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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for the past three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. On the day of referral, he reported mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. During the examination, a maculopapular rash was observed on his upper body, and fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest. Mild neck stiffness was also noted. His vital signs showed a fever of 39°C and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
      - WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
      - Na: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
      - K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (1-22)
      - Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
      - AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
      - GGT: 48 U/L (<50)

      The chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma Pneumonia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment

      Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years. It is characterized by systemic upset, dry cough, and fever, with myalgia and arthralgia being common symptoms. Unlike other types of pneumonia, the white blood cell count is often within the normal range. In some cases, Mycoplasma pneumonia can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism and meningitis, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme.

      One of the most common complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia is haemolytic anaemia, which is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins found in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera. Treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin, with tetracycline or doxycycline being alternative options.

      In summary, Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including haemolytic anaemia and extrapulmonary manifestations. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies, and treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      673.3
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath and dry cough over the past three months. He gets breathless after walking a few hundred metres. He is a non-smoker and takes medication for type II diabetes mellitus. During examination, his pulse is 80/minute and regular, blood pressure (BP) 130/70 mmHg, bilateral clubbing of digits, oxygen saturation (SpO2) in room air is 90%. Auscultation reveals bilateral, fine, late inspiratory crackles, more marked in the mid-zones and at the lung bases. Chest X-ray reveals patchy shadowing at the lung bases. What is the definitive investigation to guide his management?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

      Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest

      Explanation:

      High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is the most reliable test for diagnosing idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). The radiological pattern seen in IPF is called usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP), which is characterized by honeycombing, reticular opacities, and lung architectural distortion. In advanced cases, there may be lobar volume loss, particularly in the lower lobes.

      Antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) tests are not useful for diagnosing IPF, as they are typically normal or only mildly elevated in this condition. These tests may be helpful in diagnosing interstitial lung disease associated with rheumatologic conditions, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid arthritis.

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis can be performed in patients with IPF who are experiencing respiratory distress. This test typically shows type I respiratory failure with low oxygen levels and normal or decreased carbon dioxide levels. However, ABG analysis is not the definitive test for diagnosing IPF.

      Bronchoalveolar lavage may be considered if HRCT chest cannot detect the UIP pattern, but it is not typically necessary for diagnosing IPF.

      Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) can help differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In IPF, PFTs typically show a restrictive pattern, with decreased forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC), and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. While PFTs are a useful initial test for evaluating lung function in patients with suspected IPF, they are not definitive for establishing a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      261.7
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with worsening shortness of breath during his visit to Respiratory Outpatients. This is his fifth episode of this nature since his diagnosis. In the past, he has responded well to tapered doses of oral steroids. What initial test would be most useful in evaluating his current pulmonary condition before prescribing steroids?

      Your Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Function Tests with Transfer Factor in Sarcoidosis: An Overview

      Sarcoidosis is a complex inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, with respiratory manifestations being the most common. Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor are a useful tool in assessing the severity of sarcoidosis and monitoring response to treatment. The underlying pathological process in sarcoidosis is interstitial fibrosis, leading to a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests with reduced transfer factor. While steroids are often effective in treating sarcoidosis, monitoring transfer factor levels can help detect exacerbations and assess response to treatment. Other diagnostic tests, such as arterial blood gas, chest X-ray, serum ACE levels, and HRCT of the chest, may also be useful in certain situations but are not always necessary as an initial test. Overall, pulmonary function tests with transfer factor play a crucial role in the management of sarcoidosis.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 4 - A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Panacinar

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics

      Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.

      Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.

      Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.

      Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.

      Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.

      Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.

      In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently on postoperative day one, and you are called to see her as she has developed sudden-onset shortness of breath. She denies any coughing but complains of chest discomfort. The surgical scar appears clean. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile; vital signs are stable other than rapid and irregular heartbeat and upon auscultation, the chest sounds are clear. The patient does not have any other significant past medical history, aside from her breast cancer for which she had a mastectomy five years ago. She has no family history of any heart disease.
      What is the patient’s most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Onset Shortness of Breath postoperatively

      When a patient experiences sudden onset shortness of breath postoperatively, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. One possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolism, which is supported by the patient’s chest discomfort. Anaphylaxis is another potential diagnosis, but there is no mention of an allergen exposure or other signs of a severe allergic reaction. Pneumonia is unlikely given the absence of fever and clear chest sounds. Lung fibrosis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents gradually and is associated with restrictive respiratory diseases. Finally, cellulitis is not a probable diagnosis as there are no signs of infection and the surgical wound is clean. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s sudden onset shortness of breath.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis has been on long term therapy to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis has been on long term therapy to manage his condition. He complains of worsening shortness of breath and a chest x-ray reveals 'bilateral interstitial shadowing'. Which medication is the probable culprit for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate as a Cause and Treatment for Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. Methotrexate, a chemotherapy drug, is a known cause of pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is also sometimes used as a treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis as a steroid sparing agent.

