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Question 1
Incorrect
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For which children is it necessary to defer their polio vaccination and refer them to a child specialist for additional guidance?
Your Answer: A child with a history of febrile convulsions
Correct Answer: A child with uncontrolled epilepsy
Explanation:Polio Vaccination and Neurological Conditions
The Department of Health’s ‘Green Book’ provides guidelines for polio vaccination and neurological conditions. According to the book, stable pre-existing neurological conditions such as spina bifida and congenital brain abnormalities do not prevent polio vaccination. However, if a child has an unstable or deteriorating neurological condition, vaccination should be deferred, and the child should be referred to a specialist for further assessment and advice. This includes children with uncontrolled epilepsy.
It is important to note that a family history of seizures or epilepsy doesn’t prevent immunization. However, if there is a personal or family history of febrile seizures, there is an increased risk of these occurring after any fever, including post-immunization. In such cases, immunization should proceed as recommended, with advice on the prevention and management of fever beforehand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old girl is brought to clinic by her father, who complains she is ‘having difficulty breathing’. A harsh inspiratory stridor is heard. You suspect that she may have tracheomalacia.
Which of the following would support this diagnosis?Your Answer: The child has signs of respiratory distress
Correct Answer: Stridor which worsens when the child is supine
Explanation:Understanding Laryngomalacia: A Common Condition in Young Babies
Laryngomalacia, also known as congenital laryngeal stridor, is a condition that affects many young babies. It is caused by delayed maturation of the cartilage in the larynx, which leads to collapse of the supraglottic larynx during inspiration. This results in a noisy respiration and an inspiratory stridor, which is typically more noticeable when the baby is in a supine position, feeding, crying, sleeping, or during intercurrent illness.
While there may be gastro-oesophageal reflux, the child is otherwise well and there is no associated upper respiratory discharge. However, infants with laryngomalacia may have difficulty coordinating the ‘suck-swallow-breathe’ sequence needed for feeding due to their airway obstruction.
It is important to note that respiratory distress is uncommon, and if there is tachypnoea, it is only mild and there is no reduction in oxygen saturation. Additionally, a barking cough is not a typical symptom of laryngomalacia. The classic symptom is inspiratory stridor, which may be increased when the child has an upper respiratory infection.
While symptoms may initially worsen, they typically resolve by 18-24 months without the need for treatment. However, if the stridor is worsening, other diagnoses should be considered. Overall, understanding laryngomalacia can help parents and caregivers better recognize and manage this common condition in young babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You have a 7-year-old Asian child in your clinic. He has slightly bowed legs and complains of muscle pains. You suspect a Vitamin D deficiency. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Phosphate
Correct Answer: 25-hydroxyvitamin D
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency
Vitamin D deficiency is a common health concern that can lead to various health problems. To investigate suspected Vitamin D deficiency, doctors often use the 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood test. However, it’s important to note that a high alkaline phosphatase level may indicate rickets, but it can still be normal despite significant Vitamin D deficiency. Additionally, Vitamin D deficiency can impair the absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus, but these levels may still appear normal despite the deficiency.
When the parathyroid calcium sensing receptors detect low levels of calcium, the body produces parathyroid hormone. While this hormone can be used to diagnose Vitamin D deficiency, it’s an expensive test that is not usually necessary. Overall, understanding the signs and symptoms of Vitamin D deficiency and getting regular check-ups can help prevent and treat this common health issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is seen with his father. The father reports that for the last few weeks, the child has been persistently scratching his bottom, particularly at night. The father has noticed some scratch marks around his anus, but nothing else. He is otherwise well and takes no regular medications.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Psychological pruritus
Correct Answer: Threadworm infestation
Explanation:Understanding Threadworm Infestation: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Threadworm infestation is a common parasitic infection in the United Kingdom, particularly among children. The threadworm, a small white worm that tapers at both ends, can cause itching around the anus and vulva due to the mucous accompanying the eggs it lays at night. Scratching can lead to skin infection and re-infection with the worms. While pre-pubertal girls with certain symptoms should also be investigated for threadworm, other conditions such as hookworm infestation, eczema, psychological pruritus, and tapeworm infestation should be ruled out through differential diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of threadworm infestation can help healthcare providers provide appropriate treatment and care for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old student presents with a three week history of a flu-like illness, which progressed after a week to paroxysms of coughing.
He was previously healthy and believes he received all the recommended childhood vaccinations.
Upon examination, he has no fever and his chest sounds clear. You suspect he may have pertussis.
What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Culture of pernasal swab for Bordetella pertussis
Correct Answer: Serology for anti-pertussis IgG antibodies
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pertussis
In diagnosing pertussis, the appropriate test depends on the age of the patient and the timing of their symptoms. For children under 12 months old who are hospitalized, PCR testing is recommended. For those who are not hospitalized, a culture of a pernasal swab is preferred.
For patients over 12 months old and adults, a culture of a pernasal swab is recommended within two weeks of symptom onset or 48 hours of antibiotic therapy. However, if the patient presents more than two weeks after symptom onset or has been on antibiotics for more than 48 hours, serology testing for anti-pertussis IgG antibodies is the most appropriate diagnostic test.
It is important to note that culture testing for Bordetella pertussis is unlikely to be positive beyond two weeks from symptom onset, and a negative result doesn’t exclude pertussis infection. CXR and FBC testing are not specific or diagnostic for pertussis. PCR testing is useful for young infants or late in the disease after antibiotics have been administered, but it is not the recommended test in this scenario.
Overall, understanding and implementing national guidelines for respiratory problems is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of pertussis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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How many doses of tetanus vaccine should a teenager receive as part of the routine UK immunisation schedule?
Your Answer: None
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses. This is considered to provide long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage. Tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment, wounds containing foreign bodies, and compound fractures. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his mother. He was playing on the monkey bars at the playground and fell off, landing on his right arm. He started crying and complained that his right elbow hurt. He is now reluctant to move the elbow and holds it slightly flexed and pronated with the forearm held against the abdomen. There is no tenderness, swelling, bruising or deformity at the elbow.
Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer: Non-accidental injury
Correct Answer: Radial head subluxation
Explanation:Common Elbow Injuries in Children and Adults
Radial head subluxation is a frequent injury in children under the age of 6 years. The rounded end of the radial head is still made of cartilage and can easily slip out of the encircling annular ligament when the arm is pulled. There is usually no history of trauma, but there may be a history of axial traction by a pull on the hand or wrist. Tenderness at the head of the radius may be present. Imaging is only necessary when a fracture is suspected. Manipulation can be done in the GP surgery by immobilizing the elbow with one hand and with the other hand applying axial compression while supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow. Alternatively, it can be done while pronating the forearm. A click indicates success.
Supracondylar fracture of the humerus is most commonly seen in children and usually results from a fall on to an outstretched arm. The patient usually has elbow swelling and pain.
Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is a chronic condition that peaks between 40 and 50 years of age. It is thought to be an overload tendon injury.
Radial neck fracture occurs due to trauma such as a fall onto the outstretched arm. The median age is 9–10 years. There is pain, swelling, and tenderness over the lateral side of the elbow.
In cases of suspected non-accidental injury, the explanation should be consistent with the injury, and in the absence of other features, non-accidental injury is unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 18-month-old daughter in for review. She started walking three months ago. The mother has noticed that her daughter seems to be 'bow-legged' when she walks.
Examination of the knees and hips is unremarkable with a full range of movement. Leg length is equal. On standing the intercondylar distance is around 7cm.
What is the most appropriate action?Your Answer: Request an x-ray of the knees
Correct Answer: Reassure that it is a normal variant and likely to resolve by the age of 4 years
Explanation:It is common for children under the age of 3 to have bow legs, which is considered a normal variation. Typically, this condition resolves on its own by the time the child reaches 4 years old.
Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children
Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.
One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.
Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.
Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.
In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You take a telephone call at the end of surgery from a childminder who is looking after a 5-year-old boy who she feels has suspicious injuries.
She says that when she commented on the injuries to his mother, when he was dropped off earlier in the morning, she gave an unconvincing account of what might have happened to him. She suspects non-accidental injury and from the history given, you do too, but are not sure. You arrange to see the child with his mother later that same day.
When should you make notes about this first consultation?Your Answer: Within five working days
Correct Answer: Immediately
Explanation:Importance of Timely and Accurate Note-Taking in Medical Practice
Making notes immediately after a consultation with a patient is crucial in medical practice. It is equally important to make further contemporaneous notes whenever you see the patient again. This ensures that all relevant information is recorded accurately and in a timely manner.
It is easy to forget or omit making notes about telephone consultations, which can lead to repeat prescribing of the wrong drug in the future. Therefore, it is essential to record all encounters with patients, including telephone consultations, in the clinical record.
Cases involving child protection are particularly important, and it is good practice to record the contents of the consultation immediately, even if the eventual diagnosis is uncertain. This ensures that all relevant information is documented and can be used to inform future decisions.
In summary, timely and accurate note-taking is essential in medical practice to ensure that all relevant information is recorded and can be used to inform future decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A father contacts the clinic regarding his 3-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with strep throat and prescribed antibiotics. He neglected to inquire about the duration of time she should stay home from preschool. What guidance should be provided?
Your Answer: 7 days after commencing antibiotics
Correct Answer: 48 hours after commencing antibiotics
Explanation:After starting antibiotics, children with whooping cough can go back to school or nursery within 48 hours, typically with a macrolide.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A concerned mother of a toddler attends your clinic seeking advice on how to reduce the risk of accidents in her child.
Which of the following pieces of advice is supported by the best evidence?Your Answer: Do not use a pacifier (dummy) at night
Correct Answer: Avoid soft mattresses
Explanation:Best Evidence for Reducing the Risk of SIDS
Cot death, also known as Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS), is a rare but devastating occurrence that affects approximately 1 in 1500 babies per year. It is more common in male infants and during the winter months. While there are several risk factors for SIDS, including multiple pregnancies, low birth weight, and lower social class, the best evidence suggests that avoiding prone sleeping is the most effective intervention.
Other interventions that have been suggested to reduce the risk of SIDS include using a dummy (pacifier) and ensuring a smoke-free environment. However, the evidence for these interventions is not as strong as the evidence for avoiding prone sleeping.
It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the risk factors for SIDS and to take steps to reduce the risk. By following the best available evidence, we can help to prevent this tragic and heartbreaking event from occurring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is playing outside when she trips and falls, landing on the outside of her left foot. She immediately cries out in pain and looks for help. There is no significant family or personal medical history. She is assisted by a neighbor as she limps inside. She is able to put weight on her foot.
Upon examination, her left ankle is swollen, warm, and shows signs of bruising. She has limited range of motion, particularly with internal rotation, and experiences tenderness along the lateral aspect of the ankle joint below the lateral malleolus, although there is no point tenderness over the malleolus itself.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ankle fracture
Correct Answer: Ankle dislocation
Explanation:Ankle Injuries in Children and the Ottawa Ankle Rules
The history of ankle injuries in children suggests a forced internal rotation at the ankle joint, which can cause a sprain of the lateral ligaments. This type of injury requires supportive strapping, analgesia, and graduated mobilization. However, ankle sprains are less common in children than adults because their ligaments are stronger than their growth plates. As a result, the growth plate tends to fracture before the ligament tears.
In some cases, Salter-Harris Type 1 fractures and ligament tears may not show up on radiographs. Therefore, it is important to consider the patient’s history, such as tenderness over the ligament rather than bone and whether the patient is weight-bearing.
