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Question 1
Incorrect
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A newborn is admitted to the paediatric cardiology intensive care unit with congenital transposition of the great arteries (TGA) identified on pre-natal scans. The baby was delivered spontaneously at 38 weeks. What is the most crucial medication to administer until the neonate can undergo surgery in a few days?
Your Answer: Indomethacin
Correct Answer: Alprostadil
Explanation:To maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in cyanotic congenital heart diseases, prostaglandin E1 is recommended. This is particularly important in cases of transposition of the great arteries (TGA), where alprostadil is given to ensure some flow of oxygenated blood to the body. Neonatal apnoea is managed with caffeine, but it is not the primary medication used in TGA. Corticosteroids are administered to pregnant women at risk of premature birth to stimulate surfactant production in the neonatal lungs. NSAIDs such as ibuprofen and indomethacin can be used to close a persistent or symptomatic patent ductus arteriosus in babies.
Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.
If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.
Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a fever and a blotchy rash. According to her mother, the rash started behind her ears and has now spread all over her body. During the examination, you observe clusters of white lesions on the buccal mucosa. The child has not received any vaccinations. What is the potential complication that this child may face?
Your Answer: Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
Correct Answer: Pneumonia
Explanation:Pneumonia is a common complication of measles and can be fatal, especially in children. The measles virus can damage the lower respiratory tract epithelium, which weakens the local immunity in the lungs and leads to pneumonia. Other complications of measles include otitis media, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased risk of appendicitis, and myocarditis. Treatment for measles involves rest, fluids, and pain relief. It is important to inform the local Health Protection Team (HPT) and avoid school or work for at least four days after the rash appears. Mumps can cause complications such as orchitis, oophoritis, pancreatitis, and viral meningitis. Symptoms of mumps include fever, headache, swelling of the parotid glands, and general malaise. Kawasaki disease, on the other hand, can lead to coronary artery aneurysm and presents with symptoms such as high fever, rash, conjunctival injection, red and cracked hands, feet, and lips, and swollen lymph glands. It is important to note that otitis media, not otitis externa, is a complication of measles.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A newborn is delivered via elective Caesarean section at 37 weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension. At two hours of age, the male infant is exhibiting mild intercostal recession and grunting. Oxygen saturations are 95-96% on room air. What is the probable reason for the respiratory distress?
Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the probable outcome if a fetus has homozygous alpha-thalassaemia, assuming it is at an early stage of development?
Your Answer: Hydrops fetalis
Explanation:Understanding Alpha-Thalassaemia
Alpha-thalassaemia is a condition that arises from a deficiency of alpha chains in haemoglobin. This occurs due to the absence or reduced production of alpha-globulin genes located on chromosome 16. The severity of the condition depends on the number of alpha globulin alleles affected. If one or two alleles are affected, the blood picture would be hypochromic and microcytic, but the haemoglobin level would typically be normal. However, if three alleles are affected, it results in a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with splenomegaly, which is known as Hb H disease. In the case where all four alpha globulin alleles are affected, which is known as homozygote, it can lead to death in utero, also known as hydrops fetalis or Bart’s hydrops. Understanding the severity of alpha-thalassaemia is crucial in managing the condition and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought into resus in cardiac arrest. The patient was brought in by ambulance with her father. He is too distraught to give any history other than the child had been okay when he had left the room. She was found unconscious on his return so an ambulance was called.
Which of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest are most likely in this situation?Your Answer: Hypoxia
Explanation:Respiratory arrest is the most frequent reason for children’s arrest, with hypoxia being the probable cause in this case. Choking incidents are a common cause of collapse and arrest in young children who are able to walk, particularly toddlers, due to their age and the absence of a clear history for another cause. Hypovolaemia and tension pneumothorax are less likely since there is no indication of trauma in the history, and hypothermia is not a factor.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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What are the typical vaccines administered to adolescents aged 12-19 years?
Your Answer: Tetanus/diphtheria/polio + Men ACWY
Explanation:The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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You are working on the neonatal ward and are called to see a newborn who the nurses have noticed is persistently 'floppy'. You assess the newborn and find no acute cause for concern and wonder whether there might be an underlying issue.
Which of the following is most likely to be the underlying cause of neonatal hypotonia in this case?Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Explanation:Prader-Willi is one of the conditions that can cause neonatal hypotonia, along with neonatal sepsis, spinal muscular atrophy, and hypothyroidism.