      According to medical research, other chemotherapy drugs such as alkylating agents, asparaginase, bleomycin, and procarbazine have also been linked to pulmonary parenchymal or pleural reactions in patients with malignant diseases. In addition, drug-related interstitial pneumonia should be considered in rheumatoid arthritis patients who are taking methotrexate or newer drugs like leflunomide.

      Despite its potential risks, methotrexate can be a useful treatment option for some patients with pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is important for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients for any adverse reactions and adjust treatment plans accordingly.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man snores at night and his wife reports it is so...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man snores at night and his wife reports it is so loud that he often wakes her up. She notes that her husband sometimes appears to not take a breath for a long time and then gasps for air before continuing to snore. He suffers from daytime headaches and sleepiness. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 40 kg/m2.
      What would the most likely arterial blood gas result be if it was measured in this patient?

      Your Answer: Compensated respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Compensated and Uncompensated Acid-Base Disorders

      Acid-base disorders are a group of conditions that affect the pH balance of the body. Compensation is the body’s natural response to maintain a normal pH level. Here are some examples of compensated and uncompensated acid-base disorders:

      Compensated respiratory acidosis occurs in patients with obstructive sleep apnea. The kidney compensates for the chronic respiratory acidosis by increasing bicarbonate production, which buffers the increase in acid caused by carbon dioxide.

      Compensated respiratory alkalosis is seen in high-altitude areas. The kidney compensates by reducing the rate of bicarbonate reabsorption and increasing reabsorption of H+.

      Compensated metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis. The body compensates by hyperventilating to release carbon dioxide and reduce the acid burden. The kidney also compensates by increasing bicarbonate production and sequestering acid into proteins.

      Uncompensated respiratory acidosis occurs in patients with Guillain–Barré syndrome, an obstructed airway, or respiratory depression from opiate toxicity. There is an abrupt failure in ventilation, leading to an acute respiratory acidosis.

      Uncompensated metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with lactic acidosis or diabetic ketoacidosis. The body cannot produce enough bicarbonate to buffer the added acid, leading to an acute metabolic acidosis.

      Understanding these different types of acid-base disorders and their compensatory mechanisms is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with these conditions.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of shortness of breath and an increased volume and purulence of sputum. She has a background history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her observations show: heart rate (HR) 116 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 124/68 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation (SaO2) 94% on 2l/min via nasal cannulae. She is commenced on treatment for an infective exacerbation of COPD with nebulised bronchodilators, intravenous antibiotics, oral steroids and controlled oxygen therapy with a Venturi mask. After an hour of therapy, the patient is reassessed. Her observations after an hour are: BP 128/74 mmHg, HR 124 bpm, RR 20 breaths per minute and SaO2 93% on 24% O2 via a Venturi mask. Arterial blood gas sampling is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      PO2 8.6 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 8.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      cHCO3- (P)C 32 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Lactate 1.4 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl-) 116 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Following this review and the arterial blood gas results, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: The patient’s oxygen should be increased, as they remain relatively hypoxic despite oxygen therapy

      Correct Answer: The patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV)

      Explanation:

      Management of Respiratory Acidosis in COPD Patients

      The management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s condition. In this scenario, the patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV) as recommended by the British Thoracic Society. NIV is particularly indicated in patients with a pH of 7.25–7.35. Patients with a pH of <7.25 may benefit from NIV but have a higher risk for treatment failure and therefore should be considered for management in a high-dependency or intensive care setting. However, NIV is not indicated in patients with impaired consciousness, severe hypoxaemia or copious respiratory secretions. It is important to note that a ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’ should not be automatically made for patients with COPD. Each decision regarding resuscitation should be made on an individual basis. Intubation and ventilation should not be the first line of treatment in this scenario. A trial of NIV would be the most appropriate next step, as it has been demonstrated to reduce the need for intensive care management in this group of patients. Increasing the patient’s oxygen may be appropriate in type 1 respiratory failure, but in this case, NIV is the recommended approach. Intravenous magnesium therapy is not routinely recommended in COPD and is only indicated in the context of acute asthma. In conclusion, the management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires a tailored approach based on the individual’s condition. NIV should be considered as the first line of treatment in this scenario.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 9 - After a tennis match, a thin 25-year-old woman complains of left-sided chest pain...