The Ottawa ankle rules are helpful in assisting GPs in the management of ankle injuries in adults and determining the need for an x-ray. A recent study published in the BMJ showed that the Ottawa ankle rules are highly accurate at excluding ankle fractures after a sprain injury. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for ankle injuries in children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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During a local measles outbreak you are contacted by a number of elderly patients who are enquiring about immunisation for themselves.
In which of the following groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?Your Answer: Previously received 2 doses of MMR
Correct Answer: Gelatin allergy
Explanation:Contraindications and Considerations for MMR Vaccine
Anaphylaxis to the MMR vaccine is rare, with less than 15 cases per million. The few contraindications to the vaccine include pregnancy, immunosuppression, gelatin or neomycin allergy with previous known anaphylaxis, and anaphylaxis to a previous dose of MMR. Egg allergy is not a contraindication, but some regions suggest immunizing in the secondary care setting. Breastfeeding and milk allergy are also not contraindications. Patients with pre-existing neurological conditions can receive the vaccine, but it is advised to postpone immunization if the condition is poorly controlled or progressive.
According to the Green Book, minor illnesses without fever or systemic upset are not valid reasons to postpone immunization. However, if an individual is acutely unwell, immunization should be postponed until they have fully recovered to avoid confusing the differential diagnosis of any acute illness by wrongly attributing any signs or symptoms to the adverse effects of the vaccine. It is important to note that patients who have received the MMR vaccine in the past can receive another dose, and the risk of allergy reduces with each successive immunization. At least two doses should provide satisfactory cover, but further immunization may not be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought into the minor injury unit by his mother after suddenly developing a cough and wheeze. His symptoms seem to have started suddenly at a birthday party. On examination, he is irritable, afebrile, with a raised respiratory rate and cough. He has a wheeze heard on the right side and breath sounds are more prominent on the left.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Asthma
Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body
Explanation:Foreign Body Aspiration, Peanut Allergy, and Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Signs
Unilateral wheeze in a child should always prompt the search for an inhaled foreign body, especially if symptoms started acutely in an otherwise healthy child. Large foreign bodies can cause complete airway obstruction and are rapidly fatal, while smaller ones, like peanuts, usually lodge in the right main bronchus and cause hyperinflation of the unaffected side, reduced air entry on the affected side, and a unilateral monophonic wheeze. Symptoms of foreign body aspiration may not always include the classic triad of coughing, wheezing, and decreased breathing sounds, and patients with chronic symptoms may have been misdiagnosed as having asthma or bronchitis. Peanut allergy symptoms can include itching, urticaria, facial swelling, bronchospasm, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and collapse with anaphylactic shock. Spontaneous pneumothorax presents with sudden onset of pain and dyspnea, hyper-resonance, and reduced breath sounds on the affected side. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of these conditions to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the pertussis vaccine is accurate?
Your Answer: It is contraindicated in patients allergic to egg
Correct Answer: It should be offered to all pregnant women
Explanation:All pregnant women are now eligible to receive the pertussis (whooping cough) vaccine.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in for her 6 week postpartum check after giving birth to a baby with Down's syndrome. Genetic testing confirmed non-disjunction as the cause of the trisomy. The patient is curious about the likelihood of having another child with Down's syndrome in the future. What is the probability of this occurring?
Your Answer: 1 in 250
Correct Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:The recurrence rate of Down’s syndrome is typically 1 in 100.
Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old mother contacts the on-call doctor, concerned about her two daughters (aged 4 and 6) who attend the same school. She reports that both girls have been complaining of an itchy scalp for the past week, but she has not noticed any visible signs of rash or irritation. After conducting a dry combing of their hair, she has found live lice on her younger daughter.
What advice would you give as the on-call doctor?Your Answer: Treat only the twin with live lice on dry combing with either malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate or cyclomethicone
Explanation:According to the updated 2016 NICE CKS guidance, household contacts of patients with head lice do not require treatment unless they are also infested. Treatment should only be given if live head lice are detected, and it may be possible to manage this over the phone without a physical examination. It is crucial to have a discussion with the patient or caregiver about the various treatment options available, weighing the pros and cons, and involving them in the decision-making process.
Understanding Head Lice: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs, which are grey or brown and about the size of a pinhead, are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits, on the other hand, are the empty egg shells and are white and shiny. They are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.
Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. It is important to note that head lice cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.
To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. It is important to note that school exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of head lice is crucial in preventing its spread. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, we can effectively manage this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old mother brings her 8-month-old son to the emergency surgery, concerned about his breathing pattern. She thinks he may have asthma as he seems to be breathing faster than her 5-year-old nephew.
The mother reports no cough or wheeze, and the child has no fever or rash. He is happily playing in the clinic room, and there are no developmental issues or family history of atopy.
Upon clinical examination, there is no respiratory distress, and the chest is clear bilaterally. All other systems appear normal. The following are the child's observations:
Heart Rate 125 beats per minute
Respiratory Rate 32 breaths per minute
Saturations 98% on air
Temperature 37.2ºC
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Commence paracetamol for the next 3 days then review
Correct Answer: Reassure the mother findings are normal
Explanation:A child under 1 typically has a normal respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute. The AKT may test knowledge of normal ranges, and sometimes the best course of action is to do nothing.
If a mother expresses concern about her child’s respiratory rate being higher than an older child’s, but the child’s rate is within the normal range for their age group (such as 34 breaths per minute), referral or medication would not be necessary and would be a misuse of resources.
During a physical examination of a child, certain vital signs are checked to ensure that they fall within normal ranges. These ranges vary depending on the age of the child. For example, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute is considered normal for a child under the age of one, while a heart rate of 80-100 beats per minute is normal for a child over the age of 12. Similarly, systolic blood pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats, and respiratory rate, which measures the number of breaths per minute, also have different normal ranges depending on the child’s age. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these normal ranges in order to identify any potential health concerns in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32 year old woman comes to your clinic 3 weeks after giving birth to a healthy baby girl. She is worried that her baby is not breastfeeding properly, unlike her previous two children. The baby seems to struggle with latching on and the mother experiences pain during attachment. You suspect that the baby may have tongue-tie. What is true about tongue-tie?
Your Answer: Most often resolves spontaneously by 2 weeks after birth
Correct Answer: Division of the tongue-tie is usually performed without anaesthesia
Explanation:Understanding Tongue-Tie
Tongue-tie, also known as ankyloglossia, is a congenital condition that is characterized by a short, thick lingual frenulum that restricts the movement of the tongue. The severity of the condition varies, with some cases being mild and others more severe. In mild cases, the tongue is only bound by a thin mucous membrane, while in more severe cases, the tongue is tethered to the floor of the mouth.
While some cases of tongue-tie are asymptomatic and can be managed with simple interventions such as breastfeeding advice and tongue exercises, others can cause significant problems with breastfeeding, speech, and oral hygiene. A tethered tongue can prevent the tongue from contacting the anterior palate, which can lead to open bite deformity and mandibular prognathism.
To prevent future problems with speech, swallowing, and feeding, many clinicians advocate for early surgical division of the lingual frenulum. This procedure, known as frenotomy, involves using sharp, blunt-ended scissors to divide the frenulum. In infants, the procedure is usually performed without anesthesia, although local anesthesia may be used in some cases. In older infants and children, general anesthesia is typically required.
Overall, understanding tongue-tie and its potential consequences is important for parents and healthcare providers alike. Early intervention can help prevent future problems and ensure that children are able to breastfeed, speak, and eat properly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old girl presents with rash and high fever.
A diagnosis of measles is suspected.
Which one of the following statements is true concerning measles infection?Your Answer: Erythromycin may shorten the duration of illness
Correct Answer: The erythematous maculopapular rash usually starts on the hands
Explanation:Measles: Key Points to Remember
– Prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles.
– Koplik spots are a unique symptom of measles.
– Erythromycin doesn’t reduce the duration of measles.
– The MMR vaccine is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age.
– The rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications, particularly in young children. It is important to remember that prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles, and erythromycin doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. One unique symptom of measles is the presence of Koplik spots, which are small white spots that appear on the inside of the mouth. The MMR vaccine is the most effective way to prevent measles and is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age. Finally, it is important to note that the rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old patient presents with diarrhoea and is examined to reveal dry mucous membranes. The caregiver reports a decrease in wet nappies. The medical team decides to administer oral rehydration therapy. What is the recommended amount to be given over a 4-hour period, in addition to the usual maintenance fluids?
Your Answer: 10 ml/kg
Correct Answer: 50 ml/kg
Explanation:Managing Diarrhoea and Vomiting in Children
Diarrhoea and vomiting are common in young children, with rotavirus being the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. The 2009 NICE guidelines provide recommendations for managing these symptoms in children. Diarrhoea typically lasts for 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks, while vomiting usually lasts for 1-2 days and stops within 3 days. When assessing hydration status, NICE suggests using normal, dehydrated, or shocked categories instead of the traditional mild, moderate, or severe categories.
Children younger than 1 year, especially those younger than 6 months, infants who were of low birth weight, and those who have passed six or more diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours or vomited three times or more in the past 24 hours are at an increased risk of dehydration. Infants who have stopped breastfeeding during the illness and children with signs of malnutrition are also at risk. Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration include jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, convulsions, and drowsiness or coma.
If clinical shock is suspected, children should be admitted for intravenous rehydration. For children with no evidence of dehydration, continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds, encourage fluid intake, and discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks. If dehydration is suspected, give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts. It is also important to continue breastfeeding and consider supplementing with usual fluids (including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks). Stool culture should be done in certain situations, such as when septicaemia is suspected or there is blood and/or mucous in the stool, or when the child is immunocompromised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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At what age do children receive their initial pertussis immunization?
Your Answer: At birth
Correct Answer: At one year
Explanation:Pertussis Immunisation for Infants and Pregnant Women
Young infants are most vulnerable to serious complications from pertussis, which is why children receive multiple doses of the vaccine starting at two months of age. The vaccine is given as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine and again before starting school. However, pregnant women are now also being immunised against pertussis in the later stages of pregnancy. This is to enable them to transfer a high level of antibodies across the placenta to their unborn child, providing protection against pertussis until the first dose of immunisation. By vaccinating pregnant women, we can help protect the most vulnerable members of our population from this potentially deadly disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Correct
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While working at an urgent care centre, a 3-year-old girl comes in with a typical barking cough of croup. As per the Wesley Croup Score, she has mild croup. After administering a dose of dexamethasone and observing her for a while, you discharge her. Her parents inquire if there are any remedies they can use at home to alleviate her symptoms. What suggestions should you offer to the parents?
Your Answer: Paracetamol or ibuprofen to control fever and pain
Explanation:When dealing with a child suffering from mild, moderate, or severe croup, it is recommended to administer a one-off dose of 0.15mg/kg of dexamethasone or 1-2 mg/kg of prednisolone as an alternative. It is important to note that steam inhalation and decongestants should not be recommended, as they are not effective in treating the barking cough associated with croup. Antibiotics are also not necessary, as croup is caused by a virus, typically parainfluenza. Inhaled salbutamol is not mentioned in the guidance.
Parents should be informed that croup is self-limiting and symptoms usually resolve within 48 hours, although they may last up to a week. Paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to control fever and pain, but over- or under-dressing a child with a fever should be avoided. Tepid sponging is not recommended, and antipyretic drugs should not be given solely to reduce body temperature. Adequate fluid intake should be ensured.
It is important to arrange a follow-up consultation within a few hours, either face-to-face or by telephone. Urgent medical advice should be sought if there is a progression from mild to moderate airways obstruction, if the child becomes toxic, or if the child becomes cyanosed, unusually sleepy, or struggles to breathe.