Understanding Neonatal Hypotonia and Its Causes
Neonatal hypotonia is a condition characterized by low muscle tone in newborns. This can be caused by various factors, including neonatal sepsis, Werdnig-Hoffman disease (spinal muscular atrophy type 1), hypothyroidism, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Maternal factors such as drug use, particularly benzodiazepines, and myasthenia gravis can also contribute to neonatal hypotonia.
Neonatal hypotonia can have serious consequences, including difficulty with feeding and breathing, delayed motor development, and even death in severe cases. It is important for healthcare providers to identify the underlying cause of hypotonia in newborns and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
Understanding the potential causes of neonatal hypotonia can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and develop an effective treatment plan. With proper care and management, many newborns with hypotonia can go on to lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is presented to the clinic by her mother complaining of ear pain and fever. During the examination of the chest, a murmur is detected. Which of the following features is not in line with an innocent murmur?
Your Answer: Continuous blowing noise heard just below the clavicles
Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.
An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.
Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining of right-sided hip pain and occasional limp for the past month. The patient is feeling well, has no fever, and is in the 90th percentile for weight. She was born via spontaneous vertex vaginal delivery at term and had a normal newborn physical examination. On examination, there is limited range of motion in her right hip. A frog-leg hip x-ray is ordered, which reveals sclerosis of the right upper femoral epiphysis and moderate resorption of the femoral head. What is the most accurate diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: 30% of cases are bilateral
Correct Answer: The condition is 5 times more common in boys
Explanation:Perthes disease is a condition that primarily affects one hip, with only a minority of patients experiencing it in both hips. It is not associated with obesity, unlike slipped capital femoral epiphysis which is more common in overweight children. The management of Perthes disease typically involves conservative measures such as casting or bracing, although surgery may be necessary for older children or those with significant damage to the hip socket. The use of a Pavlik harness is not appropriate for treating Perthes disease, as it is typically used for developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since last night she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a temperature of 38.5ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:The latest NICE guidelines classify any infant under 3 months old with a temperature exceeding 38ºC as a ‘red’ feature, necessitating immediate referral to a paediatrician. While some seasoned GPs may opt not to adhere to this recommendation, it is crucial to stay informed about recent examination guidelines.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary tract infection (UTI) that was treated in the community. He was born at term and has been healthy throughout infancy, without previous history of UTI. There is no significant family history. The child's development is appropriate for his age and there have been no concerns about his growth. The antibiotics took effect after 4 days and he is currently doing well. Physical examination, including vital signs, is unremarkable. The child's height and weight are both at the 50th percentile. The microbiology results confirm a UTI caused by Enterococcus. What is the most suitable imaging approach that should have been taken/ordered?
Your Answer: Routine ultrasound scan (USS) and routine DMSA scan plus micturating cystourogram (MCUG)
Correct Answer: Urgent USS during the acute infection with routine DMSA and MCUG
Explanation:Guidelines for Imaging in Atypical UTIs in Children
When a child presents with an atypical urinary tract infection (UTI), imaging is necessary to identify any structural abnormalities in the urinary tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines provide recommendations for imaging based on the age of the child and the severity of the infection.
For children under 6 months of age with an atypical UTI, an urgent ultrasound scan (USS) is required during the acute infection. Once the infection has resolved, a routine dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan and a micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) are performed 4-6 months later.
For children older than 6 months with recurrent UTIs, a routine USS and DMSA scan plus MCUG are recommended. However, for children aged 6 months to 3 years with an atypical UTI, an urgent USS followed by a routine DMSA is sufficient. An MCUG is only performed if there is any dilation identified on USS, poor urine flow, family history of vesico-ureteric reflux, or a non-E. coli infection.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate imaging and management of atypical UTIs in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic atrophy. Considering the mitochondrial inheritance pattern of this disorder, which of the following family members is at the highest risk of being affected?
Your Answer: Sister
Explanation:Mitochondrial diseases are inherited maternally, meaning that if a mother has the condition, all of her children will also inherit it. As a result, her sister will also be affected.
Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology
Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.
Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl with meningococcal septicaemia has a cardiac arrest on the ward. You are the first responder. After confirming the arrest and following the paediatric BLS protocol, what is the appropriate rate for chest compressions?