    Correct

    • After a tennis match, a thin 25-year-old woman complains of left-sided chest pain that radiates into her abdomen. The physical examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base of the lung with hyper-resonant percussion sounds at the left side of the chest. The abdominal examination shows generalised tenderness. A few minutes later she develops cyanosis.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Tension Pneumothorax from Other Conditions: Clinical Features and Management

      Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that occurs when the pressure in the pleural space exceeds atmospheric pressure during both inspiration and expiration. This can lead to impaired venous return, reduced cardiac output, and hypoxemia. The development of tension pneumothorax is not dependent on the size of the pneumothorax, and clinical presentation can be sudden and severe, with rapid, labored respiration, cyanosis, sweating, and tachycardia.

      It is important to differentiate tension pneumothorax from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Acute pancreatitis, ectopic pregnancy, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism can all cause abdominal pain and other non-specific symptoms, but they do not typically present with decreased air entry and hyper-resonant percussion note, which are indicative of pneumothorax.

      Prompt management of tension pneumothorax is crucial and involves inserting a cannula into the pleural space to remove air until the patient is no longer compromised, followed by insertion of an intercostal tube. Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines recommend using a cannula of at least 4.5 cm in length for needle thoracocentesis in patients with tension pneumothorax. The cannula should be left in place until bubbling is confirmed in the underwater-seal system to ensure proper function of the intercostal tube.

      In summary, recognizing the clinical features of tension pneumothorax and differentiating it from other conditions is essential for prompt and effective management.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. After workup, including blood tests, an electrocardiogram (ECG) and a chest X-ray, a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected.
      In which situation might a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan be preferred to a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) to confirm a diagnosis of PE?

      Your Answer: Weekend admission

      Correct Answer: Renal impairment

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Imaging Test for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism: Considerations and Limitations

      When evaluating a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), choosing the appropriate imaging test can be challenging. Several factors need to be considered, including the patient’s medical history, clinical presentation, and available resources. Here are some examples of how different patient characteristics can influence the choice of imaging test:

      Renal impairment: A V/Q scan may be preferred over a CTPA in patients with renal impairment, as the latter uses radiocontrast that can be nephrotoxic.

      Abnormal chest X-ray: If the chest X-ray is abnormal, a V/Q scan may not be the best option, as it can be difficult to interpret. A CTPA would be more appropriate in this case.

      Wells PE score of 3: The Wells score alone does not dictate the choice of imaging test. A D-dimer blood test should be obtained first, and if positive, a CTPA or V/Q scan may be necessary.

      Weekend admission: Availability of imaging tests may be limited during weekends. A CTPA scan may be more feasible than a V/Q scan, as the latter requires nuclear medicine facilities that may not be available out of hours.

      History of COPD: In patients with lung abnormalities such as severe COPD, a V/Q scan may be challenging to interpret. A CTPA would be a better option in this case.

      In summary, choosing the right imaging test for suspected PE requires careful consideration of the patient’s characteristics and available resources. Consultation with a radiologist may be necessary in some cases.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident and Emergency with difficulty breathing. On arrival, his saturations were 76% on air, pulse 118 bpm and blood pressure 112/72 mmHg. He was given nebulised bronchodilators and started on 6 litres of oxygen, which improved his saturations up to 96%. He is more comfortable now, but a bit confused.
      What should be the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Exacerbation of COPD: Considerations and Interventions

      When managing a patient with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), it is important to consider various interventions based on the patient’s clinical presentation. In this case, the patient has increased oxygen saturations, which may be contributing to confusion. It is crucial to avoid over-administration of oxygen, as it may worsen breathing function. An arterial blood gas can guide oxygen therapy and help determine the appropriate treatment, such as reducing oxygen concentration or initiating steroid therapy.

      IV aminophylline may be considered if nebulisers and steroids have not been effective, but it is not necessary in this case. Pulmonary function testing is not beneficial in immediate management. Intubation is not currently indicated, as the patient’s confusion is likely due to excessive oxygen administration.

