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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old man presents to you with a history of intermittent 'stabbing' headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to you with a history of intermittent 'stabbing' headaches.

      He reports experiencing excruciating unilateral headache around his right eye and over the right temporal area. The headaches last anywhere from a couple of minutes to half an hour. He also experiences lacrimation, nasal epiphora, and a slightly red eye on the affected side during a headache episode.

      He reports having about 20 attacks of the headache a day, which tend to occur during the daytime rather than the night. During attacks, he tends to go and 'curl up in bed' to try and let things settle.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this headache?

      Your Answer: Indomethacin orally

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Episodic Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Cluster Headache

      Episodic paroxysmal hemicrania (EPH) and cluster headache (CH) share similar characteristics, making it difficult to differentiate between the two. However, there are key elements in their history that can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis. EPH is characterized by frequent attacks of unilateral pain focused around the eye or temporal region, lasting from 2-30 minutes and occurring during the day. In contrast, CH attacks typically last between 15 and 180 minutes, start one to two hours after falling asleep, and occur in clusters ranging from one every other day to eight a day.

      Furthermore, EPH is associated with autonomic symptoms and responds well to treatment with indomethacin (25-75 mg TDS), while CH doesn’t. Indomethacin is a useful differentiator, as it is not commonly prescribed in practice but can have a significant impact on the patient’s symptoms if the diagnosis is correct. By understanding the duration, frequency, and timing of the headaches, clinicians can accurately differentiate between EPH and CH and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A process that facilitates a collaborative communication structure between the teacher(s) and a...

    Incorrect

    • A process that facilitates a collaborative communication structure between the teacher(s) and a group of educators in a subject area to generate ideas, requirements, goals or projections about a subject.
      This describes which of the below options?

      Your Answer: Triangulation

      Correct Answer: Delphi method

      Explanation:

      Research Techniques: Delphi Method, Cross-Sectional Study, Focus Group, Non-Directive Interview, and Triangulation

      The Delphi method is a research technique that involves asking questions of experts and analyzing their responses. The information is then fed back to each expert, who has the opportunity to revise their answers in light of their colleagues’ replies. This iterative process continues until a consensus is reached, resulting in a synthesis of knowledge. The Delphi method is considered rigorous and valid due to the input of experts and the iterative nature of the process.

      A cross-sectional study involves observing a sample at a single point in time. This type of study is useful for examining the prevalence of a particular condition or behavior in a population.

      A focus group is a form of qualitative research in which a group of people is asked about their perceptions, opinions, beliefs, and attitudes on a particular topic. Participants are free to interact with each other, allowing for a deeper exploration of the topic.

      Non-directive interviews are the opposite of structured interviews. They allow for open-ended questions based on the interviewee’s responses, creating a more conversational and relaxed atmosphere.

      Triangulation is a method used by qualitative researchers to establish validity in their studies by analyzing a research question from multiple perspectives. This can include using different research methods, such as one-to-one interviews, focus groups, and engaging with different stakeholders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      125
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6-year-old-girl presents with persistent hearing loss. Her mother reports concerns from her...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old-girl presents with persistent hearing loss. Her mother reports concerns from her teachers that she doesn't seem to pay attention in class. She reports the girl often turns up the volume of the television while at home. On examination, the right eardrum is retracted and there is loss of the light reflex. You suspect otitis media with effusion and arrange pure tone audiometry which reveals moderate hearing loss particularly at low frequencies. She presented to your colleague 10 weeks previously with similar symptoms, with similar audiometry findings.

      What is the next most appropriate management in primary care according to the current NICE CKS guidance?

      Your Answer: Refer to an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist for further management

      Explanation:

      If a child has significant hearing loss due to glue ear on two separate occasions, it is recommended to refer them to an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist. The current NICE CKS guidance suggests observing children with otitis media with effusion for 6-12 weeks as spontaneous resolution is common. However, if the signs and symptoms persist after this period, referral to an ENT specialist is necessary. It is important to inquire about any concerns regarding the child’s hearing or language development and for any complications. Immediate referral is required for children with Down’s syndrome or cleft palate who are suspected to have otitis media with effusion. Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of otitis media with effusion. The most common surgical option is myringotomy and insertion of grommets, but non-surgical management options are also considered by the ENT specialist. As the child in question has already presented with persistent hearing loss after 12 weeks, referral to ENT is appropriate at this point.