Your Answer: 140-160 compressions per minute
Correct Answer: 100-120 compressions per minute
Explanation:The Paediatric Basic Life Support guideline of the UK Resuscitation Council mandates that chest compressions for children of all ages should be administered at a rate of 100-120 per minute, with a depth that depresses the sternum by at least one-third of the chest’s depth. Individuals without paediatric resuscitation training are advised to use the adult chest compression to rescue breaths ratio of 30:2, while those caring for children and trained to do so should use a ratio of 15:2. It is important to note that the initial danger-response-airway-breathing-circulation sequence must still be followed.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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Samantha is a 6-year-old girl who has been brought in by her father. He reports that Samantha has had a fever for 3 days and yesterday developed some ulcers in her mouth. Today, he noticed that there are red spots on Samantha's hands and feet which have now started to worry him.
Which virus is most likely causing Samantha's symptoms?Your Answer: coxsackievirus
Explanation:Hand, foot, and mouth disease is identified by the presence of oral ulcers followed by vesicles on the palms and soles, accompanied by mild systemic upset. The most common cause of this acute viral illness is Coxsackie A16 virus, although other Coxsackie viruses may also be responsible. Enterovirus 71 can also cause this disease, which is more serious. Roseola, a contagious viral infection that primarily affects children between 6 months and 2 years old, is caused by human herpesvirus (HHV) 6. It is characterized by several days of high fever, followed by a distinctive rash. Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is typically caused by parainfluenza virus and produces a distinctive barking cough. Chickenpox, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is highly contagious and results in an itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A mother brings her 9-month-old son Henry to the Emergency Department (ED) at 0700 h. She is very concerned. She reports that he has been crying all night. She has two older children: a 4-year-old daughter Allison and a 2-year-old son James, who are both well. Henry was born at 40+1 weeks by normal vaginal delivery. She developed gestational diabetes, but there were no other complications during the pregnancy or birth. Henry has had all his vaccinations. He was breastfed until 6 months old, then bottle-fed. Mother reports that he has been crying non-stop since 0400 h this morning. She tried to feed him, but he vomited twice, minutes after the feed. The first vomit contained food only, the second time it was greenish. Mom has not noticed a change in faeces or urine, except that she has not had to change his nappies since last night. On examination: crying, warm and well perfused, heart rate 150 beats per minute (bpm), abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. When you look in his nappies, you notice his stools look like redcurrant jelly.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Common Causes of Bowel Obstruction in Children
Bowel obstruction in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own distinct features and treatment options. Here are some of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in children:
1. Intussusception: This occurs when one segment of the bowel telescopes into another segment, leading to obstruction. It is most common in children aged 6-9 months and may be idiopathic or viral in origin. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, tinkling bowel sounds, and redcurrant jelly stools. Air enema is the preferred treatment.
2. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: This is a gastric outlet obstruction that typically presents at around 3 weeks of life. It is caused by hypertrophy of the pylorus and leads to non-bilious projectile vomiting and a palpable olive mass in the epigastric region. Surgical excision is the treatment of choice.
3. Meconium obstruction: This occurs only in newborns and is characterized by failure to pass meconium, bilious vomiting, and abdominal distension. It is more common in babies with cystic fibrosis. Diagnosis can be made prenatally or shortly after birth, and treatment involves radiographic contrast enema or surgery.
4. Ileus: This is aperistaltic bowel caused by factors such as abdominal surgery, electrolyte disturbances, or infection. It presents similarly to mechanical obstruction but is unlikely to be the cause if the child was previously well and has not had recent surgery.
5. Duodenal atresia: This is a type of bowel obstruction that occurs only in neonates and is associated with Down’s syndrome. It leads to bilious vomiting and proximal stomach distension soon after birth, and a double bubble sign on X-ray. It is caused by failure of recanalization of small bowel in early fetal life. Treatment involves surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl has recently started primary school in the UK. Her father has been informed that she can undergo school entry health screening, which will involve a hearing test. She had undergone the full newborn screening program and is up to date on her vaccinations. Her father has no health concerns and agrees to her participation in the school entry health screening program.