      Antibiotics may be necessary if there is evidence of infection, but in this case, an arterial blood gas is the most important step. Overall, management of acute exacerbation of COPD requires careful consideration of the patient’s clinical presentation and appropriate interventions based on their individual needs.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old man with a medical history of hyperlipidaemia and hypertension arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a medical history of hyperlipidaemia and hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cough and difficulty breathing that has been getting worse over the past 24 hours. Upon examination, he is not running a fever, has a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and an oxygen saturation level of 95% on room air. During chest auscultation, the patient displays fine crackles in both lung bases. Additionally, a new audible systolic murmur is detected at the apex.

      What is the most likely cause of the patient's pulmonary symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pulmonary Oedema

      The patient in question is likely suffering from flash pulmonary oedema, which can be caused by mitral valve regurgitation due to mitral valve disease. This is supported by the patient’s advanced age, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and the presence of a new systolic murmur at the apex. The backup of blood into the left atrium and pulmonary vasculature can lead to transudation of fluid into the pulmonary alveolar space, causing pulmonary oedema.

      While pericardial effusion could also lead to pulmonary congestion, it would likely manifest with Beck’s triad of distant heart sounds, hypotension, and distended neck veins. Pleural effusion, on the other hand, would result in quieter sounds on auscultation and dullness to percussion. Lobar pneumonia would be accompanied by a fever and crackles on auscultation, but would not explain the new systolic murmur. Finally, left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, such as aortic stenosis, would cause a different type of murmur at the right upper sternal border, which is not present in this case.

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  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old girl comes to her general practice clinic with her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl comes to her general practice clinic with her mother. She has been experiencing nasal congestion, sneezing, and a sore throat for the past few days. During the examination, her pulse rate is 80 bpm, respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and temperature is 36.9 °C. She has no significant medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common cold

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Young Girl with Respiratory Symptoms

      A young girl is experiencing respiratory symptoms, including sore throat, sneezing, and nasal congestion. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:

      1. Common cold: This is a common viral infection that can cause mild fever, especially in children.

      2. Hay fever: This is an allergic reaction to specific allergens, such as pollen, that can cause similar symptoms to the common cold, but with a chronic and fluctuating course.

      3. Infectious mononucleosis: This is a viral infection that can cause fatigue, fever, laryngitis, and a rash, but is less likely in this case.

      4. influenzae: This is a seasonal viral infection that can cause more severe symptoms, such as high fever, headache, and muscle aches.

      5. Meningitis: This is a serious bacterial infection that can cause non-specific respiratory symptoms, but also tachycardia, hypotension, high fever, photophobia, neck stiffness, and petechial rash, which are not mentioned here.

      Possible Diagnoses for a Young Girl with Respiratory Symptoms

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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical history of asthma and has been hospitalized in the past due to asthma and two recent cases of pneumonia. On examination, he has bilateral wheeze and a mild fever. His sputum is thick and sticky. Blood tests reveal an ESR of 72 mm/hr (1-10) and elevated IgE levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

      Explanation:

      Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count. Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count.

      Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

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  • Question 15 - A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and has been brought to the Emergency Department. Upon regaining consciousness, she reports experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and reduced exercise capacity for the past 3 days. During auscultation, a loud pulmonary second heart sound is detected. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals right axis deviation and tall R-waves with T-wave inversion in V1-V3. The chest X-ray appears normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple pulmonary emboli

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Collapse and Reduced Exercise Capacity

      A patient presents with collapse and reduced exercise capacity. Upon examination, there is evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension (loud P2). The following are potential diagnoses:

      1. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: This is the most likely cause, especially given the patient’s underlying cancer that predisposes to deep vein thrombosis. A computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the investigation of choice.

      2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): While HCM could present with collapse and ECG changes, it is less common and not known to cause shortness of breath. The patient’s risk factors of malignancy, symptoms of shortness of breath, and signs of a loud pulmonary second heart sound make pulmonary embolism more likely than HCM.

      3. Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: This condition can present with reduced exercise capacity, chest pain, and syncope, loud P2, and features of right ventricular hypertrophy. However, it is less common, and the patient has an obvious predisposing factor to thrombosis, making pulmonary emboli a more likely diagnosis.