Parents should be informed that cough medicines, decongestants, and short-acting beta-agonists are not effective in treating croup, as it is usually caused by a viral illness and antibiotics are not necessary.
Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Correct
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A 6-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The infant was born at home in the presence of a midwife. The midwife is concerned about the appearance of the feet of the infant. Both feet are involved and appear turned inwards and downwards.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Talipes equinovarus
Explanation:Talipes equinovarus, also known as clubfoot, is a common birth defect that affects about 1 in every 1000 live births. It is characterized by a foot that points downwards at the ankle, with the midfoot deviating towards the midline and the first metatarsal pointing downwards. In most cases, it is a positional deformity that can be corrected with gentle passive dorsiflexion of the foot. However, in some cases, it is a fixed congenital deformity that may be associated with neuromuscular abnormalities such as cerebral palsy, spina bifida, or arthrogryposis. Treatment options depend on the degree of rigidity, associated abnormalities, and secondary muscular changes, and may involve conservative measures such as immobilization and manipulation or surgical correction.
Genu valgum, or knock-knee, is a condition in which the knees angle in and touch each other when the legs are straightened. It is commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 5 and often resolves naturally as the child grows.
Cerebral palsy is a neuromuscular abnormality that is only rarely associated with the presentation of talipes equinovarus.
Developmental dysplasia of the hips is a condition that affects the hips and should not affect the appearance of the feet. While there have been reports of an association between idiopathic congenital talipes equinovarus and developmental dysplasia of the hip, this link remains uncertain.
Metatarsus adductus, or pigeon-toed, is a congenital foot deformity in which the forefoot points inwards, forming a C shape. It has a similar incidence rate to clubfoot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy had a seizure associated with a fever of 38.2°C. He fully recovered and he was thought to have had a febrile convulsion. Now that he has had a seizure his parents are anxious about his future.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?Your Answer: A recurrent febrile seizure is suggestive of epilepsy
Correct Answer: He has only a small increase in risk of developing epilepsy
Explanation:Febrile Seizures: Risk Factors, Recurrence, Immunizations, and Management
Febrile seizures are common in young children and can be a cause of concern for parents. Here are some important points to keep in mind:
Risk Factors: The likelihood of epilepsy increases if the child has a complex febrile seizure (prolonged seizure, multiple seizures or seizure with focal features), if there is a neurological abnormality, if there is a family history of epilepsy and if the duration of fever was less than one hour before the seizure. Without these features, there is only a small increase in risk compared with the general population.
Recurrence: Recurrent febrile seizures occur in about 30% of cases. Risk factors for later recurrences of febrile seizures include onset before 18 months, a seizure with a lower temperature close to 38°C, a shorter duration of fever (less than one hour) before the seizure and a family history of febrile seizures.
Immunizations: Childhood immunizations should continue even if the febrile seizure followed an immunization. Immunization doesn’t increase the risk of further seizures.
Management: Antipyretic drugs may be given to reduce fever but there is no evidence they reduce the number of febrile seizures. Anticonvulsant drugs should not be routinely prescribed. There is no evidence that intellect is affected, even for children with complex febrile seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father. He has a history of asthma and is prescribed salbutamol 100 mcg prn and Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 100 mcg bd via a spacer. Despite the steroid inhaler, he is having to use salbutamol on a daily basis, especially in the morning or after physical activity. Today, his chest examination is normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?Your Answer: Increase her Clenil inhaler to 200mcg bd
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:For children between the ages of 5 and 16 who have asthma that is not being controlled by a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), it is recommended to add a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their asthma management plan.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.
For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to construct a tower using three blocks?
Your Answer: 2 years
Correct Answer: 18 months
Explanation:Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones
Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.
In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.
It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and feeling tired. He was seen in the clinic two weeks ago for a sore throat. During the examination, he has a sinus tachycardia, a pink rash in the form of rings on his trunk, and a systolic murmur.
What is the best diagnosis and treatment plan?Your Answer: She has scarlet fever and should start a prolonged course of phenoxymethylpenicillin
Correct Answer: She has rheumatic fever and should be admitted for appropriate treatment
Explanation:Misdiagnosis of a Heart Murmur: Understanding the Differences between Rheumatic Fever, Lyme Disease, HSP, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Scarlet Fever
A heart murmur can be a concerning symptom, but it is important to correctly diagnose the underlying condition. Rheumatic fever, Lyme disease, Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and scarlet fever can all present with a heart murmur, but each has distinct features that can help differentiate them.
Rheumatic fever requires the presence of recent streptococcal infection and the fulfilment of Jones criteria, which include major criteria such as carditis, arthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, subcutaneous nodules, and erythema marginatum, as well as minor criteria such as fever, arthralgia, raised ESR or CRP, and prolonged PR interval on an electrocardiogram.
Lyme disease presents with erythema migrans, arthralgia, and other symptoms depending on the stage of the disease, but a heart murmur is not a typical feature.
HSP is characterised by purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, orchitis, and nephritis.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is chronic arthritis occurring before the age of 16 years that lasts for at least six weeks in the absence of any other cause, and may involve few or many joints, with additional features in some subsets, but it should not present with a heart murmur.
Scarlet fever is characterised by a widespread red rash, fever, tachycardia, myalgia, and circumoral pallor, rather than joint pain.
In summary, a heart murmur can be a symptom of various conditions, but a thorough evaluation of other symptoms and criteria is necessary to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A woman presents with her child who has a congenital heart disease and was born prematurely at 34 weeks.
Which of these statements is true in this situation?Your Answer: Congenital heart disease is a contraindication for vaccination
Correct Answer: Live vaccines can be given at the same time
Explanation:Vaccination for Children with Congenital Heart Diseases
Children with congenital heart diseases should be vaccinated in most situations. There is no contraindication to vaccination unless the child is actively febrile, and vaccination should not be deferred. Even if a child is born prematurely and not adjusted to the predicted date of birth, they should still be vaccinated per the normal schedule. Live vaccines, such as the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR), are given together and do not seem to reduce the immune response. However, single component vaccines for the MMR are not available through the NHS. It is important to prioritize vaccination for children with congenital heart diseases to protect them from preventable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to an evening surgery after swallowing a battery from a watch. On examination, she is well, with no drooling, respiratory symptoms or abdominal tenderness.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Prescribe laxatives and no further action
Correct Answer: Arrange immediate admission for investigation and possible endoscopy
Explanation:The Dangers of Swallowing Button Batteries: Why Immediate Action is Necessary
Button batteries are small, but they can cause serious harm if swallowed. These batteries contain metals and concentrated solutions of caustic electrolytes, which can damage the oesophageal wall if left stuck for even just two hours. Therefore, it is essential to arrange immediate admission for investigation and possible endoscopy if a child has swallowed a button battery.
Prescribing laxatives and taking no further action is not appropriate for a high-risk foreign body like a button battery. Similarly, asking the mother to collect all stools and return in 48 hours if the battery doesn’t pass is not recommended. Instead, it may be appropriate to observe asymptomatic children for the passage of the battery in the stool, but only if certain conditions are met.
Reassuring the mother that no action is necessary is also not appropriate, as symptoms may still develop even if the child is asymptomatic. Referring for an abdominal X-ray on the next day is also not recommended, as urgent chest and abdominal X-rays will be carried out in the hospital.
In conclusion, immediate action is necessary when a child swallows a button battery. Delaying treatment can lead to serious harm, and it is important to seek medical attention as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You are requested by the practice nurse to assess a mother who has brought in her 12-week-old baby who appears unwell. The mother is concerned because the baby seems to have a fever.
Upon examination, you observe that the baby has an upper respiratory tract infection. The family members have recently had a cold. Although the baby is pyrexial at 37.8°C, you cannot detect any indications of lower respiratory tract infection.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this baby?Your Answer: If he suffers febrile fits then he is predisposed to adult epilepsy
Correct Answer: The mother should be advised to give the child paracetamol for as long as it appears distressed
Explanation:Fever Management in Children
A fever over 38°C is an indication for admission. However, antipyretics should only be administered if the child appears distressed by the fever, rather than for the sole aim of reducing body temperature. It is important to note that antipyretic agents do not prevent febrile convulsions and should not be used specifically for this purpose. When using paracetamol or ibuprofen in children with fever, it is recommended to continue only as long as the child appears distressed and to consider changing to the other agent if the distress is not alleviated. It is not recommended to give both agents simultaneously, and only consider alternating these agents if the distress persists or recurs before the next dose is due.
In most cases, fever of this nature is viral in origin, and specific antibacterial intervention is not required. Cold sponging is also not effective in reducing fever. It is important to note that while a significant percentage of children suffer from febrile fits, these do not usually predispose the patient to the development of epilepsy later. The risk is very small, one to two in one hundred in the general population and one in fifty for the febrile convulsion group. Proper management of fever in children is crucial to ensure their well-being and prevent any unnecessary complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 32
Correct
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Which patient among these needs diagnostic evaluation?
Your Answer: A 15-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea who has normal secondary sexual characteristics
Explanation:Puberty and Menarche
Puberty typically starts around the age of 10, with menarche occurring between 11 and 15 years old. If there are no signs of secondary sexual characteristic development by the age of 14, it may be necessary to investigate. However, if other secondary sexual characteristics are developing normally, it is reasonable to wait until the age of 16 before considering further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 33
Correct
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A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic with a three day history of noisy breathing, coryza, reduced feeding, and increased fussiness. What signs would prompt you to consider admitting the infant?
Your Answer: Feeding less than 50% of normal
Explanation:If a child with bronchiolitis displays any high risk signs, it is important to admit them for support with feeding to prevent dehydration. The NICE CKS provides a comprehensive list of these signs, which include a respiratory rate exceeding 60 per minute, intermittent apnoea, grunting, moderate or severe chest in-drawing, cyanosis, pale, ashen, mottled or blue skin color, lack of response to social cues, inability to be roused or stay awake, and appearing ill. Reduced skin turgor is also a sign of dehydration to watch out for.
Understanding Bronchiolitis
Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.
The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.
Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.
The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is least commonly associated with rickets?
Your Answer: Harrison's sulcus
Correct Answer: Reduced serum alkaline phosphatase
Explanation:Understanding Rickets
Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition is called osteomalacia.
There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and a lack of sunlight.
Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as a rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, craniotabes (soft skull bones in early life), and Harrison’s sulcus.
To diagnose rickets, doctors may check for low vitamin D levels, reduced serum calcium, and raised alkaline phosphatase. Treatment typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
Overall, understanding rickets and its causes can help individuals take steps to prevent this condition and ensure proper bone development and growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old mother of three sons brings her 18-month-old youngest son to the clinic concerned about his development.
Which of the following should he be able to perform by this age?Your Answer: Have a vocabulary of 25 words
Correct Answer: Can walk unaided
Explanation:Childhood Development Milestones
At around 16 months, a child should be able to walk without assistance, with the average age for achieving this milestone being 12 months. Additionally, they should be able to assist with dressing themselves at this age. However, building a tower of four cubes and scribbling with a pencil are not expected until around two years old. By this age, the child should also understand the meaning of no and be able to appropriately state mama and dada. These are important developmental milestones to keep in mind as a child grows and develops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 36
Incorrect
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During a routine examination at 4-6 weeks, a male infant is discovered to have an undescended left testicle that cannot be felt in the scrotum or inguinal canal. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Outpatient referral to urology to be seen within 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Review at 3 months
Explanation:If the testicle remains undescended after 3 months, it is recommended to consider referral for orchidopexy. For further information, please refer to the CKS guidelines.