What technique will be employed to test the child's hearing as part of the screening program?Your Answer: Distraction test
Correct Answer: Pure tone audiometry
Explanation:The appropriate test for school entry hearing screening in most areas of the UK is pure tone audiometry. This test is suitable for individuals over the age of 3 and involves playing sounds at varying frequencies and volumes, with the patient indicating when they can no longer hear the sound. This test helps to identify the presence of hearing loss, the affected frequencies, and the severity of the condition.
The auditory brainstem response test, distraction test, and otoacoustic emission test are not suitable for school entry hearing screening. The auditory brainstem response test is typically performed on newborns and infants with abnormal otoacoustic emission test results. The distraction test is used for children aged 6-9 months to assess their ability to hear and locate sounds. The otoacoustic emission test is part of the newborn hearing screening program and is used to determine the health of the cochlea.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A parent brings their 3-week-old girl, who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome, to hospital. She has been feeding poorly and has been constipated.
On examination, her abdomen is distended.
A colonic biopsy shows absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa.
What is the initial management for this condition?Your Answer: Course of high dose steroids
Correct Answer: Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation
Explanation:Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation is the initial management for Hirschsprung’s disease. The absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa is a diagnostic criterion, and serial rectal irrigation should be performed before surgery to prevent enterocolitis. Conservative management is not recommended according to current guidelines, and high dose steroids have no role in this scenario. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but serial rectal irrigation should be performed beforehand to prevent enterocolitis. Laxatives are not appropriate for medical management in Hirschsprung’s disease.
Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father due to pain in her left hip. She has been complaining of pain and is hesitant to put weight on her left leg. She has a normal range of movement in both legs. Her father reports that she has been feeling sick with cold symptoms for the past few days and she currently has a temperature of 37.8 ºC.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A loud systolic murmur, which extends into diastole and is ‘machinery-like’ in quality, is found in a toddler at his 18-month check-up. The murmur radiates to the back between the scapulae. His first heart sound is normal; the second sound is obscured by the murmur. He has bounding pulses. His mother reports that he is asymptomatic.
Which of the following is correct of this condition?Your Answer: This condition is due to failure of closure of a fetal vessel derived from the fourth aortic arch
Correct Answer: This condition is likely to occur with increased frequency in those with hyaline membrane disease of the lungs
Explanation:Misconceptions about a Pediatric Cardiac Condition
Clearing Up Misconceptions About a Pediatric Cardiac Condition
There are several misconceptions about a pediatric cardiac condition that need to be addressed. Firstly, the condition is likely to be patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which can occur more frequently in children with hyaline membrane disease and cyanotic congenital heart conditions. However, it is treatable, with surgical repair required for larger defects.
Secondly, the right recurrent laryngeal nerve hooks around the right subclavian artery, which is not affected by PDA. Thirdly, the condition is not due to failure of closure of a fetal vessel derived from the fourth aortic arch.
Lastly, the underlying diagnosis is not Tetralogy of Fallot, which is a separate condition consisting of pulmonary stenosis, a ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. It is important to clear up these misconceptions to ensure accurate understanding and treatment of this pediatric cardiac condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old infant presents with jaundice and difficulty feeding. The baby was born via caesarean section at 38 weeks with an APGAR score of 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. There are no dysmorphic features or rashes on examination, and vital signs are within normal limits. The family history is significant for the father and older sibling having a condition that causes transient, asymptomatic episodes of jaundice. Laboratory results show a conjugated bilirubin level of 72 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), unconjugated bilirubin level of 10 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), ALP level of 134 u/L (normal range: 30-100), ALT level of 58 u/L (normal range: 3-40), and γGT level of 197 u/L (normal range: 8-60). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:The onset of biliary atresia is usually observed within the first few weeks of a newborn’s life, characterized by symptoms such as jaundice, poor appetite, and growth issues. This condition occurs when fibrous blockages obstruct the biliary ducts outside the liver, which can eventually lead to liver failure. Patients typically exhibit high levels of conjugated bilirubin, hepatomegaly, and elevated liver transaminases (with GGT being the most elevated). Alagille syndrome is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the liver and heart, and is characterized by distinct facial features such as a broad forehead and pointed chin. Diagnosis is confirmed through genetic testing for mutations in the JAG1 gene. Dubin-Johnson syndrome and… (sentence incomplete)
Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children
Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.
To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.
Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 38-week-old neonate has been born with an abdominal defect described as 7 cm of herniated bowel through the abdominal wall. The bowel is exposed without a covering. The patient is hypotensive (50/30), tachycardic (220 bpm) and hypothermic (35.2 °C). Bloods were taken, which showed the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 190 g/l Female: 115–155 g/l
Male: 135–175 g/l
White cell count 30 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 25 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Incubate, fluid-resuscitate, pass NG tube, surgery immediately
Correct Answer: Incubate, fluid-resuscitate, pass nasogastric (NG) tube, surgery within a few hours
Explanation:Management of Gastroschisis in Neonates
Gastroschisis is a condition in which the abdominal contents herniate through the abdominal wall, without the covering of a sac of amniotic membrane and peritoneum. This poses a higher risk to the neonate than exomphalos, which has a covering. The management of gastroschisis involves incubation to maintain body temperature, fluid-resuscitation to prevent dehydration and hypovolaemia, and surgical intervention within a few hours, unless there is evidence of impaired bowel perfusion. Elective surgery is not appropriate for gastroschisis. Restricting fluids would result in organ hypoperfusion and death. Abdominal X-rays are not necessary, and surgical review is obviously appropriate, but surgical intervention is the priority.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 3-month-old infant with Down's syndrome is presented to the GP by his parents due to their worry about his occasional episodes of turning blue and rapid breathing, especially when he is upset or in pain. These episodes have caused him to faint twice. The parents also mention that he has a congenital heart defect. What is the likely diagnosis based on this history?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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You are requested to assess a 38-week-gestation boy in the postnatal ward who is now 36-hours-old. The baby was delivered via forceps and has noticeable facial bruising. He is being formula-fed and is progressing well in the postnatal period except for an elevated transcutaneous bilirubin measurement. What could be the probable reason for the raised bilirubin level in this newborn?
Your Answer: Bruising
Explanation:Elevated bilirubin levels can result from bruising during birth, which causes hemolysis. Bruising in the neonatal stage can also lead to increased bilirubin levels due to the breakdown of haemoglobin. Preterm babies and those who are breastfed are more likely to develop jaundice. The baby’s medical history and examination do not indicate any signs of infection. Jaundice is not associated with being male.
Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.
If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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In a 6-year-old boy, what could be a possible association with an uncomplicated ventricular septal defect (VSD)?
Your Answer: A pansystolic murmur of grade 4/6 in intensity
Explanation:Characteristics of Congenital Heart Disease
A collapsing pulse can be a sign of aortic incompetence, while clubbing is a common feature of cyanotic congenital heart disease. A holosystolic murmur of varying intensity is also a characteristic of this condition. However, splenomegaly is not typically associated with congenital heart disease. In an uncomplicated ventricular septal defect, the S2 splits normally and P2 is normal. These are important characteristics to be aware of when diagnosing and treating congenital heart disease. Proper identification and management of these symptoms can greatly improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with intense pain in her left hip and an inability to bear weight. Her parents are worried about the potential for an infection. She had a cold a week ago, but has since recovered. She seems to be in good health. There has been no hip trauma. Blood tests show normal WBC and ESR levels. An ultrasound of the hip reveals a slight effusion in the joint capsule. What is the best course of action now?
Your Answer: Joint aspiration of the hip
Correct Answer: Recommend rest and analgesia
Explanation:Transient synovitis typically resolves on its own and only requires rest and pain relief. This young boy appears to have transient synovitis as he is not showing any signs of systemic illness, which would suggest septic arthritis. Additionally, it is common for transient synovitis to occur after an infection, and the mild effusion present is not indicative of an infection. It is important to note that other options such as an x-ray or surgery are not necessary as transient synovitis is a self-limiting condition. An x-ray may have been considered if there was a history of trauma, but this is not the case here.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old girl is brought to the paediatric emergency department with a fever, vomiting and reduced appetite for the past 48 hours. The baby's growth and development have been normal so far. During the examination, the baby appears lethargic and fussy, with a respiratory rate that is faster than normal and a temperature of 39ºC. Blood pressure and pulse rate are within the normal range, and there are no signs of raised intracranial pressure. The medical team suspects bacterial meningitis and performs a lumbar puncture. What should be done while waiting for the lumbar puncture results?