      4. Angina: Angina typically presents with exertional chest pain and breathlessness, which is not consistent with the patient’s history.

      5. Ventricular Tachycardia: While ventricular tachycardia can cause collapse, it does not explain any of the other findings.

      In summary, multiple pulmonary emboli are the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered.

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  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of blood-tinged sputum, fever, night sweats and weight loss. At presentation he is haemodynamically stable, has a fever of 37.7°C and appears cachectic. On examination, there are coarse crepitations in the right upper zone of lung. Chest radiograph reveals patchy, non-specific increased upper zone interstitial markings bilaterally together with a well-defined round opacity with a central lucency in the right upper zone and bilateral enlarged hila.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Subacute Presentation of Pulmonary Symptoms

      Tuberculosis is a growing concern, particularly in Eastern European countries where multi-drug resistant strains are on the rise. The initial infection can occur anywhere in the body, but often affects the lung apices and forms a scarred granuloma. Latent bacteria can cause reinfection years later, leading to post-primary TB. Diagnosis is based on identifying acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Treatment involves a 6-month regimen of antibiotics. Staphylococcal and Klebsiella pneumonia can also present with pneumonia symptoms and cavitating lesions, but patients would be expected to be very ill with signs of sepsis. Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a possibility but less likely in this case. Primary pulmonary lymphoma is rare and typically occurs in HIV positive individuals, with atypical presentation and radiographic findings. Contact screening is essential for TB.

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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness and right posterior lower chest pain. This occurs three weeks after undergoing right total hip replacement surgery. The patient has a medical history of bronchiectasis and asthma, but denies any recent change in sputum colour or quantity. On air, oxygen saturation is 89%, but rises to 95% on (35%) oxygen. The patient is apyrexial. Chest examination reveals coarse leathery crackles at both lung bases. Peak flow rate is 350 L/min and chest radiograph shows bronchiectatic changes, also at both lung bases. Full blood count is normal.

      What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT-pulmonary angiography

      Explanation:

      CT Pulmonary Angiography as the Preferred Diagnostic Tool for Pulmonary Embolism

      Computerised tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the most suitable diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. This is particularly true for patients with chronic lung disease, as a ventilation perfusion scan may be difficult to interpret. In this case, the patient almost certainly has a pulmonary embolism, making CT pulmonary angiography the investigation of choice.

      It is important to note that while ventilation perfusion scans are useful in diagnosing pulmonary embolisms, they may not be the best option for patients with underlying lung disease. This is because the scan can be challenging to interpret, leading to inaccurate results. CT pulmonary angiography, on the other hand, provides a more accurate and reliable diagnosis, making it the preferred diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism.

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  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a two-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a two-week history of palpitations and breathlessness. She has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled on metformin 850 mg bd, and longstanding hypertension for which she has been on therapy for several years. Her current medications include captopril 50 mg bd, furosemide 40 mg od, and nifedipine 20 mg bd. She recently consulted her GP with symptoms of breathlessness, and he increased the dose of furosemide to 80 mg od.

      On examination, the patient is overweight and appears distressed. She is afebrile, with a pulse of 120, regular, and a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg. Heart sounds 1 and 2 are normal without added sounds or murmurs. Respiratory rate is 28/minute, and the chest is clear to auscultation. The rest of the examination is normal.

      Investigations:
      - Hb: 134 g/L (normal range: 115-165)
      - WBC: 8.9 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11)
      - Platelets: 199 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - Sodium: 139 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
      - Potassium: 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 5.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 60-110)
      - Glucose: 5.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.0-6.0)
      - Arterial blood gases on air:
      - pH: 7.6 (normal range: 7.36-7.44)
      - O2 saturation: 99%
      - PaO2: 112 mmHg/15 kPa (normal range: 75-100)
      - PaCO2: 13.7 mmHg/1.8 kPa (normal range: 35-45)
      - Standard bicarbonate: 20 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)
      - Base excess: -7.0 mmol/L (normal range: ±2)

      What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calming reassurance

      Explanation:

      Managing Respiratory Alkalosis in Patients with Panic Attacks

      Patients experiencing hyperventilation may develop respiratory alkalosis, which can be managed by creating a calming atmosphere and providing reassurance. However, the traditional method of breathing into a paper bag is no longer recommended. Instead, healthcare providers should focus on stabilizing the patient’s breathing and addressing any underlying anxiety or panic.