Undescended testis is a condition that affects approximately 2-3% of male infants born at term, but is more common in premature babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, it is recommended to consider referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is important to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her father. For the past 4 days she has been experiencing a sticky discharge from both eyes upon waking up. Upon examination, there is some crusting around the eyelid margins and the sclera are slightly pink. The father inquires if his daughter should stay home from preschool. What is the best answer to give?
Response:Your Answer: He can return to nursery if he has been using antibiotic eye drops for the past 24 hours
Correct Answer: He doesn't need to be kept off nursery
Explanation:Although nurseries and schools may provide contradictory advice, the guidelines from the Health Protection Agency are unambiguous in stating that children do not require exclusion. Providing parents with a copy of these guidelines to present to their childcare provider can be beneficial in certain situations.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Baby Oliver has been brought for numerous appointments since he was born, with symptoms of colic. He is now on simethicone drops. His mum, who was previously exclusively breastfeeding, has just introduced a bottle of formula in the evening, and Oliver has now developed a rash. You suspect a possible allergy to the formula and consider prescribing a hypoallergenic infant formula for Oliver, along with some emollient and steroid cream. What other treatments should you consider prescribing for Oliver today?
Your Answer: Lactulose
Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D for mum
Explanation:It is recommended to consider prescribing calcium supplements and vitamin D for breastfeeding mothers whose babies have or are suspected to have CMPI. This is to prevent deficiency while they exclude dairy from their diet, which puts them at risk of deficiency. Soya milk is not advised for infants due to its phyto-oestrogen content, and lactase enzyme products are not relevant as lactose intolerance is a different condition. Lactulose is also not indicated based on the given history.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 39
Correct
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For which patients is pertussis vaccination not recommended?
Your Answer: Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy
Explanation:The pertussis vaccination, typically administered as part of the DTaP or Tdap vaccines, is crucial in preventing whooping cough, which can be particularly severe in infants and children. However, there are specific situations where the pertussis vaccine may not be recommended.
- Child with Spina Bifida:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: Children with spina bifida do not have contraindications for the pertussis vaccine. In fact, they should receive all standard childhood immunizations, including the DTaP vaccine, unless there are other specific contraindications not related to spina bifida.
- Breastfeeding Mother:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: Breastfeeding mothers are encouraged to receive the Tdap vaccine, especially postpartum if they did not receive it during pregnancy. This helps to protect both the mother and the infant by reducing the risk of transmission.
- Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is contraindicated.
- Explanation: Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy or progressive encephalopathy should not receive the pertussis component of the vaccine until the condition is stabilised. This is due to the risk of vaccine-related exacerbations of the neurological condition.
- HIV Infected Individual:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: HIV-infected individuals, including children, should receive the pertussis vaccine according to the standard immunization schedule, unless they are severely immunocompromised. The DTaP vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, making it safe for use in immunocompromised individuals.
- Pregnant Woman:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: Pregnant women are specifically recommended to receive the Tdap vaccine during each pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation. This practice helps provide passive immunity to the newborn and reduces the risk of pertussis transmission.
- Child with Spina Bifida:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father.
He has symptoms of a moderate depression and has been recommended pharmacological therapy by another health professional. You refer him to the local young people's mental health service for further treatment. His father asks about medication, as he is on citalopram himself for depression.
What is the recommended first line antidepressant medication for adolescents with moderate depression?Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for Children and Young People with Depression
Children and young people who present with moderate to severe depression should be assessed by a CAMHS team. The first-line treatment for depression in this population is fluoxetine, as it is the only antidepressant for which the benefits outweigh the risks. According to NICE NG134, combined therapy with fluoxetine and psychological therapy should be considered as an alternative to psychological therapy followed by combined therapy for initial treatment of moderate to severe depression in young people aged 12-18 years. Patients taking St John’s wort should be advised to discontinue it when starting antidepressants. Tricyclics should not be used, and citalopram and sertraline are considered suitable second-line treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting at night. He is wetting the bed almost every night. Despite trying to use the toilet before bedtime, limiting fluid intake before bedtime, and implementing a reward system for dry nights, there has been no improvement. What should be the next course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Increase frequency of toileting before bed time
Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:If lifestyle measures and a reward chart have not helped with nocturnal enuresis in a child over the age of 5, the next step would be to consider an enuresis alarm or desmopressin. As the child in this scenario is 6 years-old, the first-line treatment would be to try an enuresis alarm before considering other options. Desmopressin may be used first-line for children over the age of 7 who do not wish to use an enuresis alarm or if a short term solution is needed.
Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.
The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his father. His father reports that he has been eating less and refusing food for the past few weeks. Despite this his father has noticed that his abdomen is distended and he has developed a 'beer belly'. For the past year he has opened his bowels around once every other day, passing a stool of 'normal' consistency. There are no urinary symptoms. On examination he is on the 50th centile for height and weight. His abdomen is soft but slightly distended and a non-tender ballotable mass can be felt on the left side. His father has tried lactulose but there has no significant improvement. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Prescribe a Microlax enema
Correct Answer: Speak to a local paediatrician
Explanation:The evidence for the history of constipation is not very compelling. It is considered normal for a child to have a bowel movement of normal consistency every other day. However, the crucial aspect of this situation is identifying the abnormal examination finding – a palpable mass accompanied by abdominal distension. While an adult with such a red flag symptom would be expedited, it is more appropriate to consult with a pediatrician to determine the most appropriate referral pathway, which would likely involve a clinic review within the same week.
Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.
If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.
Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 43
Incorrect
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What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and 16?
Your Answer: Pertussis
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza B
Explanation:Recommended Vaccinations for Adolescents
A booster vaccination for tetanus and diphtheria is required for adolescents between the ages of 14 and 16. It is recommended that these boosters be administered every 10 years thereafter. In some countries, a second dose of the MMR vaccine is given at age 12. The BCG vaccine is not routinely given, but is offered to individuals who are at risk. It is important for adolescents to stay up-to-date on their vaccinations to protect themselves and those around them from preventable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl has recently been seen by the dermatologists.
She had some scalp scrapings and hair samples sent to the laboratory for analysis following a clinical diagnosis of tinea capitis. The laboratory results confirmed the diagnosis of tinea capitis and the dermatologists faxed through a letter asking you to prescribe griseofulvin suspension at a dose of 12 mg/kg once daily.
The child weighs 20 kg. Griseofulvin suspension is dispensed at a concentration of 125 mg/5 ml.
What is the correct dosage of griseofulvin in millilitres to prescribe?Your Answer: 12 ml
Correct Answer: 9 ml
Explanation:Calculation of Griseofulvin Dosage
When calculating the dosage of Griseofulvin for a patient, it is important to consider their weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. For example, if a patient weighs 15 kg and the recommended dose is 15 mg/kg OD, then the total dosage would be 225 mg.
Griseofulvin is available in a concentration of 125 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 25 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, divide the total dosage (225 mg) by the concentration (25 mg/ml), which equals 9 ml. Therefore, the correct dosage for this patient would be 9 ml OD. It is important to carefully calculate and administer the correct dosage to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 45
Incorrect
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You are working in a Saturday morning clinic and a mother brings in her 10-year-old daughter who has developed new pustular, honey-coloured crusted lesions over her chin. She is otherwise healthy with normal vital signs and no evidence of lymphadenopathy on examination. She has no known allergies to any medications and is usually in good health.
You diagnose localised non-bullous impetigo.
The daughter is scheduled to go on a field trip to the zoo the next day and is very excited about it. The mother asks if it is safe for her daughter to go on the field trip.
What is your plan for managing this situation?Your Answer: Arrange an urgent outpatient dermatology appointment
Correct Answer: Prescribe topical hydrogen peroxide 1% cream and advise them that the child should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed
Explanation:Referral or admission is not necessary for this straightforward primary care case, even if there is suspicion or confirmation of fusidic acid resistance. However, prescribing topical antibiotics is an option. It is important to advise the patient that he cannot attend school or go on his school trip until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment or until the lesions have crusted and healed.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A concerned father brings his 1-week-old infant to your clinic for a routine check-up. During the examination, you notice bilateral undescended testes. The father is worried and asks what should be done next, in accordance with Public Health England's guidelines for newborn screening.
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Refer the patient to a paediatrician to be seen within 4 months
Correct Answer: Refer the patient to a paediatrician to be seen within 24-hours
Explanation:Newborns who are found to have bilateral undescended testes during their initial examination should be urgently reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours, as per the current guidelines from Public Health England. This is crucial as bilateral undescended testes may indicate underlying endocrine disorders or ambiguous genitalia, and early intervention can help prevent complications such as infertility, torsion, and testicular cancer.
It is not appropriate to monitor bilateral undescended testes in primary care, unlike unilateral undescended testes which may be monitored. Waiting for 4 months, 12 months, or 24 months is too long and can increase the risk of complications.
Arranging an ultrasound and waiting for the results is also not appropriate as it can take too much time. Urgent referral to a paediatrician is necessary to ensure timely diagnosis and management.
Undescended testis is a condition that affects approximately 2-3% of male infants born at term, but is more common in premature babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, it is recommended to consider referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is important to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 47
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 6-year-old male with no significant medical history who has presented with lower abdominal pain and urinary frequency.
Urine dipstick testing is positive for nitrites and shows 2+ leucocytes. He has a low grade fever but doesn't require hospital admission. You decide to treat him with a course of trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection.
He weighs 22 kilograms and trimethoprim should be prescribed at a dose of 4 mg/kg (maximum 200 mg) twice daily. Trimethoprim suspension is dispensed at a concentration of 50 mg/5 ml.
What is the correct dosage in millilitres to be prescribed?Your Answer: 4 ml BD
Correct Answer: 8 ml BD
Explanation:Calculating the Correct Dose of Trimethoprim for a Child
When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dose based on their weight. In this case, the child weighs 20 kg and requires a dose of 4 mg/kg of trimethoprim twice daily. This equates to a total daily dose of 80 mg.
The trimethoprim solution available is 50 mg/5 ml, which can be simplified to 10 mg in 1 ml. To calculate the correct dose, we need to determine how many milliliters of the solution contain 80 mg of trimethoprim.
By dividing 80 mg by 10 mg/ml, we get a total of 8 ml. Therefore, the child should take 8 ml of the trimethoprim solution twice daily to receive the correct dose. It is important to always double-check calculations and measurements to ensure the safety and effectiveness of medication administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which of the following congenital infections is most commonly associated with sensorineural hearing loss in newborns?
Your Answer: Toxoplasma gondii
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:The condition known as congenital rubella can lead to both sensorineural deafness and congenital cataracts.
Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus
Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 49
Correct
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What is the accurate statement about meningitis in newborn infants?
Your Answer: It always presents as a febrile illness
Explanation:Sepsis in Newborns: Apnoeic Episodes and Potential Consequences
Sepsis is a common issue in newborns, often presenting as apnoeic episodes. In the initial stages, the fontanelle may appear normal. The most frequent cause of sepsis in newborns is group B Streptococcus, which can be acquired during or after delivery. Unfortunately, the mortality rate for infants with sepsis is between 5-15%. Even those who survive may experience long-term consequences such as learning difficulties, speech problems, visual impairment, or neural deafness. Additionally, meningomyelocele is a risk factor for the introduction of meningeal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 50
Incorrect
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For individuals with Trisomy 21, what is the most prevalent congenital heart defect?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Congenital Heart Disease in Trisomy 21
Congenital heart disease is a common condition among individuals born with Trisomy 21. Approximately 50% of people with this genetic disorder have some form of heart defect. The most frequent defects are atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot, and atrial septal defect.
Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common type of heart defect in Trisomy 21, followed by ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus. Tetralogy of Fallot and atrial septal defect are less common but still occur in a significant number of cases. It is important for individuals with Trisomy 21 to receive regular cardiac evaluations and monitoring to ensure early detection and treatment of any heart defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 51
Correct
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You see a 4-year-old boy with his mother. She reported that he slipped while being bathed and hit his head on the side of the bathtub. She reports he cried afterwards but returned to normal soon after. He had no other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of consciousness, or drowsiness. The examination was normal.
Which of the following features would alert you most to the possibility of child maltreatment?Your Answer: A delayed presentation to healthcare services
Explanation:Signs of Child Maltreatment in Healthcare Settings
Young children may exhibit shyness and clinginess to their parents during consultations, which is a normal behavior. However, excessive clinginess may be a sign of child maltreatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this possibility and to observe the child’s behavior during consultations.
Children may also be difficult to console during illness or after an injury, which is not necessarily an indicator of maltreatment. However, healthcare providers should be alert to any unusual patterns of presentation, such as frequent attendance or unusually late presentations, which may suggest the possibility of maltreatment.
Head injuries are common in children due to their high activity levels and poor sense of danger. Healthcare providers should be aware of the possibility of maltreatment if the child presents with repeated head injuries.
Finally, failure to ensure access to appropriate medical care, such as missing hospital appointments or not giving essential medications, should also raise suspicion of maltreatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 52
Incorrect
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You have been informed by the local hospital that a 5-year-old boy from your practice has been admitted with definite meningococcal septicaemia. There have not been any previous cases. You need to organise appropriate prophylaxis.
What is the most appropriate group to treat in this case?Your Answer: All possible contacts from the past week
Correct Answer: Household members only
Explanation:Understanding Close Contacts and Prophylaxis for Meningococcal Disease
Meningococcal disease is a serious bacterial infection that can cause meningitis and sepsis. Close contacts of a patient with meningococcal disease are at risk of contracting the infection, particularly those who live in the same household. Prophylaxis is recommended for these individuals to reduce the risk of transmission.
According to Public Health England, other close contacts who may require prophylaxis include those who have slept in the same house as the patient, spent several hours a day in the house, had intimate contact (such as kissing), shared a room or flat, provided mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, or attended the same childminder as the patient.
It is important to note that prophylaxis is not necessary for all possible contacts from the past week. The risk of transmission is highest within the household and decreases as one moves further away from the patient. School, nursery, and playgroup contacts, as well as medical staff who treated the patient, may not require prophylaxis unless they had close contact with the patient.
Overall, understanding who qualifies as a close contact and when prophylaxis is necessary can help prevent the spread of meningococcal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 10-week-old child is about to receive vaccination with pertussis. You are assessing his suitability for vaccination.
In which of the following situations should the vaccine be postponed?Your Answer: His 4-year-old sister has epilepsy
Correct Answer: He is currently suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection and fever
Explanation:Understanding Contraindications and Postponements for Vaccines
This question requires careful reading of the introduction to determine the appropriate answer. The focus is on situations where the vaccine may need to be postponed rather than being completely contraindicated. While a history of fever is not a contraindication, if the patient is acutely unwell with a fever, it would be appropriate to delay the vaccine to avoid confusing the diagnosis of any acute illness. Allergy to egg protein, forceps delivery, and family history of epilepsy are not contraindications, while convulsions within seven days of the first vaccine are. This question tests your understanding and practical application of the guidance rather than memorization. Remember to read carefully and consider the specific circumstances before administering any vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 54
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl comes in for a follow-up appointment. She was diagnosed with asthma two years ago by her primary care physician. She is currently taking a salbutamol inhaler, using 2 puffs 3 times a day, and a low-dose beclomethasone inhaler. She also takes oral montelukast. Despite this treatment, she still experiences a nighttime cough and needs to use her blue inhaler most days. Unfortunately, the addition of montelukast has not provided much relief. On examination today, her chest is clear with no wheezing and a near-normal peak flow.
What is the next step in managing her asthma?Your Answer: Stop montelukast and add salmeterol
Explanation:For children between the ages of 5 and 16 with asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA), low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), and a leukotriene receptor antagonist, it is recommended to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) to the treatment plan and discontinue the use of the leukotriene receptor antagonist.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.
For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 55
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy has had a limp for several weeks. His parents do not recall any injury or recent ill health. His left ankle is swollen and cannot be moved, although it is not especially painful. His symptoms are particularly bad in the mornings, but his gait improves during the day. He has not had any other symptoms.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis: Classification and Differential Diagnosis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), also known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, is a chronic rheumatologic disease that affects children and is one of the most common chronic diseases of childhood. It is an autoimmune, non-infective, inflammatory joint disease that is defined as joint inflammation presenting in children under the age of 16 years and persisting for at least six weeks, with other causes excluded.
There are seven subsets of JIA with differing clinical courses, classified by the International League of Associations for Rheumatology criteria. Oligoarticular JIA affects young girls and usually presents with asymmetrical joint involvement, while polyarticular JIA can be RF-negative or RF-positive and affects young or older girls with symmetrical stiffness, swelling, and pain in several joints. Systemic-onset JIA presents with arthritis in one or more joints, daily high spiking fevers, and a salmon-colored rash, while enthesitis-related JIA affects boys over the age of 6 years with asymmetrical arthritis, enthesitis, and sacro-iliac joint involvement. Psoriatic JIA presents with arthritis and a history of psoriasis, nail changes, and/or dactylitis, while undifferentiated JIA may present with features of more than one subtype.
Other conditions, such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia, septic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and rheumatic fever, should be included in the differential diagnosis of JIA. It is important to understand the classification and differential diagnosis of JIA to provide appropriate management and treatment for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl presents as febrile. On examination, there are no focal symptoms to suggest the site of an infection.
According to NICE guidelines, which of the following is most appropriate in regards for the need for urgent admission to hospital?Your Answer: Fails to respond normally (ie partial response only) to social cues
Correct Answer: Continuous cry
Explanation:Assessing Febrile Children: Understanding Risk Signs
When assessing a febrile child, it is important to understand the different risk signs and their implications. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, a continuous cry or a weak/high-pitched cry is a red, high-risk sign. On the other hand, a drowsy child who awakens quickly is a green, low-risk sign, while a child who requires prolonged stimulation to wake up is an amber, intermediate-risk sign. Similarly, decreased activity and partial response to social cues are also amber signs. It is important to provide parents and/or carers with a safety net or refer to a specialist for further assessment in such cases. Failure to respond at all to social cues or appearing ill enough to worry the doctor are red, high-risk signs that may require hospital admission. Understanding these risk signs can help healthcare providers make informed decisions and provide appropriate care for febrile children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 57
Correct
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At what age would a typical child develop a vocabulary of 200 words?
Your Answer: 2 ½ years
Explanation:Developmental Milestones in Speech and Hearing
As children grow and develop, they reach various milestones in their speech and hearing abilities. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s progress and can help parents and caregivers identify any potential issues early on.
At three months old, a baby will begin to quieten down when they hear their parents’ voices and turn towards sounds. They may also start to make high-pitched squeals. By six months, they will begin to produce double syllables such as adah and erleh.
At nine months, a baby will typically say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they will know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.
Between 12 and 15 months, a baby will know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they will be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. They will also have a vocabulary of around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old.
At three years old, a child will begin to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They will also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they will start asking why, when, and how questions.
Overall, these milestones provide a helpful guide for parents and caregivers to track a child’s speech and hearing development. If there are any concerns, it is important to seek advice from a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 58
Correct
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A toddler is brought in for a development review. The child has a vocabulary of approximately 50 single words, some two-word phrases and many of the words can be easily understood by strangers.
Which of the following is the most likely age range for this child if development is normal?Your Answer: 18-24 months
Explanation:Speech Development Milestones in Children: From 12-42 Months
Speech development in children is a gradual process that varies from child to child. It starts with responding to sounds and progresses to babbling and saying simple words like mama and dada. By 18-24 months, children have a vocabulary of 50 or more words and can use some two-word phrases. By 24-30 months, their vocabulary expands to about 300 words, including names. Between two and three years, children can form sentences of three to five words and use pronouns, plurals, and past tense. By three to four years, they can use three to six words per sentence, ask and answer questions, and tell stories. It’s important to note that speech delay affects between 6% and 19% of children, and early detection and intervention can prevent educational, emotional, and social problems. Serious causes of delayed speech include deafness, learning disability, and autism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy has been unwell, looks pale, is anorexic and has lost weight. He has abdominal pain and a pain in his leg and a limp. You are concerned about his appearance and worry he may have a malignancy.
Which is the feature that will MOST LIKELY be present if he has a neuroblastoma?Your Answer: Horner syndrome
Correct Answer: Abdominal mass
Explanation:Neuroblastoma: Symptoms and Presenting Features
Neuroblastoma is a solid neoplasm that commonly affects children and arises from sympathetic nervous tissue. The most common symptom is an abdominal mass, which is caused by the tumor location in the adrenal gland. Other symptoms may include bone pain, limping, and anemia due to marrow infiltration. Hypertension is a rare finding, but it can occur due to renal artery compression. Tumors that arise from the thoracic sympathetic chain can produce Horner syndrome, which is characterized by meiosis, ptosis, and absence of sweating of the face. Limb weakness and bladder and bowel problems can occur if the tumor grows through the spinal foramina into the spinal canal, compressing the spinal cord. Periorbital bruising may also be a presenting feature if there is metastatic disease in the orbit. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and to seek medical attention if they occur, as early detection and treatment can improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male visits his GP clinic as he is preparing to start university in a few months. His friends have advised him to get vaccinated before he begins. He is of 'White British' ethnicity, has a clean medical history, and will be studying English at the University of Manchester. Which vaccine should he receive as part of the standard NHS immunisation program?
Your Answer: Human papillomavirus
Correct Answer: Meningitis ACWY
Explanation:Due to a recent surge in meningitis W cases, the NHS is now advising all incoming students to receive the meningitis ACWY vaccine.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped from the 75th centile weight at birth to the 9th. She was born abroad; the results of any neonatal screening are unavailable. Since her arrival in this country, she has been prescribed antibiotics for several chest infections. Between attacks, she is well. The mother worries that she might have asthma. There is no family history of note.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Asthma
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a child with faltering growth and respiratory symptoms
Cystic fibrosis, coeliac disease, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, asthma, and hypothyroidism are among the possible conditions that may cause faltering growth and respiratory symptoms in children. In the case of cystic fibrosis, dysfunction of the exocrine glands affects multiple organs, leading to chronic respiratory infection, pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, and related complications. The diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is often made in infancy, but can vary in age and may involve meconium ileus or recurrent chest infections. Coeliac disease, on the other hand, typically develops after weaning onto cereals that contain gluten, and may cause faltering growth but not respiratory symptoms. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency, which can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease later in life, is less likely in a young child. Asthma, a common condition that affects the airways and causes wheeze or recurrent nocturnal cough, usually doesn’t affect growth. Hypothyroidism, a disorder of thyroid hormone deficiency, is screened for in newborns but doesn’t cause respiratory symptoms after birth. Therefore, based on the combination of faltering growth and respiratory symptoms, cystic fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 62
Incorrect
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As a healthcare professional working in a GP practice, your next patient is a thirteen-month-old boy who has not yet started walking. His mother is worried because he has had six nosebleeds in the past two weeks, which have stopped on their own after basic first aid.
