-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 67-year-old woman presents with painful, red skin on the inside of her thigh. This has developed over the past 4-5 days and has not happened before. She is normally fit and well and no past medical history of note other than depression.
On examination she has erythematous, tender skin on the medial aspect of her right thigh consistent with the long saphenous vein. The vein is palpable and cord-like. There is no associated swelling of the right calf and no history of chest pain or dyspnoea.
Her heart rate is 84/min and her temperature is 37.0ºC. What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Refer for an ultrasound scan
Explanation:An ultrasound scan should be conducted on patients with superficial thrombophlebitis of the long saphenous vein to rule out the possibility of an underlying DVT.
Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of patients will have an underlying deep vein thrombosis at presentation and 3-4% will progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. The use of low-molecular weight heparin has been shown to reduce extension and transformation to DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT and can be considered for prophylactic doses of LMWH for up to 30 days. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the sapheno-femoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A new anti-epileptic drug is being tested for adolescents with absence seizures. The control group consists of 300 adolescents while 200 adolescents are given the new drug. After 6 months, 80 adolescents in the control group had a seizure while only 10 adolescents in the group taking the new medication had a seizure. What is the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman has just failed her medical for a career as a graphic designer because of previously undiagnosed red-green colour blindness. She has been told that she has inherited this from her parents and feels that it is their fault that she has been barred from her chosen career.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the cause of red-green colour blindness?Your Answer: Red-green colour blindness is extremely rare
Correct Answer: Red-green colour blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait
Explanation:Understanding Red-Green Colour Blindness: Causes, Prevalence, and Implications for Driving and Employment
Red-green colour blindness is the most common type of colour vision deficiency, affecting 8% of men and 0.4% of women. This condition is usually congenital and inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. While less common forms of colour blindness are acquired and associated with macular disease, red-green colour blindness is often present from birth.
To assess red-green colour vision, Ishihara plates are commonly used as a screening tool. It is important to test colour vision in suspected optic nerve lesions and thyroid eye disease, as colour vision can be affected before visual acuity is impacted.
While the DVLA need not be informed of red-green colour blindness, certain occupations may exclude individuals with this condition. However, driving is generally not limited as traffic lights can be distinguished by their position.
Understanding the causes, prevalence, and implications of red-green colour blindness is important for individuals with this condition and their healthcare providers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived in Korea. The diarrhoea lasted for 4 days.
What is the most probable reason for his diarrhoea?Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Correct Answer: Enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli
Explanation:Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Causes and Prevention
Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common problem that can disrupt holiday and business plans. The most common cause of this type of presentation is enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli. Bacterial infections are responsible for 60-85% of cases, with E. coli being the most important bacterial pathogen. Symptoms are usually mild and last for about 3-5 days.
To reduce the risk of gastroenteritis, it is important to practice strict food and water hygiene. Water should be heated to 100°C to kill most pathogens, and chemical treatment with chlorine or iodine can also be effective (although iodine is not recommended for pregnant women or some patients with thyroid disease). Water filters can also be useful additions to prevent infection. By taking these precautions, travellers can reduce their risk of developing diarrhoea and enjoy their trips without interruption.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man is starting a nursing program. He requires hepatitis B vaccination.
Which serological marker indicates successful hepatitis B immunisation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies
Explanation:Monitoring and Prevention of Hepatitis B through Vaccination
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can lead to chronic liver disease and cancer. Vaccination against hepatitis B is an effective way to prevent the spread of the virus. The development of protective antibodies, known as anti-HBs, is used to monitor the response to vaccination. The antibody profile, along with the results of HBsAg and HBeAg tests, can help determine the phase of HBV infection.
Initially, vaccines were derived from viral proteins in infected blood, but now recombinant HBsAg proteins are used. Vaccination strategies range from universal vaccination in infancy to targeted vaccination of high-risk individuals. In areas with high rates of infection, universal vaccine programs have already reduced the incidence of infection, carriage, and hepatocellular cancer.
Conventional three-dose immunization in adults leads to protective immunity in 90% of individuals. Passive immunization with anti-HBsAg hyperimmune globulin can provide rapid protection after exposure, such as after a needlestick injury. For children born to infected mothers, a combination of passive and active immunization is recommended. However, in some infants, chronic infection with a mutant escape virus has occurred despite vaccination.