      It’s important to note that panic attacks can cause deranged ABG results, including respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, healthcare providers should be aware of this potential complication and take appropriate measures to manage the patient’s symptoms. While paper bag rebreathing may be effective in some cases, it should be administered with caution, especially in patients with respiratory or cardiac pathology.

      In summary, managing respiratory alkalosis in patients with panic attacks requires a holistic approach that addresses both the physical and emotional aspects of the condition. By creating a calming environment and providing reassurance, healthcare providers can help stabilize the patient’s breathing and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man complains of worsening shortness of breath. During examination, the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man complains of worsening shortness of breath. During examination, the left base has a stony dull percussion note. A chest x-ray reveals opacification in the lower lobe of the left lung. What is the most suitable test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound-guided pleural fluid aspiration

      Explanation:

      Left Pleural Effusion Diagnosis

      A left pleural effusion is present in this patient, which is likely to be significant in size. To diagnose this condition, a diagnostic aspiration is necessary. The fluid obtained from the aspiration should be sent for microscopy, culture, and cytology to determine the underlying cause of the effusion. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, it is essential to perform a diagnostic aspiration and analyze the fluid obtained to provide the best possible care for the patient.

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  • Question 20 - A 63-year-old man presented with progressive dyspnoea and cough over two years. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presented with progressive dyspnoea and cough over two years. He was previously employed in a ceramic factory as chief supervisor.
      What is the most probable radiological finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small numerous opacities in upper lung zones with hilar lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Silicosis: Radiological Findings and Risk Factors

      Silicosis is a lung disease that can develop many years after exposure to silica, which is commonly found in clay used in ceramic factories. Other toxic chemicals found in ceramic factories, such as talc, lead, chromium, sulfur dioxide, and metal fumes, can also increase the risk of developing silicosis.

      Radiological findings of silicosis include small numerous opacities in the upper lung zones with hilar lymphadenopathy, which may show egg shell calcification. In later stages, rounded nodules in the upper zones with lower zone emphysema may also be present. However, progressive massive fibrosis is not a common finding in silicosis lungs.

      Silicosis per se does not cause lung cavitation, but it can be complicated by tuberculosis, which may lead to the formation of cavities. In acute silicosis, lower zone alveolar opacities may be present, which can lead to acute respiratory failure.

      Overall, understanding the radiological findings and risk factors of silicosis is important for early detection and prevention of this debilitating lung disease.

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  • Question 21 - A 62-year-old teacher visits her GP as she has noticed that she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old teacher visits her GP as she has noticed that she is becoming increasingly breathless whilst walking. She has always enjoyed walking and usually walks 5 times a week. Over the past year she has noted that she can no longer manage the same distance that she has been accustomed to without getting breathless and needing to stop. She wonders if this is a normal part of ageing or if there could be an underlying medical problem.
      Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the respiratory system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) by 20–30%

      Explanation:

      Age-Related Changes in Respiratory Function and Abnormalities to Watch For

      As we age, our respiratory system undergoes natural changes that can affect our lung function. By the age of 80, it is normal to experience a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) by about 25-30%. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) also decreases by approximately 30% in both men and women. However, if these changes are accompanied by abnormal readings such as PaO2 levels below 8.0 kPa, PaCO2 levels above 6.5 kPa, or O2 saturation levels below 91% on air, it may indicate hypoxemia or hypercapnia, which are not consistent with normal aging. It is important to monitor these readings and seek medical attention if abnormalities are detected.

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  • Question 22 - An 80-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the bank holiday weekend. Admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the right lower zone of the lung.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It occurs when someone inhales foreign material, such as vomit, into their lungs. If an alcoholic is found unconscious and has a consolidation in the lower zone of their lungs, it is highly likely that they have aspiration pneumonia. Antibiotics should be prescribed accordingly.

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is another condition that can cause breathlessness and consolidation on chest X-ray. However, it is unlikely to develop in a hospital setting and does not typically cause a fever. Treatment involves prednisolone and sometimes itraconazole.

      Tuberculosis (TB) is becoming more common in the UK and Europe, especially among immunosuppressed individuals like alcoholics. However, TB usually affects the upper lobes of the lungs, and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days prior makes it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Staphylococcal pneumonia can occur in alcoholics, but it is characterized by cavitating lesions and often accompanied by empyema.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is also common in immunosuppressed individuals and causes bilateral perihilar consolidations, sometimes with pneumatocele formation.