The child's medical history is unremarkable, and he has no known allergies or regular medications. During the examination, you observe a lethargic-looking child with a normal heart rate and tympanic temperature. Upon inspecting his nose, there are no visible abnormalities, and his tonsils are slightly enlarged.
What is the most appropriate course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer: Topical neomycin/chlorhexidine ('Naseptin') cream
Correct Answer: Fast-track referral to Paediatrics
Explanation:Understanding Epistaxis in Children
Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, are common in children and can be caused by various factors. The most common cause is nose picking, followed by the presence of a foreign body, upper respiratory tract infections, and allergic rhinitis. However, it is important to note that children under the age of 2 years should be referred to a healthcare professional as epistaxis is rare in this age group and may be a result of trauma or bleeding disorders. It is crucial to understand the underlying cause of epistaxis in children to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Proper education and guidance on how to prevent nose picking and the importance of seeking medical attention for any underlying conditions can help reduce the incidence of epistaxis in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 63
Incorrect
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What is a contraindication to rotavirus immunisation that the mother should be aware of during the routine six week check on her newborn baby?
Your Answer: Infants under 24 weeks of age
Correct Answer: Infants with an egg allergy
Explanation:Rotavirus Immunisation Programme
The Rotavirus Immunisation Programme aims to prevent severe gastroenteritis caused by rotavirus by administering two doses of Rotarix® vaccine orally via a special applicator. However, the Department of Health Green Book advises that Rotarix® use is contraindicated in infants with certain conditions, such as a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of rotavirus vaccine or any components of the vaccine, a previous history of intussusception, and infants over 24 weeks of age. Additionally, infants with severe combined immune-deficiency, malformation of the gastrointestinal tract, and rare hereditary problems of fructose intolerance, glucose-galactose malabsorption, or sucrase-isomaltase insufficiency should not receive the vaccine.
Research has suggested that Rotarix® may be associated with a small increased risk of intussusception within seven days of vaccination, particularly in infants with a previous history of intussusception. The annual incidence of intussusception in the UK is 120 cases per 100,000 children below the age of 1, with a peak at 5 months of age. To minimize the risk of temporal association between rotavirus vaccination and intussusception, the first dose of the vaccine should not be administered after 15 weeks of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 64
Incorrect
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Which statement about childhood vaccination is accurate?
Your Answer: Vaccines must never be given to pregnant women
Correct Answer: Children with stable neurological disorders should be immunised as per schedule
Explanation:Important Information about Vaccinations
Vaccinations are an essential part of maintaining good health and preventing the spread of diseases. The MMR vaccine, for example, should be given twice – once at around 1 year and then repeated as a Preschool booster – to improve immune response. On the other hand, live polio vaccination has been replaced by an injectable inactive polio vaccine.
It is crucial to maintain the cold chain for vaccines, as they can be damaged by freezing. Additionally, while vaccinations can be given to pregnant women on occasion, live vaccines are contraindicated. It is also important to note that children with stable neurological conditions like spina bifida should be vaccinated as per schedule.
Overall, vaccinations are a vital tool in protecting ourselves and our communities from the spread of diseases. By following the recommended vaccination schedule and guidelines, we can ensure that we are doing our part in promoting good health and preventing the spread of illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl comes to your clinic after her mother notices a lump in her abdomen while getting her dressed. During the examination, you find a mass in her left upper quadrant. You collect a urine sample, which shows positive results for blood on dipstick testing. Other than that, she appears to be healthy.
What is the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Constipation
Correct Answer: Wilms’ tumour
Explanation:Distinguishing Childhood Abdominal Malignancies: Wilms’ Tumour, Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, and More
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is the most common abdominal malignancy in children. It arises from undifferentiated mesodermal cells and typically presents as an asymptomatic abdominal mass in children under five years old. However, it can also occur in adults. Other symptoms may include abdominal pain, haematuria, urinary infection, hypertension, or pyrexia. With treatment, over 90% of children with Wilms’ tumour survive into adulthood.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma, on the other hand, is a rare malignancy in children. It typically presents with lymphadenopathy, most commonly in the cervical region, but hepatosplenomegaly may also occur.
Constipation, hepatoblastoma, and splenomegaly are not likely diagnoses in this scenario. Constipated children typically have infrequent stools and a palpable faecal mass in the lower left abdomen. Hepatoblastoma is a rare malignancy that presents with a mass on the right side of the abdomen, and splenomegaly is not typically associated with haematuria.
In summary, distinguishing between childhood abdominal malignancies such as Wilms’ tumour and Hodgkin’s lymphoma requires careful consideration of the presenting symptoms and physical examination findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). His parents want to know what is causing these infections.
What is the most common cause of this problem in a child of this age?Your Answer: Renal calculi
Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)
Explanation:Pediatric Urinary Tract Conditions: Causes and Symptoms
Recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions that lead to urinary stasis. One of the most common causes is vesicoureteric reflux (VUR), which occurs in 41% of cases. VUR is found in about 1% of normal infants and can resolve over several years, but it is a risk factor for pyelonephritis and renal scarring. Other causes of recurrent urinary infections include renal calculi, obstructive uropathy, poor urine flow, impaired immune or renal function, and sexual abuse.
Posterior urethral valves, a less common condition than VUR, can cause urinary tract infections, diurnal enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Bilateral polycystic kidney disease, which rarely causes major symptoms during childhood, can lead to progressive kidney failure and present with loin pain, haematuria, UTIs, and stones. Neurogenic bladder, caused by spina bifida, spinal trauma, or tumour, can cause urine leakage and retention, and is less common than VUR. Renal calculi, caused by metabolic abnormalities or unknown factors, are less common in childhood than VUR and may present with urinary infections.
In summary, recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own set of symptoms and risk factors. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and ensure proper kidney function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 67
Incorrect
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You visit a 28-year-old lady at home following the delivery of a healthy baby a few days earlier. At the end of the consultation, she asks you about immunisations.
At what age would her child receive an orally administered vaccine as part of the UK immunisation schedule if they were 6 months old?Your Answer: 12 weeks
Correct Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks
Explanation:Route and Timing of Immunisations in the UK
The UK routine immunisation schedule includes various vaccines that are administered through different routes. One of these is the rotavirus vaccine, which is the only vaccine given orally. It is given to infants at 8 and 12 weeks of age. On the other hand, the polio vaccine used to be administered orally in the past, but it is no longer part of the routine UK immunisation schedule. It is important to follow the recommended route and timing of immunisations to ensure their effectiveness in protecting against diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 68
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl, who has been wetting the bed at night attends surgery today with her father, as her mother is at work. Her father is worried because it was also an issue for her older sister, who is 10-years-old and she is prescribed desmopressin. The girl in front of you is otherwise well and her bowels open regularly. An examination is unremarkable and she has a soft non-tender abdomen.
What recommendations would you make?Your Answer: Reassurance and general advice
Explanation:Reassurance and advice can be provided to manage nocturnal enuresis in children under the age of 5 years.
Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.
The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about the use of desmopressin for bedwetting in children is accurate?
Your Answer: Intranasal preparations should be used first-line
Correct Answer: They can be used to gain short-term control in children over the age of 7 years
Explanation:Fluid intake should be limited for children from 1 hour before to 8 hours after administering desmopressin.
Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.
The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl comes to see you with her father. She is known to have a mild learning disability but he is now more concerned about her behaviour.
She tends to speak very little and when she does it is in a monotonic way. She doesn't seem to understand jokes. She spends a lot of time alone and rarely seeks out the company of others. He says he finds it difficult to engage her in play; she just wants to play alone with her dolls.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Autism
Correct Answer: Down syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a condition that is often accompanied by a learning disability. Children with ASD typically experience difficulties with social communication, interaction, and imagination. These challenges can manifest in a variety of ways, such as difficulty making eye contact, trouble understanding social cues, and a lack of interest in imaginative play.
Despite the challenges that come with ASD, there have been significant advances in diagnosis and evaluation in recent years. With early intervention and support, children with ASD can learn to navigate the world around them and lead fulfilling lives. It is important for parents, caregivers, and educators to understand the unique needs of children with ASD and provide them with the resources and support they need to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.
On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.
What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?Your Answer: Refer the child to hospital for paediatric assessment as they are under 12-months of age
Correct Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice
Explanation:Managing Gastroenteritis in Children
Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.
Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 72
Incorrect
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You are called to give evidence in court in a case of suspected child abuse. The child in question is a 6-year-old boy., who you saw six months ago with burns on his arms. You are asked to give evidence related to the burns. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse
Correct Answer: There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse
Explanation:- Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Infected burns can indeed be a sign of abuse. Neglect in treating burns can lead to infection, which may indicate a lack of proper care and potentially abusive behavior.
- Burns from hot water where there are no splash marks are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns from hot water without splash marks are often a sign of abuse. These burns may indicate forced immersion, where the child is held in hot water intentionally, resulting in clear demarcation lines instead of splashes.
- Burns on the back are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns on the back can be indicative of abuse, as accidental burns typically occur on accessible areas like the front of the body, arms, and legs. Unusual burn locations, such as the back, should raise suspicion for abuse.
- There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse:
- Correct: There is no single pathognomonic pattern of burns that definitively indicates child abuse. However, certain patterns, such as immersion burns, cigarette burns, and patterned burns (e.g., from an iron), are highly suspicious for abuse but not exclusively diagnostic. The absence of a single definitive pattern underscores the need for careful assessment and consideration of the context in which the burns occurred.
- Burns with discrete edges are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns with discrete edges can be a sign of abuse, especially when they are from forced immersion in hot water or contact with a hot object. These burns typically show clear boundaries, unlike accidental burns, which often have irregular edges.
- Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 73
Incorrect
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You come across a mother with her 6-month-old baby boy who has just been released from the hospital after being admitted for bloody stools. The baby has been diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy and the mother is seeking further information on the condition.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: Cows milk protein allergy typically presents in the first 3 months of life in breastfed infants
Correct Answer: Cows milk protein allergy can occur in exclusively breastfed infants
Explanation:Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old backpacker returns from a year of travelling in a remote part of South America. She has had diarrhoea for three weeks and the lab confirms that she has giardiasis.
What is the incubation period of giardiasis?Your Answer: One to two days
Correct Answer: Four to six weeks
Explanation:Giardiasis: A Chronic Diarrhoeal Disease
Giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease caused by the flagellate protozoan parasite, Giardia lamblia. This parasite attaches to the small bowel but doesn’t invade it. The disease is prevalent in tropical regions and is contracted by ingesting cysts present in contaminated water or food.
To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy is used to detect the cysts. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of oral metronidazole or tinidazole. These medications are effective in eliminating the parasite and relieving symptoms.
In conclusion, giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease that can be contracted by ingesting contaminated water or food. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and reduce the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 75
Correct
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Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She has had a fever overnight, along with a sore throat and cough. Her father is worried that she seems more tired than usual today. During the examination, you note the following:
Temperature 38.5 degrees
Heart rate 160 bpm
Respiratory rate 40 / min
Oxygen saturation 95%
The lungs are clear, but there is inflammation and redness in the throat, and there are swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
According to the NICE traffic light system for assessing fever in children, which of the following is considered 'amber'?Your Answer: Heart rate 155 bpm
Explanation:The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 4-year-old child for a routine check-up and mentions her 6-year-old son. She expresses concern about meningitis B due to a friend's experience with the disease. When is the meningitis B vaccine typically administered?