In conclusion, monitoring and prevention of hepatitis B through vaccination is crucial in reducing the spread of the virus and preventing chronic liver disease and cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl was admitted to hospital the previous day following a 3-day history of a diarrhoeal illness, which had then developed into bloody diarrhoea. The mother telephones the clinic to say she is very ill and has developed blood spots in the skin and had nosebleeds. She says they are also worried about her kidneys.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Explanation:Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Guide for General Practitioners
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a serious condition that can occur in response to another illness or trauma. In DIC, the coagulation mechanism is activated inappropriately and in a diffuse way, leading to thrombosis or, more commonly, haemorrhage due to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. DIC is often fatal and associated with organ failure, with bleeding from at least three unrelated sites being typical in the acute form.
DIC can be triggered by a variety of factors, including infections such as gastroenteritis (e.g. Escherichia coli O157), malignancy (especially leukaemia), and septicaemia (e.g. meningococcal septicaemia). While bleeding is a feature in two-thirds of cases, renal involvement occurs in a quarter of cases, and limb ischaemia can lead to loss of digits or limbs.
As a general practitioner, it is important to have some knowledge of DIC to respond to any questions that may arise. When presented with a patient with severe and widespread bleeding with kidney injury, DIC is more likely to be the cause than other conditions such as acute leukaemia, haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, or meningococcal septicaemia.
By understanding DIC and its potential triggers and symptoms, general practitioners can better support their patients and provide appropriate referrals for further treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left lower limb pain lasting for three hours. The pain started while she was at rest and there was no history of injury or any previous leg or calf pain.
Upon examination, her pulse rate is irregular and measures 92 bpm. The left lower limb is cold and immobile with decreased sensation. No pulses can be felt from the level of the femoral pulse downwards in the left leg, but all pulses are palpable on the right. There are no abdominal masses or bruits, and chest auscultation is normal.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sciatica
Explanation:Acute Limb Ischaemia: Causes and Symptoms
Acute limb ischaemia is a condition characterized by a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb that feels perishingly cold with paraesthesia. This condition is usually caused by either an embolus or thrombotic occlusion, which can occur on the background of intermittent claudication (chronic limb ischaemia). In most cases, the likely cause of acute limb ischaemia is an embolism secondary to atrial fibrillation. Other sources of emboli include defective heart valves, cardiac mural thrombi, and thrombus from within an aortic aneurysm.
If a patient presents with a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb, an echocardiogram, abdominal ultrasound, and duplex of proximal limb vessels are indicated. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to note that acute limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Delayed treatment can lead to irreversible tissue damage and even limb loss.
In summary, acute limb ischaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention immediately to prevent irreversible tissue damage and limb loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
During a ward round consultation, the Psychiatrist was assessing a 12-year-old patient's current mental state. The patient's reply to most of the questions consisted of sentences which did not make any sense such as - 'painting pizza prince bus brush'. This is a good example of which of the following thought disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Word salad
Explanation:Disordered speech, such as word salad, neologisms, perseveration, and echolalia, is commonly linked to psychosis and mania.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old presents to surgery with complaints of weakness in her right hand and slight difficulty speaking the previous evening. Today, all symptoms have resolved and neurological examination is normal. The diagnosis is a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). The patient inquires if it is safe for her to continue driving. What is the recommended duration for refraining from driving a motor vehicle after experiencing a classical TIA?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:Driving Restrictions Following Cerebrovascular Events
Following a cerebrovascular event, such as a stroke, patients are not allowed to drive for one month. After this period, they may resume driving if their clinical recovery is satisfactory. However, if there are residual neurological deficits one month after the episode, such as visual field defects, cognitive defects, or impaired limb function, the DVLA must be notified. Minor limb weakness alone doesn’t require notification unless it requires restrictions to certain types of vehicles or vehicles with adapted controls. In cases of severe physical impairment, adaptations may be able to overcome the impairment. It is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pain over his left shoulder blade and axillary region, which radiates down his arm into the fingers, especially the index and middle finger. He has a history of chronic neck pain. He has some tenderness in the triceps region and a reduced range of neck movements, which is painful.
There is a mild weakness of the forearm extensors and wrist extension. There is a slight loss of pinprick sensation over the index and middle finger. The biceps and brachioradialis reflexes are equal and symmetrical, and the triceps reflex is diminished on the left compared with the right.