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  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old man has just been admitted to the medical ward. Two days...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man has just been admitted to the medical ward. Two days ago, he returned from a business trip and his history suggests he may have caught an atypical pneumonia. While examining the patient’s chest clinically, you try to determine whether the pneumonia is affecting one lobe in particular or is affecting the whole lung.
      On the right side of the patient’s chest, which one of the following surface landmarks would be most likely to mark the boundary between the middle and lower lobes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sixth rib

      Explanation:

      Surface Landmarks for Lung Lobes and Abdominal Planes

      The human body has several surface landmarks that can be used to locate important anatomical structures. In the case of the lungs, the position of the lobes can be estimated using the oblique and horizontal fissures. The sixth rib is the most likely surface landmark to mark the boundary between the right middle and lower lobes, while the fourth costal cartilage indicates the level of the horizontal fissure separating the superior from the middle lobes of the right lung.

      In the abdomen, the tip of the ninth costal cartilage is a useful landmark as it marks the position of the transpyloric plane. This imaginary axial plane is important as it is where many anatomical structures, such as the pylorus of the stomach and the neck of the pancreas, are located. Additionally, the horizontal line passing through the centre of the nipple, known as the mammillary line, can also be used as a surface landmark for certain procedures.

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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man with known bronchial carcinoma presents to hospital with confusion. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with known bronchial carcinoma presents to hospital with confusion. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was reported as normal: no evidence of metastases. His serum electrolytes were as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 114 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 82 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urinary sodium 54 mmol/l
      Which of the subtype of bronchial carcinoma is he most likely to have been diagnosed with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small cell

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Lung Cancer and Their Association with Ectopic Hormones

      Lung cancer is a complex disease that can be divided into different types based on their clinical and biological characteristics. The two main categories are non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLCs) and small cell lung cancer (SCLC). SCLC is distinct from NSCLCs due to its origin from amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) cells, which have an endocrine lineage. This can lead to the production of various peptide hormones, causing paraneoplastic syndromes such as the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and Cushing syndrome.

      Among NSCLCs, squamous cell carcinoma is commonly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone, leading to hypercalcemia. Large cell carcinoma and bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma are NSCLCs that do not produce ectopic hormones. Adenocarcinoma, another type of NSCLC, also does not produce ectopic hormones.

      Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their association with ectopic hormones is crucial for proper management and treatment of the disease.

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  • Question 25 - A trauma call is initiated in the Emergency Department after a young cyclist...

    Incorrect

    • A trauma call is initiated in the Emergency Department after a young cyclist is brought in following a road traffic collision. The cyclist was riding on a dual carriageway when a car collided with them side-on, causing them to land in the middle of the road with severe injuries, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A bystander called an ambulance which transported the young patient to the Emergency Department. The anaesthetist on the trauma team assesses the patient and diagnoses them with a tension pneumothorax. The anaesthetist then inserts a grey cannula into the patient's second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line. Within a few minutes, the patient expresses relief at being able to breathe more easily.

      What signs would the anaesthetist have observed during the examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral tracheal deviation, reduced chest expansion, increased resonance on percussion, absent breath sounds

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tension Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Treatment

      Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that occurs when air enters the pleural space but cannot exit, causing the pressure in the pleural space to increase and the lung to collapse. This condition can be diagnosed clinically by observing contralateral tracheal deviation, reduced chest expansion, increased resonance on percussion, and absent breath sounds. Treatment involves inserting a wide-bore cannula to release the trapped air. Delay in treatment can be fatal, so diagnosis should not be delayed by investigations such as chest X-rays. Other respiratory conditions may present with different symptoms, such as normal trachea, reduced chest expansion, reduced resonance on percussion, and normal vesicular breath sounds. Tracheal tug is a sign of severe respiratory distress in paediatrics, while ipsilateral tracheal deviation is not a symptom of tension pneumothorax. Understanding the symptoms of tension pneumothorax is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of asthma and eczema visits her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of asthma and eczema visits her General Practitioner and inquires about the reason for her continued wheezing hours after being exposed to pollen. She has a known allergy to tree pollen.
      What is the most suitable explanation for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammation followed by mucosal oedema

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Allergic Asthma

      Allergic asthma is a condition that is mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE). When IgE binds to an antigen, it triggers mast cells to release histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins, which cause bronchospasm and vasodilation. This leads to inflammation and edema of the mucosal lining of the airways, resulting in persistent symptoms or late symptoms after an acute asthma attack.

