal failure.Magnesium-based antacids are generally laxative, whereas aluminium-based antacids can be constipating. Renal impairment, angioedema, and anaphylaxis are not significantly increased.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient with pronounced tremor, muscle contractions, muscle spasms, and slowness of movement is brought in by his family. He has a long history of mental health issues for which he is currently treated with a variety of medications.Which of the medications listed below is most likely to be the cause of these side effects?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Acute dyskinesias and dystonic reactions, tardive dyskinesia (rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw), Parkinsonism (tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity), akinesia, akathisia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are all examples of extrapyramidal side effects. They are caused by dopamine depletion or blockade in the basal ganglia; this lack of dopamine frequently mimics idiopathic extrapyramidal pathologies.The first-generation antipsychotics, which are strong dopamine D2 receptor antagonists, are the drugs most commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. Haloperidol and fluphenazine are the two drugs in this class that are most commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. Extrapyramidal adverse effects are less common in second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., olanzapine) than in first-generation antipsychotics.Other drugs are linked to extrapyramidal symptoms as well, but at a lower rate. Some antidepressants, lithium, various anticonvulsants, antiemetics, and, in rare cases, oral contraceptive agents are among them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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Epigastric pain and haematemesis present in a 67-year-old man. In the emergency room, he is stabilised and referred to the on-call medical team. He has been scheduled for an endoscopy in the morning due to a suspected peptic ulcer. Before transferring him to the ward, you consider giving him a proton pump inhibitor (PPI).Which of the following doses and routes are the best?
Your Answer: A PPI should not be prescribed
Explanation:PPIs should not be used prior to endoscopic therapy when an early endoscopic examination is performed within 24 hours of admission, according to current recommendations.High-dose PPI therapy reduces the risk of rebleeding and surgery after endoscopic treatment of severe peptic ulcer bleeding. Both oral and intravenous PPIs produce similar results, and there is no discernible benefit to using the intravenous formulation in patients who can tolerate oral medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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If the ejection fraction increases, there will be a decrease in:
Your Answer: Stroke volume
Correct Answer: End-systolic volume
Explanation:An increase in ejection fraction means that a higher fraction of the end-diastolic volume is ejected in the stroke volume (e.g. because of the administration of a positive inotropic agent). When this situation occurs, the volume remaining in the ventricle after systole, the end-systolic volume, will be reduced. Cardiac output, stroke volume, and mean arterial pressure will be increased.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient suffers from an injury and as a consequence, the nerve that was damaged innervates the obturator internus muscle.In which of the following nerves is the obturator internus muscle innervated by?
Your Answer: Obturator nerve
Correct Answer: Nerve to obturator internus
Explanation:The obturator internus is innervated by the obturator internus nerve (L5–S2), a branch of sacral plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Regarding platelets, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Normally about 60% of the total body pool of platelets is stored in the spleen.
Correct Answer: Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes.
Explanation:Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The time interval from differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets averages 10 days. Thrombopoietin is the major regulator of platelet formation and 95% of this is produced by the liver. The normal platelet count is approximately 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal platelet lifespan is 10 days. Under normal circumstances, about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 15
Correct
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Loop diuretics primarily act on which Na+ transporter?
Your Answer: Na + /K + /2Cl - symporter
Explanation:The most potent diuretics are loop diuretics e.g. furosemide. They work by inhibiting the Na+/K+/2Cl-symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which inhibits sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption. As a result, there is diuresis with loss of these electrolytes. There is a reduction in transcellular voltage difference, paracellular calcium and magnesium reabsorption.The medullary interstitium becomes more concentrated by salt reabsorption in the ascending limb. Loop diuretics block this process and reduce the ability of the kidney to concentrate urine. In the collecting duct, there is increased sodium delivery to the principal cells, which increases potassium secretion in return for sodium reabsorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 24 year old male sustained an insect bite and presents with a red hot arm and acute cellulitis has been diagnosed. The predominant white cells in this type of acute inflammation are:
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:Neutrophil polymorphs are the predominant type of white cells in an acute reaction. They pass between endothelial cell junctions to invade damaged tissue so that the effects of injury can be combated. Extravasation occurs with the movement of leukocytes out of the vessel lumen, and is achieved in five phases which are margination, ‘rolling’, adhesion, transmigration and chemotaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammatory Responses
- Pathology
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Question 17
Correct
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You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The patient's hemodynamics are normal. You intended to prescribe amiodarone to him, but you can't because he has a contraindication.In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to using amiodarone?