What is the most likely level of disc prolapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C6/C7
Explanation:Nerve Root Compression: Symptoms and Signs at Different Levels of the Spine
C6/C7 Disc Prolapse:
Compression of the C7 nerve root due to disc prolapse at the C6/C7 level causes weakness in radial-nerve-supplied muscles such as triceps and extensor carpus radialis. The triceps reflex is diminished while the biceps and brachioradialis reflexes are preserved.C8/T1 Nerve Root Compression:
Compression of the T1 nerve root results in weakness of finger abduction and adduction. There are no changes to reflexes, but sensory changes are found on the medial side of the upper and lower arm.C4/C5 Nerve Root Compression:
Compression of the C5 nerve root causes weakness in shoulder abduction and flexion, and elbow flexion. The biceps reflex is impaired and sensory changes are found in the lateral arm.C5/C6 Nerve Root Compression:
Compression of the C6 nerve root results in weakness of elbow flexion and wrist extension. The biceps and supinator reflexes are impaired, and sensory changes are found in the lateral forearm, thumb, and index finger.C7/C8 Nerve Root Compression:
Compression of the C8 nerve root causes weakness in finger flexion. There are no changes to reflexes, but sensory changes are found on the medial side of the lower forearm and the ring and little fingers.Understanding Nerve Root Compression at Different Levels of the Spine
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer is found to have a corrected serum calcium level of 3.2 mmol/L (normal reference range 2.62-2.8 mmol/L). Her presenting symptoms were worsening fatigue and mild confusion.
Which of the following is the most appropriate measure to recommend?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital or hospice
Explanation:Managing Hypercalcemia in Palliative Care: Admission, Treatment, and Diet Recommendations
Hypercalcemia, a rise in serum calcium levels, can cause a range of symptoms including weakness, anorexia, nausea, and constipation. Severe cases can lead to delirium, seizures, and coma. While some patients may not experience symptoms, hypercalcemia can be an emergency in palliative care. In cases where treatment is not appropriate, fluid replacement and bisphosphonates can alleviate distressing symptoms. However, symptomatic or moderate to severe hypercalcemia requires immediate admission to a hospital or hospice for management with intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. A low calcium diet is unnecessary, and good hydration is the first-line treatment for mild asymptomatic hypercalcemia. Thiazide diuretics should be avoided as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia, as can lack of mobility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man has asthma and depression. He is dissatisfied with the treatment he has received for his asthma and files a complaint. He requests to view his medical records. Upon reviewing the records, you notice that another healthcare provider has written insufficient personality in the notes. You believe that if the patient were to read this, it would be devastating.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients cannot see results of investigations
Explanation:Restricting Access to Patient Medical Records
You have the ability to limit access to certain parts of a patient’s medical record if you believe that it could cause harm to the patient or another person. Additionally, you can restrict access to any references to named third parties, such as a spouse’s recent treatment. However, it is important to note that there is no requirement to limit access to paper records, results, or x-rays. It is not acceptable to completely obstruct access to all of a patient’s records without a valid reason. By carefully considering the potential consequences and taking appropriate action, you can ensure that patient privacy is protected while still providing necessary medical care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man presents with a lesion on the right side of his nose that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. Upon examination, you notice a raised, circular, flesh-colored lesion with a central depression. The edges of the lesion are rolled and contain some telangiectasia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:A basal cell carcinoma is a commonly observed type of skin cancer.
Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.
If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old male smoker presents with sudden and severe pain on the left side of his head, which has occurred four times this week. He reports that the pain is not throbbing and denies any visual disturbances or aura. Upon examination, there is profuse rhinorrhea, lacrimation, and swelling of the left eyelid. Additionally, the patient has partial ptosis and miosis on the left side. Further questioning reveals that both the patient and his father experience this pain every two years or so. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:This case depicts the manifestation of a cluster headache, which is accompanied by several risk factors such as being a young male smoker with a positive family history. The occurrence of partial Horner’s syndrome is a common symptom in cluster headaches, but the primary autonomic symptoms are rhinorrhoea, nasal congestion, and lacrimation.
Although the absence of visual disturbances like photophobia or blurred vision makes acute closed-angle glaucoma less probable, it is still advisable to consider this condition in such a presentation.
While it is possible to have migraines without aura, the non-throbbing nature of the pain makes this diagnosis less likely.
The one-sided pain distribution is inconsistent with a typical tension headache, which is usually described as a ‘tight band’ around the head.