Your Answer: Give intravenous corticosteroids and empirical antibiotics therapy
Correct Answer: Start empirical antibiotics only
Explanation:It is not recommended to use corticosteroids in children under 3 months of age who have suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis. The most common organisms causing bacterial meningitis vary depending on the age of the child. For neonates up to 3 months old, Group B streptococcus, E.coli, and Listeria monocytogenes are the most common. For children between 1 month and 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common. For children over 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common. In older children with bacterial meningitis, dexamethasone may reduce the risk of hearing loss, particularly in those with Hib meningitis. However, it should be avoided in children under 3 months old with suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis, as well as those with certain central nervous system abnormalities or nonbacterial meningitis. Activated protein C and recombinant bacterial permeability-increasing protein should not be used in children and young people with meningococcal septicaemia. Treatment should not be delayed for a CT scan, as bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not currently recommended for the management of meningitis.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old infant is scheduled for a hearing screening test. She was born at 38 weeks without any pregnancy complications and delivered vaginally. Which hearing test would be most suitable for this child?
Your Answer: Audiometry
Correct Answer: Automated otoacoustic emissions
Explanation:The otoacoustic emission test is specifically designed to screen newborns for hearing issues. Different hearing tests are available for different age groups, but in the UK, newborns are typically screened using the automated otoacoustic emissions test or the evoked otoacoustic emissions test. If any abnormalities are detected, the automated auditory brainstem response test is used as a follow-up. The other hearing tests mentioned are more appropriate for older children. This information is provided by the NHS in the UK.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the features below, following a head injury, is not an indication for an immediate CT head scan in adolescents?
Your Answer: Numb left arm
Correct Answer: A single, discrete episode of vomiting
Explanation:Although immediate CT is not necessary, patients should be admitted and closely monitored with a low threshold.
Criteria for Immediate CT Scan of Head in Paediatric Head Injury Cases
Head injuries in children can be serious and require immediate medical attention. In some cases, a CT scan of the head may be necessary to assess the extent of the injury. The following criteria are used to determine when an immediate CT scan is required:
– Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
– Amnesia (antegrade or retrograde) lasting more than 5 minutes
– Abnormal drowsiness
– Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
– Clinical suspicion of non-accidental injury
– Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
– GCS less than 14, or for a baby under 1 year GCS (paediatric) less than 15, on assessment in the emergency department
– Suspicion of open or depressed skull injury or tense fontanelle
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– Focal neurological deficit
– If under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head
– Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident either as pedestrian, cyclist or vehicle occupant, fall from a height of greater than 3 m, high-speed injury from a projectile or an object)It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to promptly order a CT scan when necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old primigravida is scheduled for induction at 38 weeks due to intrauterine growth restriction. Following a brief labor, a baby girl is born vaginally. The infant has a low birth weight and is diagnosed with microcephaly, moderate hepatosplenomegaly, and a petechial rash upon examination. She experiences a seizure shortly after being admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy, has no medical history, takes no medications, and has received all of her vaccinations. What infection is the baby likely to have been exposed to in utero?
Your Answer: Varicella Zoster
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Hepatomegaly is a possible but uncommon finding in infants with haemolytic anaemia, but microcephaly and seizures would not be expected. Congenital rubella syndrome can occur if the mother contracts rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy, and may present with low birth weight, microcephaly, seizures, and a purpuric rash. However, the classic triad of symptoms includes sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities, and congenital heart disease, which are not present in this case. Additionally, if the mother has been fully vaccinated against rubella, CMV is a more likely diagnosis. Congenital varicella syndrome can occur if the mother is not immune to varicella-zoster and is infected during the first or second trimester, and may present with microcephaly and seizures, as well as hypertrophic scars, limb defects, and ocular defects. However, there is no history of the mother developing chickenpox during pregnancy, making this diagnosis unlikely.
Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus
Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three major congenital infections that are commonly encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Each of these infections has characteristic features that can help with diagnosis. Rubella can cause congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and congenital heart disease, among other things. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, cerebral palsy, and visual impairment, among other things. Cytomegalovirus can cause microcephaly, cerebral calcification, and chorioretinitis, among other things.
It is important to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent or minimize health problems for the newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A family consisting of a husband, wife, and their toddler son visit a genetic counselling session. The son has recently been diagnosed with hereditary haemochromatosis, and both parents are carriers. They are worried as they had plans to expand their family.
What is the likelihood of their next child having the same genotype?Your Answer: 50%
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.
When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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