Your Answer: Sinus node disease
Explanation:Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias.The use of amiodarone is contraindicated in the following situations:Conduction disturbances that are severe (unless pacemaker fitted)Sinus node disease is a condition that affects the lymph nodes in (unless pacemaker fitted)Sensitivity to iodineBlockage of the Sino-atrial heart valve (except in cardiac arrest)Bradycardia in the sinuses (except in cardiac arrest)Thyroid disorders
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is known to have a chronic hepatitis B infection.Which of the following hepatitis B serology results is consistent with a patient that is chronically infected? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: HBsAg positive, anti-HBs positive, anti-HBc negative
Correct Answer: HBsAg positive, anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HBc negative
Explanation:Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:Susceptible to infection:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = NegativeAnti-HBs = NegativeImmune due to natural infection:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = PositiveImmune due to vaccination:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = NegativeAnti-HBs = PositiveAcute infection:HBsAg = PositiveAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = NegativeIgM anti-HBc = PositiveChronic infection:HBsAg = PositiveAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = NegativeIgM anti-HBc = Negative
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through which of the following:
Your Answer: Viral PCR
Correct Answer: Antibody detection
Explanation:Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through detection of HIV antibody and p24 antigen. Viral load (viral PCR) and CD4 count are used to monitor progression of disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Regarding renal clearance, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Creatinine is freely filtered and neither reabsorbed or secreted.
Correct Answer: The MDRD equation uses plasma creatinine to estimate the GFR making an adjustment for age, sex and race.
Explanation:Clearance is defined as the volume of plasma that is cleared of a substance per unit time. Inulin clearance is the gold standard for measurement of GFR but creatinine clearance is typically used instead. Creatinine is freely filtered and not reabsorbed, but there is a little creatinine tubular secretion. In practice, GFR is usually estimated from the plasma creatinine using a formula e.g. the MDRD equation making an adjustment for age, sex and race.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain that has been going on for the past 12 hours. Upon further investigation, a troponin test was ordered and the results came back negative. He was given a discharge order from the emergency department.Which of the following aspects of this test is considered the most significant in the decision made that it was safe to send the patient home?
Your Answer: Sensitivity
Correct Answer: Likelihood ratio
Explanation:The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of these structures is the smallest and deepest component of muscle connective tissue?
Your Answer: Sarcolemma
Correct Answer: Endomysium
Explanation:There are three types of muscle:Skeletal muscleCardiac muscleSmooth muscleIndividual muscle is enveloped in a layer of dense irregular connective tissue called the epimysium. The epimysium protects the muscles from friction against bones and other muscles.Skeletal muscle is composed of muscle fibres, referred to as myofibers which is ensheathed by a wispy layer of areolar connective tissue called the endomysium. The endomysium is the smallest and deepest component of muscle connective tissue. Myofibers grouped together in bundles form fascicles, or fasciculi. These are surrounded by a type of connective tissue called the perimysium.Beneath the endomysium lies the sarcolemma, an elastic sheath with infoldings that invaginate the interior of the myofibers, particularly at the motor endplate of the neuromuscular junction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Regarding co-amoxiclav, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav consists of amoxicillin with clavulanic acid.
Correct Answer: Clavulanic acid acts to inhibit cross-linking of bacterial peptidoglycan polymers.