Your Answer: All children under the age 3 years will receive the vaccine
Correct Answer: 2 months + 4 months + 12-13 months
Explanation:Meningitis B Vaccine Now Part of Routine NHS Immunisation
Children in the UK have been receiving immunisation against meningococcus serotypes A and C for many years. However, this led to meningococcal B becoming the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the country. To address this, a vaccine against meningococcal B called Bexsero was developed and introduced to the UK market.
Initially, the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) rejected the use of Bexsero after conducting a cost-benefit analysis. However, this decision was eventually reversed, and meningitis B has now been added to the routine NHS immunisation. Children will receive three doses of the vaccine at 2 months, 4 months, and 12-13 months.
Moreover, Bexsero will also be available on the NHS for patients at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or complement disorder. With the inclusion of meningitis B vaccine in the routine NHS immunisation, the UK hopes to reduce the incidence of bacterial meningitis and protect more children and high-risk patients from the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 77
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy from a traveller community family is brought to the surgery by his mother.
She informs you that he began with what appeared to be a severe catarrhal cold, but now experiences intense paroxysms of coughing, causing him to turn completely red in the face and struggle to catch his breath. Upon examination, he has no fever.
What feature on history, examination, or investigation, although not conclusive, is consistent with the presence of whooping cough?Your Answer: Lack of pyrexia
Explanation:Whooping Cough: Symptoms and Risk Factors
The incubation period for whooping cough, also known as pertussis, typically lasts seven to 10 days but can extend up to 21 days. Patients with this condition often experience a paroxysmal cough with an inspiratory whoop, and lymphocytosis is commonly observed. While extensive consolidation is uncommon, pockets of lower respiratory tract infection may occur due to atelectasis. Notably, a lack of fever is a strong indication of whooping cough.
Children from travelling families may be at a higher risk of contracting whooping cough if they have missed the standard vaccination schedule. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 78
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl presents with a rash and joint pain. The rash has developed over the past few days, with the joint pain starting today. She also reports intermittent abdominal pain that has been occurring since before the rash appeared. On examination, she is afebrile with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. There is a symmetrical purpuric rash over the extensor surfaces of her arms and legs and over her buttocks, while her trunk is unaffected. The child complains of pain in her knees and ankles, which appear slightly swollen. Her abdomen is soft with mild periumbilical tenderness on palpation. Which test would be most helpful in guiding further management of this patient?
Your Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a vasculitic condition that commonly affects children between the ages of 3 and 10. The core clinical features of HSP include a characteristic skin rash, joint pain, periarticular oedema, renal involvement, and abdominal pain. Renal involvement can lead to hypertension, haematuria, and proteinuria, which can result in nephrotic and nephritic syndromes. Therefore, urine dipstick testing is crucial in aiding the clinical diagnosis and guiding management and follow-up. Regular follow-up is necessary in the convalescent period as HSP can lead to chronic renal problems in some patients. PatientPlus provides HSP guidelines that offer a comprehensive overview of the clinical features, patient assessment, and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 79
Incorrect
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In clinic, two male patients with Marfan syndrome are being evaluated. Both individuals have confirmed mutations in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15. Despite being close in age, one patient displays severe skeletal abnormalities such as marked thoracic lordosis and pectus excavatum, while the other has a nearly normal skeletal examination. What genetic concept can best explain the variation in phenotype between these two patients?
Your Answer: Anticipation
Correct Answer: Expressivity
Explanation:Expressivity is a term used in genetics to describe how much a genotype is expressed in an individual’s phenotype. This can vary greatly, even among individuals with the same gene. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is an example of a condition with high phenotypic variability due to expressivity. Penetrance is a similar concept, but it looks at the statistical variability of a genotype in a population. Incomplete penetrance occurs when the genotype is present but the phenotype is not observed, which can explain why some monogenic disorders do not follow predictable inheritance patterns. Hemingway’s cats in Florida showed high penetrance but variable expression of polydactyly, where the gene always caused extra toes but the number varied. Aneuploidy is when there is an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell, such as in Down syndrome. Anticipation refers to the increasing severity of an inherited disorder in subsequent generations, as seen in Huntington’s disease.
Understanding Penetrance and Expressivity in Genetic Disorders
Penetrance and expressivity are two important concepts in genetics that help explain why individuals with the same gene mutation may exhibit different degrees of observable characteristics. Penetrance refers to the proportion of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and express the related disease phenotype. In contrast, expressivity describes the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual.
There are several factors that can influence penetrance and expressivity, including modifier genes, environmental factors, and allelic variation. For example, some genetic disorders, such as retinoblastoma and Huntington’s disease, exhibit incomplete penetrance, meaning that not all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition. On the other hand, achondroplasia shows complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition.
Expressivity, on the other hand, describes the severity of the phenotype. Some genetic disorders, such as neurofibromatosis, exhibit a high level of expressivity, meaning that the phenotype is more severe in affected individuals. Understanding penetrance and expressivity is important in genetic counseling and can help predict the likelihood and severity of a genetic disorder in individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 80
Correct
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A mother has coeliac disease. She is concerned that her 18-month-old daughter may have the condition.
Which of the following is the most commonly presenting feature of coeliac disease in a child of 18 months?Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the digestive system and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. The incidence of this disease is higher in relatives of patients than in the general population. The symptoms of coeliac disease can vary depending on the age of the patient.
In children, the most common presenting symptom is diarrhoea, which occurs due to poor digestion and absorption of nutrients. Other symptoms include weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, irritability, constipation, abdominal protrusion, and eversion of the umbilicus. Children may also experience growth problems and delayed puberty.
In older children, teenagers, and young adults, anaemia is a common symptom due to malabsorption of iron and vitamins B12 and folate. Dermatitis herpetiformis, an itchy blistering disorder of the elbows, knees, and buttocks, may also be associated with coeliac disease in teenagers and adults.
Bloating and flatulence are common symptoms of coeliac disease, but they are more likely to be complained of in older people with the condition. Peripheral oedema, or swelling in the limbs, may rarely occur due to protein loss from enteropathy, but other causes such as nephrotic syndrome should be considered first.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms of coeliac disease is important for early diagnosis and treatment. If you or a loved one is experiencing any of these symptoms, it is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 81
Incorrect
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Which condition is most closely linked to supravalvular aortic stenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: William's syndrome
Explanation:The boy diagnosed with William’s syndrome, who is also short for his age and has learning difficulties, is known for his exceptionally outgoing and sociable personality.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 82
Incorrect
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You assess a 6-year-old boy who has been experiencing a persistent cough for the past 2 weeks after a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The child's mother is interested in trying a cough syrup to alleviate his symptoms, as it is causing him to have difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following options could be considered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Simple linctus (paediatric)
Explanation:Changes in Regulation of Over-the-Counter Cough and Cold Remedies for Children
In 2009, the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) and Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) made a significant change in the regulation of over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold remedies for children. The change affected medicines containing various ingredients, including cough suppressants, expectorants, nasal decongestants, and antihistamines. These ingredients, such as dextromethorphan, guaifenesin, ephedrine, and chlorphenamine, were found to be potentially harmful to children under the age of 6 years. As a result, products with these ingredients should be avoided in young children. For children aged 6-12 years, products containing these ingredients will only be available after consultation with a pharmacist. This change in regulation aims to ensure the safety of children when using OTC cough and cold remedies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 83
Incorrect
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At what ages is the immunisation given as part of the routine UK schedule, specifically at 8 and 12 weeks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rotavirus
Explanation:Routine Childhood Immunisation Schedule
The routine childhood immunisation schedule is a crucial aspect of healthcare for young children. It protects them from a range of diseases that can cause serious harm or even death. The schedule includes vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, meningococcal group B, and rotavirus.
At 8 weeks, infants receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, meningococcal group B, and oral rotavirus. At 12 weeks, they receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, and oral rotavirus. At 16 weeks, they receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, and meningococcal group B.
It is important to note that the hepatitis B immunisation was added to the routine schedule in 2017, but not hepatitis A. Additionally, pneumococcal immunisation is given at 8 and 16 weeks, but not at 12 weeks, while meningococcal B immunisation is given at 8 and 16 weeks, but not at 12 weeks. Understanding the routine childhood immunisation schedule is crucial for healthcare professionals and parents alike to ensure the health and safety of young children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 84
Incorrect
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You see a 10-year-old child in afternoon surgery. He presents with pain over his left tibia. Although he plays football with his friends regularly, there is no history of significant injury.
Which one of the following would be a red-flag prompting early referral?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of a bruise over the site
Explanation:Bone Tumours and Osteochondrosis: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Rest pain, back pain, and unexplained limp may indicate the presence of a bone tumour and require immediate attention from a paediatrician. In such cases, referral or x-ray may be necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms. Osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercles, previously known as Osgood-Schlatters syndrome, typically presents with bilateral tibial tuberosity pain that subsides with rest.
Bone tumours are most commonly found in the limbs, particularly around the knee in the case of osteosarcoma. If persistent localised bone pain and/or swelling is present, an x-ray should be taken to rule out the possibility of a bone tumour. If a bone tumour is suspected, an urgent referral should be made.
It is important to note that a history of injury should not be assumed to exclude the possibility of a bone sarcoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A mother seeks advice on routine vaccination for her 4-month-old baby who was born in Spain and has already received their 2-month vaccinations. These included DTaP/IPV/Hib/Hep B, meningococcal group B, and the oral rotavirus vaccine. What vaccinations will this infant require for their 4-month vaccination according to the current UK routine immunization schedule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DTaP/IPV/Hib/Hep B + rotavirus + pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)
Explanation:The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A father brings his 3-year-old home-schooled daughter to a pediatrician concerned about her developmental progress, particularly her physical abilities. He mentions that his friends' children her age are able to climb stairs, throw a ball, dress themselves partially, and ride a tricycle. However, his daughter is unable to do any of these things. During the examination, she is only able to stack four blocks and can draw a straight line. She speaks in 2-word phrases, with no being a common response, and imitates frequently. Based on her abilities, what is her developmental age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-years-old
Explanation:The milestones of development are categorized into gross motor skills, fine motor skills, vision, speech and hearing, and social behavior and play. For children who are -years old, they should be able to run, climb stairs, construct a tower using 6 cubes, replicate a vertical line, use 2-word phrases, eat with a spoon, dress themselves with a hat and shoes, and engage in play activities with other children.
Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones
Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.
In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.
It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy presents having had a seizure. His sister hit him; he became still and very pale, stiffened and fell to the floor. He was unresponsive for 20 seconds, with his eyes rolled up and with jerking of all four limbs. He did not wet himself or bite his tongue. He has no previous history and seems well now.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reflex anoxic seizure
Explanation:A reflex anoxic seizure, also known as white reflex asystolic attacks, is not an epileptic seizure but is often misdiagnosed as one. It occurs due to increased vagal tone, resulting in transient reflex asystole. These seizures can occur from birth but are common between six months to two years of age and are triggered by shock, anxiety, or minor injury. Symptoms include pallor, loss of consciousness, stiffening, eye deviation, and vagal asystole, which may progress to a seizure. However, there is a rapid spontaneous recovery, and no treatment is required. Unlike epileptic seizures, patients having a reflex anoxic seizure do not usually bite their tongue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old male presents with fever, nausea, and painful urination at the clinic. What is the best method to collect a urine sample?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clean-catch urine
Explanation:The advice given in the NICE guidelines regarding urine collection has been criticised for being impractical.
Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.
According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.
Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 89
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 4-year-old girl who has been brought in by her father with a 2 day history of cough and fever. Her father describes the cough sounds like a bark and today Sophie has appeared more breathless.