The sudden onset and recurrence every two years make the presence of a brain tumour less likely.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Liam is a 27-year-old man with a history of depression and type 1 diabetes mellitus, for which he takes citalopram and insulin.
What substances should Liam avoid due to potential dangerous interactions with his medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: St John’s wort
Explanation:Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs, such as citalopram. While cranberry juice is an enzyme inhibitor, it doesn’t have any known interactions with SSRIs or insulin. Similarly, paracetamol doesn’t interact with either SSRIs or insulin. Cannabis is not known to have any interactions with SSRIs. Although cheese can interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors, it doesn’t have any interactions with SSRIs.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, altered mental state, and confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another potentially life-threatening condition. While both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations in the skin. The skin on the back of the neck and axillae is hyperkeratotic and hyperpigmented. What underlying condition do you think is causing these changes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Acanthosis nigricans is a condition where certain areas of the skin, such as the neck, armpits, and skin folds, become thickened and darkened with a velvety texture. Skin tags may also be present. While it can occur on its own in individuals with darker skin tones, it is often a sign of insulin resistance and related conditions like type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, or hypothyroidism. Certain medications like corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications can also cause acanthosis nigricans. If it develops quickly and in unusual areas like the mouth, it may indicate an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.
The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old boy has been brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his father for a routine check-up. The GP is assessing the development of the child.
Which of the following would be the most advanced developmental skill in this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uses four or five words in a sentence
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Infants
As infants grow and develop, they acquire new skills at different rates. However, there are certain milestones that most children will have achieved by a certain age. For instance, naming a simple picture in a book is a skill that is typically mastered by the age of 23 months. By 25-26 months, most children can name several body parts. Removing socks and shoes without assistance is a skill that is usually achieved by 27-28 months. By 31-32 months, throwing a ball overarm is a skill that most children will have mastered. Finally, using four or five words in a sentence is a milestone that is typically achieved by the age of 35-36 months. It’s important to remember that there is variation in the rate of development among infants, but these milestones can serve as a general guide for parents and caregivers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
What is the meaning of the P value of less than 0.05 in a study comparing the effectiveness of drug A versus drug B in lowering blood pressure, where drug A was found to be more effective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The probability that the results could have occurred by chance is less than 0.05
Explanation:Understanding Null and Alternative Hypotheses and the Significance of P Values
In any scientific study, researchers formulate a null hypothesis that assumes there is no difference between two treatments. The alternative hypothesis, on the other hand, suggests that there is a difference. It is important to note that while the convention is to assume the null hypothesis is true, rejecting it doesn’t necessarily mean that the alternative hypothesis is true.
The P value is a measure of the probability that the observed results in a study (or more extreme results) could have occurred by chance. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the possibility of chance occurrences when interpreting study results. Accepting the alternative hypothesis is not the same as saying it is true, but rather that it is more likely than the null hypothesis.
A P value of 0.05 or below is conventionally considered statistically significant, but this still carries a risk of a chance occurrence of 1 in 20. To reduce this risk, a more stringent rule is to use a P value of 0.01. Understanding null and alternative hypotheses and the significance of P values is essential for accurate interpretation of study results.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her bowel habits and a family history of colorectal cancer. She has a known diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and has previously been investigated for changeable bowel symptoms. Her father, who recently underwent surgery for colon cancer, suggested she get her carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels checked. After undergoing tests, she is diagnosed with bowel cancer. What is the most appropriate use of monitoring CEA levels in managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: For postoperative follow-up
Explanation:The Role of Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) in Cancer Management
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein that is primarily produced by cells in the gastrointestinal tract during embryonic development. While its levels are low in adults, CEA is a useful tumour marker for colorectal cancers. In this article, we explore the different ways in which CEA is used in cancer management.