Explanation:Co-amoxiclav consists of amoxicillin with the beta-lactamase inhibitor clavulanic acid. Clavulanic acid itself has no significant antibacterial activity but, by inactivating beta-lactamases, it makes the combination active against beta-lactamase-producing bacteria that are resistant to amoxicillin.The most common adverse effects of co-amoxiclav include nausea, vomiting, skin rash and diarrhoea. Pseudomembranous colitis should be considered if a person develops severe diarrhoea during or after treatment with co-amoxiclav. Cholestatic jaundice can occur either during or shortly after the use of co-amoxiclav. An epidemiological study has shown that the risk of acute liver toxicity was about 6 times greater with co-amoxiclav than with amoxicillin. Cholestatic jaundice is more common in patients above the age of 65 years and in men; these reactions have only rarely been reported in children. Jaundice is usually self-limiting and very rarely fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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Flucloxacillin is used first line for all of the following infections EXCEPT for:
Your Answer: Otitis media
Explanation:Flucloxacillin is used first line for treatment of widespread impetigo infection, cellulitis, mastitis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, severe erysipelas, severe/spreading otitis externa and infective endocarditis caused by staphylococci. Amoxicillin is first line for acute otitis media.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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The common bile duct drains into the duodenum in which of the following regions:
Your Answer: Second part of the duodenum
Explanation:As the common bile duct descends, it passes posterior to the first part of the duodenum before joining with the pancreatic duct from the pancreas, forming the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater) at the major duodenal papilla, located in the second part of the duodenum. Surrounding the ampulla is the sphincter of Oddi, a collection of smooth muscle which can open to allow bile and pancreatic fluid to empty into the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the primary function of the mitochondria?
Your Answer: The production of messenger RNA
Correct Answer: The production of the cell's supply of chemical energy
Explanation:The mitochondria is responsible for the production of the cell’s supply of chemical energy. It does this by using molecular oxygen, sugar and small fatty acid molecules to generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by a process ss known as oxidative phosphorylation. An enzyme called ATP synthase is required. Transcription of ribosomal RNA occurs in the nucleolusProduction of messenger RNA occur in the nucleusProduction of lysosome occurs in the Golgi apparatusThe post-translational processing of newly made proteins occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An injury to which nerve affects innervation to the adductor portion of the adductor magnus?
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Correct Answer: Posterior branch of the obturator nerve
Explanation:The nerves that supply the adductor magnus muscle have an embryologic origin from the anterior divisions of the lumbosacral plexus and include the obturator nerve, posterior division (L2-4), and the tibial portion of the sciatic nerve (L4). It is innervated by the posterior division of the obturator nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of visual impairment in his right eye. On examination, you notice that neither his right nor left pupil constricts when you shine a light in his right eye. When you flash a light in his left eye, the pupils of both his left and right eyes constrict. Which of the following nerves is the most likely to be affected:
Your Answer: Abducens nerve
Correct Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:In full optic nerve palsy, the afferent pupillary light reflex is lost. Because the afferent optic nerve does not sense light flashed in the afflicted eye, the ipsilateral direct and contralateral consensual reflexes are gone. However, the contralateral direct and ipsilateral consensual reflexes are intact because the efferent oculomotor nerve is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The tetanus vaccination contains inactivated tetanus toxoid, which induces the body to produce protective antibodies. How do these antibodies protect the body from tetanus?
Your Answer: Bind C. tetani flagella preventing cell motility and access to neurons
Correct Answer: Neutralise the protein exotoxin of C. tetani
Explanation:C. Tetanospasmin, an exotoxin produced by tetani, is responsible for the neurotoxic consequences of tetanus. The tetanus vaccination contains inactivated tetanus toxoid, which induces the body to produce protective antibodies that neutralize the tetanus toxin. It induces active immunization against Clostridium tetani exotoxin via toxoid-induced Ab generation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves is most important for eversion of the foot:
Your Answer: Deep fibular nerve
Correct Answer: Superficial fibular nerve
Explanation:Eversion of the foot is primarily produced by the fibularis longus and fibularis brevis, both innervated by the superficial fibular nerve. The fibularis tertius, innervated by the deep fibular nerve, also assists in this action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