On examination, Sophie appears alert with moist mucous membranes. You observe nasal flaring and moderate intercostal recession. You check Sophie's temperature which is 38.2°C and oxygen saturation is 97% in air. Her respiratory rate is 52 breaths per minute and heart rate is 138 beats per minute.
What red flag symptoms have you observed in Sophie?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderate intercostal recession
Explanation:When a child has a fever, moderate or severe intercostal recession is a concerning symptom. This is considered a red flag according to NICE guidelines, which indicate a high risk of serious illness. Other red flag symptoms include those in the amber risk category, such as nasal flaring and a respiratory rate over 40 breaths per minute for children over 12 months old. A heart rate of 138 beats per minute is not a red flag symptom, but a heart rate over 140 beats per minute for children aged 2-5 years is considered an amber symptom. A temperature of 38°C or higher is only a red flag symptom for infants aged 0-3 months.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 90
Incorrect
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Which one of the following conditions is NOT an autosomal recessive condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis
Explanation:Exceptions aside, metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, while structural conditions are usually inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. However, it should be noted that hereditary spherocytosis is an example of a condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.
Autosomal recessive conditions are often referred to as metabolic conditions, while autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural. However, there are notable exceptions to this rule. For example, some metabolic conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive, while some structural conditions like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive.
Autosomal recessive conditions occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. Some examples of autosomal recessive conditions include albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Wilson’s disease. These conditions can affect various systems in the body, including metabolism, blood, and the nervous system. It is important to note that some conditions, such as Gilbert’s syndrome, are still a matter of debate and may be listed as autosomal dominant in some textbooks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A father brings in his 10 month old daughter who has been experiencing a persistent nappy rash despite his best efforts to care for her skin. The baby seems uncomfortable but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the nappy area shows patches of red, oozing skin with a few scattered pustules. The baby doesn't have a fever.
What could be the reason for this skin reaction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial infection
Explanation:Nappy rash is a common condition that affects infants who wear nappies. It is most prevalent between the ages of 9 and 12 months, but can also affect older children and adults who are incontinent.
The rash typically appears as red patches and bumps in the nappy area, with the skin folds being spared. Infants may appear uncomfortable and distressed. It is important to look out for signs of secondary infection, especially if the rash persists despite initial treatment. Secondary bacterial infections can cause marked redness, exudate, pustules, papules or blisters. If a bacterial infection is suspected or confirmed, NICE recommends a seven-day course of flucloxacillin (or clarithromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin).
Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them
Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.
To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.
It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned that she is not making the required progress with respect to speech development.
What could you tell the parents about speech and language expectations in this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 20-30 words vocabulary would be expected by this age
Explanation:Speech Delay in Children: Possible Causes and Exclusions
Speech delay is a common issue that affects 3-10% of all children, with boys being 3-4 times more likely to experience it than girls. One possible cause of speech delay in older children is elective mutism, which can be assessed through proper diagnosis. However, before progressing to other investigations, it is important to exclude deafness as a possible cause. Other factors that should be excluded include social and environmental deprivation, disorders of metabolism, and degenerative nervous diseases, which are rare possibilities. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause of speech delay, children can receive the necessary support and intervention to improve their communication skills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old child is scheduled to receive the pertussis vaccine, but the mother is concerned about potential health issues that may prevent the administration of the vaccine.
What would be a contraindication for giving the vaccine in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confirmed anaphylaxis to neomycin drops
Explanation:Pertussis-Containing Vaccines: Who Should Not Receive Them?
There are very few people who cannot receive pertussis-containing vaccines. However, if there is any doubt, it is important to seek advice from a consultant paediatrician, local Screening and Immunisation team, or consultant in Health Protection rather than withholding the vaccine.
There are only two situations where the vaccine should not be given. Firstly, if an individual has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of a pertussis-containing vaccine. Secondly, if an individual has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to neomycin, streptomycin, or polymyxin B, which may be present in trace amounts. In these cases, it is important to avoid the vaccine and seek alternative options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his mother. He has had a fever with vomiting for the past 48 hours.
On examination he is pyrexial 38.5°C and is tender across his lower abdomen. A past history of one previous UTI is noted, and on that occasion he was less unwell.
Investigations reveal:
Clean catch urine: blood +, protein ++, coliforms isolated.
He is started on co-amoxiclav and is symptom free 48 hours later.
Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for urological imaging?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should receive an ultrasound within the next six weeks
Explanation:Recurrent Urinary Tract Infection: Recommended Investigations and Antibiotic Therapy
This young woman has experienced a recurrence of urinary tract infection (UTI). While the first two episodes were likely lower UTIs, her current symptoms suggest an upper UTI. According to NICE guidelines, an ultrasound should be conducted within six weeks, followed by a dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan within four to six months.
In terms of antibiotic therapy, trimethoprim is not recommended as the first-line agent due to its potential for resistance. Instead, NICE suggests using antibiotics with a low potential for resistance, such as co-amoxiclav or a cephalosporin. It is important to follow these guidelines to effectively treat the UTI and prevent future recurrences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl presents with failure to thrive.
Previously, her parents had no concerns about her health. However, over the past few months, she has become increasingly fussy and her bowel movements have changed, with her now having up to three strong-smelling stools per day.
During the examination, her abdomen is soft but slightly distended, and there is noticeable wasting of the thigh muscles. When plotted on a growth chart, her weight was following the 50th percentile until around 2 years of age but has now dropped below the 5th percentile.
What is the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Coeliac Disease in Children
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects young children, typically presenting by the age of 2 with failure to thrive. This occurs when gluten is introduced into their diet through the consumption of cereals. Symptoms include irritability, abdominal distention, buttock wasting, and abnormal stools due to malabsorption. Children can also present later on in childhood with anaemia or failure to thrive with very subtle or no gastrointestinal symptoms.
Diagnosis requires a jejunal biopsy for histological confirmation, and treatment is with a gluten-free diet. There appears to be a genetic link, and first-degree relatives of people with coeliac disease have a 1 in 10 chance of having the disease. Patients with coeliac disease also have a higher risk of type 1 diabetes, thyroid disease, and other autoimmune diseases.
It is important to consider offering testing (by tTG antibody testing) to first-degree relatives because a strict gluten-free diet is essential in reducing the associated risk of GI malignancy, especially lymphoma, in people with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 96
Incorrect
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You see a 14-month-old boy in your clinic. He was seen by your colleague four days ago for fever, rhinitis and a cough. At that point, it was felt to be a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Today, his mother reports that his temperature has increased to 39.5c and the cough worsened. A new erythematous rash has appeared on his chest. On examination, you note some pale lesions on his oral mucosa.
Which is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis? Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scarlet fever
Explanation:Measles Presentation and Importance of Vaccination History
Measles typically begins with a prodromal phase that includes symptoms such as conjunctivitis, rhinitis, cough, and fever. By day four to five, an erythematous maculopapular rash appears, starting on the head and spreading to the trunk and limbs. The rash can become confluent as it progresses. Koplik spots, which are pathognomonic for measles, may appear before the rash.
It is crucial to obtain a vaccination history and check the oral mucosa when evaluating a patient with suspected measles. Additionally, good safety-netting is essential to ensure appropriate follow-up and management. By being aware of the typical presentation of measles and the importance of vaccination, healthcare providers can help prevent the spread of this highly contagious disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have noticed that he has developed a skin rash and bruising over last 24-36 hours.
The parents report that he has previously been a well child with no serious past medical problems or hospital admissions. The only time they have sought medical attention in the past has been for the occasional upper respiratory tract infection but these have been infrequent.
He last had a viral upper respiratory tract infection about 7-10 days ago. The parents managed this at home without the need for medical assessment as the symptoms were not severe.
On examination he appears well in himself with no temperature, and is interacting and playful. However there is marked superficial bruising and purpura over his trunk and legs. You also note four blood blisters on his tongue. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly and the remainder of the clinical examination is unremarkable with normal urine on dipstick testing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children
This condition is the most common cause of low platelets in children and occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction. It typically affects children between 2 and 10 years of age, with onset occurring one to two weeks after a viral infection. Children with this condition develop purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. While intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it is serious. However, in the vast majority of cases, ITP is an acute and self-limiting condition.
While acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) can also present with abnormal bruising, the history and clinical features of this child are more suggestive of ITP. Other features of ALL include malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, which are not present in this case.
Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome is a triad of acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. Patients are typically very unwell. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) typically presents with a palpable purpura that affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces, along with arthralgia, abdominal pain, and renal problems. Meningococcal septicaemia can also cause purpura, but affected patients are seriously unwell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old girl is referred to you by the health visitor after her mother noticed that she ‘looked yellow’. On examination, she is jaundiced, with dark urine and pale stools. Examination is otherwise normal. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy and birth, and the baby has had vitamin K.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Neonatal Jaundice: Differential Diagnosis
Biliary atresia is a congenital condition that causes obstructive jaundice due to the obliteration of the extrahepatic biliary system. It presents soon after birth with persistent jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine. Physiological jaundice, which appears after 2-3 days of age, is a different condition that doesn’t cause changes in stool and urine color. Gallstones and Rhesus incompatibility can also present with obstructive jaundice, but they are less likely. Vitamin K deficiency is not a likely cause of neonatal jaundice if the child has received vitamin K soon after birth. Any term infant who is still jaundiced after 14 days (or preterm infants after 21 days) should be investigated for the underlying cause of their jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section 10 weeks ago. She has also scheduled her baby's first set of routine immunizations for today. During the appointment, she inquires about the MenB vaccine and asks when it is typically administered.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At 2, 4 and 12-13 months
Explanation:The MenB vaccine is administered at 2, 4, and 12-13 months and has been incorporated into the routine vaccination schedule in the UK, making it the first country to do so. The vaccine replaces the MenC vaccine, which was discontinued in 2016. In addition to infants, individuals with certain health conditions, such as asplenia or splenic dysfunction, sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, and complement disorders, are also recommended to receive the MenB vaccine. It is important to note that the vaccine doesn’t contain live bacteria and therefore cannot cause meningococcal disease.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 100
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An 8-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
The school had spoken to them because despite good educational progress they had noticed that she spends a lot of time on her own and doesn't really make friends with the other children or engage in group activities. She has quite restricted interests both at home and at school. The parents report that she has 'always been like this' and that at home she likes to read and write a lot but other than that doesn't really engage and play with other children.
During the consultation the child seems to have appropriate language skills and be of normal intelligence but doesn't engage fully with your attempts at conversation and play, and avoids eye contact with you.
What is the likely underlying problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asperger's syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Asperger’s Syndrome
Asperger’s Syndrome is a type of autism that affects social interaction, behavior patterns, and interests. However, unlike other forms of autism, individuals with Asperger’s have normal or even above-average language and intelligence skills. This condition is characterized by impaired social skills, repetitive behavior, and restricted interests.
On the other hand, Childhood Disintegrative Disorder is a rare condition that affects less than 5 in 10,000 children. It is characterized by the sudden loss of acquired skills in motor, language, and social development between the ages of 3 and 4. The cause of this disorder is still unknown.
A mood disorder is not likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms, given their age and general features. Meanwhile, Rett’s Syndrome is an X-linked disorder that primarily affects females. It typically occurs between 6 and 18 months of age and is characterized by developmental regression, loss of motor skills, and loss of social and language skills. Other symptoms such as spasticity and seizures may also develop, leading to significant disability.
In summary, understanding the differences between Asperger’s Syndrome and other developmental disorders is crucial in providing appropriate support and interventions for affected individuals.
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- Children And Young People
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