Postoperative Follow-up
CEA levels are expected to fall to normal following successful removal of colorectal cancer. A rising CEA level thereafter may indicate possible progression or recurrence of the cancer. However, temporary rises can occur during chemotherapy and radiotherapy, so changes during treatment may not necessarily indicate cancer progression.Staging
CEA levels are not used in staging as there are many variables that can affect the levels. More reliable investigations are used for staging.Indicator for Operability
While a CEA level at diagnosis higher than 100 ng/ml usually indicates metastatic disease, other investigations are used in the initial assessment of a newly diagnosed cancer to determine suitability for operative management.Screening Method
CEA is not sensitive or specific enough to use for diagnosis or screening. Cancers of the pancreas, stomach, breast, lung, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, and ovarian cancer may also elevate CEA. Some non-malignant conditions such as cirrhosis, pancreatitis, and inflammatory bowel disease also cause blood levels to rise.Detection of Early Stage
CEA is not used for the diagnosis of colorectal cancers as it is not sufficiently sensitive or specific. Early tumours may not cause significant blood elevations, nor may some advanced tumours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A rapid urine screening test is developed to detect Chlamydia in individuals over the age of 50. A trial involving 200 men and women in this age group is performed comparing the new test to the existing NAAT techniques:
Chlamydia present Chlamydia absent
New test positive 20 3
New test negative 5 172
What is the negative predictive value of the new test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 172/177
Explanation:Negative predictive value = 172 / 177
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl comes to the surgery with her friend seeking an abortion. She has missed her last three periods and took a pregnancy test which came out positive. Her boyfriend is also 16 years old. It is probable that she will need a surgical termination of pregnancy due to her gestation. However, she doesn't wish to inform her parents. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Explore why she doesn't want her parents to know, discuss her options and if she wishes refer her for a termination of pregnancy
Explanation:Although she is a minor, she can provide consent for medical intervention but cannot refuse it. Her right to confidentiality must be respected regardless of her age.
If she decides to undergo a surgical termination of pregnancy, it will require hospitalization, and it is unlikely that she can keep it a secret from her parents. Therefore, it is best to address this issue sensitively from the beginning. If a doctor has ethical objections to abortion, they should refer her to another doctor.
Referring her for counseling will only cause further delay in an already overdue abortion.
As previously discussed, the patient’s confidentiality must be upheld.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man who was diagnosed with epilepsy around 25 years ago is seeking information about driving regulations for individuals with epilepsy. He is currently on sodium valproate monotherapy and had his last seizure 2 years ago. What is the minimum duration of seizure freedom required before he can drive a car?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 months
Explanation:It is common for people to have questions about the DVLA rules regarding epilepsy, given the high number of individuals affected by this condition and the potential risks associated with having a seizure while driving. In this case, the patient has a history of epilepsy and has not experienced a seizure in the past four years. According to the DVLA guidelines, individuals with epilepsy may be eligible for a driving license if they have been seizure-free for at least one year, including minor seizures and other signs of epilepsy such as limb jerking, auras, and absences. This also includes episodes that do not involve a loss of consciousness.
The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.
For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a past medical history of hypertension, migraine, and obesity (BMI is 38). Currently, he takes metformin 1 g BD and ramipril 5 mg OD for blood pressure control. His latest HbA1c is 50 mmol/mol, and his total cholesterol is 5.2 with an LDL cholesterol of 3.5. His QRisk2 score is 21%.
During the consultation, you discuss the addition of lipid-lowering medication to reduce his cardiovascular risk, especially in light of his recently treated hypertension. You both agree that starting him on Atorvastatin 20 mg at night is an appropriate treatment for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease.
Before prescribing the medication, you review his latest blood results, which show normal full blood count, renal function, and thyroid function. However, his liver function tests reveal an ALT of 106 IU/L (<60) and an ALP of 169 IU/L (20-200). Bilirubin levels are within normal limits.
Upon further investigation, you discover that the ALT rise has persisted since his first blood tests at the surgery over four years ago. However, the liver function results have remained stable over this time, showing no significant variation from the current values. A liver ultrasound done two years ago reports some evidence of fatty infiltration only.
What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20 mg nocte can be initiated and repeat liver function tests should be performed within the first three months of use
Explanation:Liver Function and Statin Therapy
Liver function should be assessed before starting statin therapy. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can be used. It is important to repeat liver function tests within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months, as well as if a dose increase is made or if clinically indicated.
In the case of a modest ALT elevation due to fatty deposition in the liver, statin therapy can still be beneficial for primary prevention, especially if the patient’s Qrisk2 score is over 10%. Mild derangement in liver function is not uncommon in overweight type 2 diabetics. The patient can be treated with the usual NICE-guided primary prevention dose of atorvastatin, which is 20 mg nocte. A higher dose or alternative statin may be required in the future, depending on the patient’s response to the initial treatment and lifestyle modifications. The slight ALT rise doesn’t necessarily require a lower statin dose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea containing blood and mucous, tiredness and anorexia that have been present for 6 months. Stool samples have been negative for any cultures. The abdomen and rectum examination is normal.
