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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old man with a history of asthma presents for review. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of asthma presents for review. He has recently been discharged from hospital following an acute exacerbation and reports generally poor control with a persistent night time cough and exertional wheeze. His current asthma therapy is: salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 800mcg bd salmeterol 50mcg bd He has a history of missing appointments and requests a prescription with as few side-effects as possible. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Ipratropium inhaler

      Correct Answer: Leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      The NICE 2019 guidelines states that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Beclomethasone), LTRA should be added.
      If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      120.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which have all gotten worse over the past months. She does not complain of a cough but remembered that she had coughed once and produced a twig-shaped mucoid sputum mass. She has no haemoptysis. She has no past medical history and is on no medications.   Her chest X-ray reveals bilateral, perihilar, dense airspace shadowing. A HRCT of her thorax showed a ‘crazy paving’ pattern of extensive, dense, white infiltrates. Her spirometry was a restrictive pattern with reduced total lung capacity. She also had a bronchoscopy and lavage, which revealed periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)-positive proteinaceous fluid and elevated levels of surfactant proteins A and D.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP) is a lung condition that is caused by a build-up of proteins and other substances in the alveoli. The alveoli are the part of the lungs that contain air. PAP has the following symptoms:
      Shortness of breath, also called dyspnoea
      Chest pain or tightness
      Fever
      Weight loss
      Cough (sometimes, but not always)
      Low levels of oxygen in the blood
      Nail clubbing (abnormal growth of toenails or fingernails)

      Serologic studies are generally not useful for PAP. Flexible bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) remains the criterion standard. Elevated levels of the proteins SP-A and SP-D in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Elevated titer of neutralizing autoantibody against GM-CSF (immunoglobulin G [IgG] isotype) in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Recent studies have proposed that deficiency of GM-CSF causes pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP); all patients studied had the antibody to GM-CSF. Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level is usually elevated, but this finding is nonspecific.

      High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) scan of the chest demonstrates areas of patchy ground-glass opacification with smooth interlobular septal thickening and intralobular interstitial thickening, which produces a polygonal pattern referred to as crazy paving.

      Light microscopy of the lung parenchymal tissue shows alveoli filled with a granular PAS base-reactive and diastase-resistant eosinophilic material.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      74
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 23 year old female presents with a five month history of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old female presents with a five month history of worsening breathlessness and daily productive cough. As a young child, she had occasional wheezing with viral illnesses and she currently works in a ship yard and also smokes one pack of cigarettes daily for the past three years. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis is a long-term condition where the airways of the lungs become abnormally widened, leading to a build-up of excess mucus that can make the lungs more vulnerable to infection. The most common symptoms of bronchiectasis include:
      – a persistent productive cough
      – breathlessness.

      The 3 most common causes in the UK are:
      – a lung infection in the past, such as pneumonia or whooping cough, that damages the bronchi
      – underlying problems with the immune system (the body’s defence against infection) that make the bronchi more vulnerable to damage from an infection
      – allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) – an allergy to a certain type of fungi that can cause the bronchi to become inflamed if spores from the fungi are inhaled

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 63 year old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 63 year old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department with an exacerbation. Which therapy represents the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Oral glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

      Treatment of ABPA aims to control inflammation and prevent further injury to your lungs. ABPA is a hypersensitivity reaction that requires treatment with oral corticosteroids. Inhaled steroids are not effective. ABPA is usually treated with a combination of oral corticosteroids and anti-fungal medications. The corticosteroid is used to treat inflammation and blocks the allergic reaction. Examples
      of corticosteroids include: prednisone, prednisolone or methylprednisolone. Inhaled corticosteroids alone – such as used for asthma treatment – are not effective in treating ABPA. Usually treatment with an oral corticosteroid is needed for months.

      The second type of therapy used is an anti-fungal medication, like itraconazole and voriconazole. These medicines help kill Aspergillus so that it no longer colonizes the airway. Usually one of these drugs is given for at least 3 to 6 months. However, even this treatment is not curative and can have side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A woman is being seen at the clinic. Her clinic notes are missing...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is being seen at the clinic. Her clinic notes are missing and the only results available are lung function tests. Her date of birth is also missing from the report.  FEV1 0.4 (1.2–2.9 predicted) Total lung capacity 7.3 (4.4–6.8 predicted) Corrected transfer factor 3.3 (4.2–8.8 predicted)   Which disease can be suspected From these results?

      Your Answer: Severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Correct Answer: Moderate COPD

      Explanation:

      The Stages of COPD:
      Mild COPD or Stage 1—Mild COPD with a FEV1 about 80 percent or more of normal.
      Moderate COPD or Stage 2—Moderate COPD with a FEV1 between 50 and 80 percent of normal.
      Severe COPD or Stage 3—Severe emphysema with a FEV1 between 30 and 50 percent of normal.
      Very Severe COPD or Stage 4—Very severe or End-Stage COPD with a lower FEV1 than Stage 3, or people with low blood oxygen levels and a Stage 3 FEV1.

      This patient has a FEV1 percent of 40 which falls within the stage 2 or moderate COP

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following measurements is a poor prognostic factor in patients suffering...

    Correct

    • Which of the following measurements is a poor prognostic factor in patients suffering from pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate 35/min

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score estimates the mortality of community-acquired pneumonia to help determine inpatient vs. outpatient treatment.
      Select Criteria:
      Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) The CURB-65 scores range from 0 to 5. Clinical management decisions can be made based on the score:
      Score Risk Disposition
      0 or 1 – 1.5% mortality – Outpatient care
      2 – 9.2% mortality – Inpatient vs. observation admission
      ≥ 3 – 22% mortality – Inpatient admission with consideration for ICU admission with score of 4 or 5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by?

      Your Answer: An adenovirus

      Correct Answer: A coronavirus

      Explanation:

      Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV). SARS was first reported in Asia in February 2003.
      In general, SARS begins with a high fever (temperature greater than 38.0°C). Other symptoms may include headache, an overall feeling of discomfort, and body aches. Some people also have mild respiratory symptoms at the outset. About 10 to 20 percent of patients have diarrhoea. After 2 to 7 days, SARS patients may develop a dry cough. Most patients develop pneumonia. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - How should DVT during pregnancy be managed? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?

      Your Answer: IVC filter

      Correct Answer: Dalteparin

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

      Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
      Other options are not indicated for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 66 year old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He...

    Correct

    • A 66 year old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no increase in his sputum volume or change in its colour. He has been a smoker for 39 years and previously worked at the shipping docks. On examination, he is pursed lip breathing but managing complete sentences. Investigations: BP is 141/72 mmHg Pulse 82 bpm and regular Sp(O2) 92% on room air RR 19 breaths/min Temperature 37.1°C. Examination of his chest revealed a widespread wheeze with coarse crepitations heard in the L mid-zone. FEV1 :FVC ratio in the clinic today was 68%.   Which of the following would be the most useful investigation that should be performed to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: High-resolution CT thorax

      Explanation:

      High-resolution CT (HRCT) scanning is more sensitive than standard chest radiography and is highly specific for diagnosing emphysema (outlined bullae are not always visible on a radiograph).

      HRCT scanning may provide an adjunct means of diagnosing various forms of COPD (i.e., lower lobe disease may suggest AAT deficiency) and may help the clinician to determine whether surgical intervention would benefit the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago. His blood pressure was found to be 143/96mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found. Investigations;   Hb 11.9 g/dL, WCC 11.1 x109/L, PLT 190 x109/L, Na+ 138 mmol/L, K+ 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 105 μmol/L, CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion Aspergillus precipitins positive Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

      Correct Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      24.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (4/10) 40%
Passmed