      While exposure to another allergen could trigger an asthma attack, it is not the most appropriate answer if you are only aware of a known allergy to tree pollen. Smooth muscle hypertrophy may occur in the long-term, but the exact mechanism and functional effects of airway remodeling in asthma are not fully understood. Pollen stuck on Ciliary would act as a cough stimulant, clearing the pollen from the respiratory tract. Additionally, the Ciliary would clear the pollen up the respiratory tract as part of the mucociliary escalator.

      It is important to note that pollen inhaled into the respiratory system is not systemically absorbed. Instead, it binds to immune cells and exhibits immune effects through cytokines produced by Th1 and Th2 cells. Understanding the mechanisms of allergic asthma can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent future attacks.

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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down frequently. She has had no other health issues. The patient works in an office.
      During the physical examination, the patient is found to have clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse reticulonodular shadows, particularly in the lower lobes.
      What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition that can be diagnosed through a patient’s medical history. When it comes to treatment options, oxygen therapy is the most appropriate as it can prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, there are other treatments available such as steroids and immune modulators like azathioprine, cyclophosphamide methotrexate, and cyclosporin. In some cases, anticoagulation may also be used to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or trauma, but does admit to smoking around ten cigarettes a day since his early teenage years. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a potential spontaneous pneumothorax and proceeds to insert a chest drain for treatment. In terms of the intercostal spaces, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The direction of fibres of the external intercostal muscle is downwards and medial

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Intercostal Muscles and Neurovascular Bundle

      The intercostal muscles are essential for respiration, with the external intercostal muscles aiding forced inspiration. These muscles have fibers that pass obliquely downwards and medial from the lower border of the rib above to the smooth upper border of the rib below. The direction of these fibers can be remembered as having one’s hands in one’s pockets.

      The intercostal neurovascular bundle, which includes the vein, artery, and nerve, lies in a groove on the undersurface of each rib, running in the plane between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. The vein, artery, and nerve lie in that order, from top to bottom, under cover of the lower border of the rib.

      When inserting a needle or trocar for drainage or aspiration of fluid from the pleural cavity, it is important to remember that the neurovascular bundle lies in a groove just above each rib. Therefore, the needle or trocar should be inserted just above the rib to avoid the main vessels and nerves. Remember the phrase above the rib below to ensure proper insertion.

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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man in the United Kingdom presents with fever and cough. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man in the United Kingdom presents with fever and cough. He smells strongly of alcohol and has no fixed abode. His heart rate was 123 bpm, blood pressure 93/75 mmHg, oxygen saturations 92% and respiratory rate 45 breaths per minute. Further history from him reveals no recent travel history and no contact with anyone with a history of foreign travel.
      Chest X-ray revealed consolidation of the right upper zone.
      Which of the following drugs is the most prudent choice in his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meropenem

      Explanation:

      Understanding Klebsiella Pneumoniae Infection and Treatment Options

      Klebsiella pneumoniae (KP) is a common organism implicated in various infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract infection, intra-abdominal abscesses, or bacteraemia. Patients with underlying conditions like alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic lung disease are at higher risk of contracting KP. The new hypervirulent strains with capsular serotypes K1 or K2 are increasingly being seen. In suspected cases of Klebsiella infection, treatment is best started with carbapenems. However, strains possessing carbapenemases are also being discovered, and Polymyxin B or E or tigecycline are now used as the last line of treatment. This article provides an overview of KP infection, radiological findings, and treatment options.

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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and occasional wheezing.
      What investigation finding would indicate a diagnosis of asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Criteria for Asthma: Key Indicators to Consider

      Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucous production, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Diagnosing asthma can be challenging, as its symptoms can mimic those of other respiratory conditions. However, several key indicators can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.

      Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb): An FeNO level > 40 ppb is indicative of asthma.

      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1/FVC ratio) ≥ 75%: An obstructive FEV1/FVC ratio < 70% would support a diagnosis of asthma in this patient. A 10% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 12% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. A 150 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 200 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. Greater than 15% variability in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) on monitoring: Greater than 20% variability in PEFR on monitoring supports a diagnosis of asthma. In conclusion, healthcare professionals should consider these key indicators when diagnosing asthma. However, it is important to note that asthma is not the only cause of these indicators, and a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (5/10) 50%
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