What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to gastroenterology
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Suspected Inflammatory Bowel Disease
If a young person presents with rectal bleeding, diarrhea, and anorexia without an infective cause, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) should be suspected. IBD includes Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, and a definitive diagnosis is necessary for proper management. Colonoscopy and intestinal biopsies are required for diagnosis, while blood tests and fecal calprotectin may aid in the diagnosis but cannot differentiate between the two types of IBD. Urgent referral to gastroenterology is necessary for diagnostic investigations.
An abdominal X-ray is only indicated if acute bowel obstruction is suspected, which is unlikely in this patient’s case. Blood tests may be appropriate in primary care, including FBC, inflammatory markers, renal profile, TFTs, coeliac screen, and LFTs. However, loperamide should not be prescribed in undiagnosed IBD as it can increase the risk of toxic megacolon.
Once a confirmed diagnosis is made, referral to a dietician may be beneficial for dietary advice. A 2-week-wait referral to gastroenterology is not necessary in this patient’s case, as she is a young adult and malignancy is less likely to be the cause of her symptoms. Clinical judgement should be used, and the presence of a suspicious rectal or abdominal mass would warrant referral at any age.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A seasoned General Practice (GP) manager observes that GP consultations appear to have evolved, particularly in terms of the types of consultation and the age groups that consult the most frequently. She conducts an audit of the number and types of consultations that occurred in the past three years and compares these findings to a previous audit conducted in 2000. It is observed that there have been some significant changes, which are consistent with similar national analyses.
What is the most probable recent trend in GP consultations concerning age groups?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frequent attenders consult, on average, five times more than the rest of the Practice population
Explanation:Changes in General Practice Consultation Trends: A Retrospective Cohort Study
A retrospective cohort study has revealed significant changes in General Practice (GP) consultation trends, particularly in the type of consultations offered. The COVID-19 pandemic has led to a shift away from face-to-face consultations towards other means of consulting. Frequent attenders are now consulting proportionally more over time, accounting for almost half of all GP consultations and five times more than the rest of the Practice population. This trend is evident across all consultation modalities, including face-to-face. However, the proportion of consultations with frequent attenders has dropped since 2000, despite GP consultations with frequent attenders increasing from a median of 13% to 21% over the same period. Currently, one in ten GP consultations (of any type) are with frequent attenders, and these have proportionally increased in the last 20 years. Although there has been a reduction in face-to-face consultations and a significant increase in online/telephone consultations, overall appointments have continued to increase. Face-to-face consultations have reduced in number, both for GPs and other clinical staff.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents with concerns about excessive facial hair growth. Despite switching to co-cyprindiol, there has been no improvement. Upon examination, hirsutism is noted on her moustache, beard, and temple areas. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical eflornithine
Explanation:Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.
Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pins and needles in his feet, along with back pain, three weeks after experiencing gastroenteritis. He has also noticed a gradual increase in weakness in his legs over the past three days. During the examination, the doctor observes absent ankle tendon and patellar tendon reflexes, while bicep tendon reflexes are normal. The plantar response flexor is reduced, but sensation in his feet is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
Explanation:Neurological Disorders: Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Spinal Cord Compression, CIDP, MS, and MG
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a group of syndromes that cause acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathies, resulting in muscle weakness, diminished reflexes, and paraesthesia. It is often preceded by a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection. GBS can cause ascending paralysis, which may involve the cranial nerves and lead to respiratory failure. While most patients recover, some may experience persistent motor sequelae.
Spinal cord compression is characterized by upper motor neuron signs below the level of the compression. However, the absence of reflexes and flexor plantar response in a patient doesn’t support this diagnosis.
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is an immune-mediated inflammatory disorder of the peripheral nervous system. Patients with CIDP present with muscle weakness, numbness, tingling, pain, and difficulty walking. They may also experience fainting while standing or burning pain in the extremities.
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that commonly follows a relapsing, remitting course. It can cause a variety of symptoms and signs of motor, sensory, and autonomic origin. Diagnosis requires objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of MS, as well as the exclusion of other possible explanations for clinical features.
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disorder that causes muscle weakness, which typically fluctuates in severity and is characterized by fatigue. Unlike GBS, it doesn’t present in an acute manner, and no sensory signs are seen in MG.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to you to discuss creating an advanced decision. She wants to make it clear to her family, carers, and medical professionals which treatments she would not want to receive if her condition worsens and she is hospitalized. Specifically, she doesn't want to be placed on a ventilator to support her breathing to sustain her life. Currently, her condition is stable.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the advanced decision?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refusal of any future life-sustaining treatment is valid if verbally communicated to a medical professional and documented in his clinical record by a suitably qualified medical professional
Explanation:Advanced Decisions and Statements
An advanced decision, also known as an advanced decision to refuse treatment or a living will, is a document that informs others about a patient’s wishes for future treatment refusal in case they are unable to make or communicate a decision themselves. To be valid, the specific treatment or treatments being refused must be named, and the circumstances in which the treatment should be refused should be clear. Life-sustaining treatment, such as artificial ventilation, is an example of treatment that may be refused.
The advanced decision is made by the patient while they have the mental capacity to do so. To refuse life-sustaining treatment, the decision needs to be written down, signed by the patient, and signed by a witness. If the advanced decision is legally binding, it has precedence over best interest decisions of other people.
For an advanced decision to be valid with regards to refusal of life-sustaining treatment, the person making the decision must be 18 years old or over with appropriate mental capacity, the treatment(s) to be refused must be clearly specified, the circumstances of refusal must be explained, it must be signed by the patient and a witness, the decision must have been made without duress, and the patient must not have said or acted in any way to contradict the advanced decision since it was made.
On the other hand, an advanced statement is a written statement outlining a patient’s preferences, wishes, beliefs, and values regarding their future care. It is different from an advanced decision, as it doesn’t refuse any specific treatment but rather provides guidance on the patient’s overall care preferences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
An intercalating medical student conducts a retrospective cohort study examining the association between socioeconomic status and mortality in elderly medical inpatients. The study finds there to be no association and the student's supervisor therefore suggests that the study should not be published because clinicians would not be interested in the result.
What is the name given to this form of bias?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Publication bias
Explanation:When evaluating research articles, it is crucial to be aware of various biases and assess whether they have been minimized. If an article exhibits bias, its results may not be reliable. Some types of bias include response bias, where those who participate in a study may not accurately represent the population; observer bias, where the outcome may be influenced by the observer’s subjectivity; publication bias, where studies with negative findings are less likely to be published; and recall bias, where patients may more easily remember exposures they believe are linked to the outcome.
Detecting Publication Bias with Funnel Plots
Publication bias is a common issue in research where only studies with positive results are published, leading to biased overall results. To detect publication bias, graphical methods such as funnel plots and Galbraith plots can be used.
Among these methods, the funnel plot is the most commonly used and important for exams. A funnel plot is a scatter graph used to check for publication bias in systematic reviews and meta-analyses. It provides a visual representation of the weight of published literature, ensuring that all studies are evenly represented.
An asymmetrical, inverted funnel shape in a funnel plot indicates that publication bias is unlikely. However, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, suggesting either publication bias or a systematic difference between smaller and larger studies known as small study effects. Therefore, funnel plots are a valuable tool for detecting publication bias and ensuring unbiased research results.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practice Surgery, as he has developed difficulty swallowing. He has a long history of ‘heartburn’, which he manages with over-the-counter antacids. He is a smoker with a 50-pack-year history and drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week. He thinks he has lost 4 kg of weight in the last few months.
Endoscopy reveals a lesion in the lower third of the oesophagus.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus
Explanation:Understanding Oesophageal Cancer and Related Conditions
Oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by various factors. Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus is the most common type in the UK and is associated with chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and Barrett’s oesophagus. Squamous carcinoma, on the other hand, is more likely to occur in the upper two thirds of the oesophagus. Both types of cancer are often asymptomatic until late in the disease, making early detection difficult.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition caused by chronic GORD that can increase the risk of developing adenocarcinomas in the distal third of the oesophagus. GORD, which is the reflux of stomach acid into the oesophagus, can cause burning chest pain after eating. However, it doesn’t explain dysphagia or the presence of a lesion seen on endoscopy.
An oesophageal stricture, which is a narrowing of the oesophagus, can also cause dysphagia and may be associated with chronic GORD. However, if weight loss, smoking, and alcohol consumption are present, and a lesion is seen on endoscopy, oesophageal cancer is more likely.
In summary, understanding the risk factors and symptoms of oesophageal cancer and related conditions can aid in early detection and treatment. Regular check-ups and screenings are recommended for those at higher risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)