      Understanding Glue Ear

      Glue ear, also known as serous otitis media, is a common condition among children, with most experiencing at least one episode during their childhood. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss, speech and language delay, and behavioral or balance problems. The risk factors for glue ear include male sex, siblings with the condition, bottle feeding, day care attendance, and parental smoking. It is more prevalent during the winter and spring seasons.

      The condition typically peaks at two years of age and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss and elective surgery in childhood. Treatment options include grommet insertion, which allows air to pass through into the middle ear, and adenoidectomy. However, grommets usually stop functioning after about ten months. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of glue ear to seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
    He has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
      He has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and heart failure in the last year. He underwent normal puberty at age 14.

      Which of the following drugs would be most likely to cause gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Ranitidine

      Correct Answer: Rabeprazole sodium

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause gynaecomastia

      Research has shown that the risk of developing gynaecomastia is almost insignificant when using other drugs as part of the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. However, there are other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia, including spironolactone, digoxin, methyldopa, gonadotrophins, and cyproterone acetate.

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a condition where a gastrin-secreting pancreatic adenoma is associated with peptic ulcer, and 50-60% of cases are malignant. It is suspected in patients with multiple peptic ulcers that are resistant to drugs and occurs in approximately 0.1% of patients with duodenal ulcer disease.

      A case study into male gynaecomastia has shown that spironolactone induced gynaecomastia by blocking androgen production, blocking androgens from binding to their receptors, and increasing both total and free oestrogen levels. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are cleaning out your medicine cabinet and you come across some expired...

    Incorrect

    • You are cleaning out your medicine cabinet and you come across some expired ampoules of diamorphine. You want to dispose of them.
      Who among the following individuals could witness their destruction?

      Your Answer: Any GP partner

      Correct Answer: Any practice manager

      Explanation:

      Destruction and Disposal of Controlled Drugs

      Destruction and disposal of controlled drugs are strictly regulated and require an authorized witness to observe and counter-sign the controlled drugs register to confirm destruction has taken place, even after the drugs have expired. It is important to note that not everyone is allowed to witness the destruction of controlled drugs. The list of authorized witnesses includes any Police Constable, Inspectors of the General Pharmaceutical Council, CCG chief pharmacist or pharmaceutical prescribing adviser who reports directly to the chief executive or to a director of the CCG, a registered medical practitioner who has been appointed to the CCG Professional Executive Committee or equivalent, the CCG board executive member with responsibility for clinical governance or risk management, and the medical director of a CCG.

      It is crucial to understand that practice nurses or GP partners are not allowed to witness the destruction of controlled drugs. While any Police Constable or CCG Medical Directors may witness the destruction of CDs, there are also other possible authorized witnesses. However, in practice, it is not practical for CCG Medical Directors to visit practices solely for the purpose of witnessing the destruction of CDs, and regions will have their own protocols in place for the collection and/or destruction of CDs. It is also important to note that patient-held CDs returned to community pharmacies or dispensing doctors’ practices do not require an authorized witness to be present for them to be destroyed. This distinction is essential to remember, especially when being tested on it in the AKT exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      73.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 19 weeks pregnant. She presents to...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 19 weeks pregnant. She presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of sharp abdominal pain. There is no vaginal bleeding. She also has a low grade fever of 37.8 ºC. Her pregnancy until now has been unremarkable.

      On examination, she is haemodynamically stable, but there is tenderness on palpation of the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. Fetal heart rate was normal. An ultrasound scan was performed which showed a singleton pregnancy, and multiple large fibroids in the uterus. The ovaries appear normal and there was no appendix inflammation.

      What is the most likely cause of Linda's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Appendicitis

      Correct Answer: Fibroid degeneration

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, fibroid degeneration can occur and may cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting. If an ultrasound scan shows no signs of inflammation in the appendix, it is unlikely that the patient has appendicitis. Given the presence of fibroids in the uterus, the patient is at risk of experiencing fibroid degeneration, particularly red degeneration, which can cause fever, pain, and vomiting. The absence of vaginal bleeding makes it unlikely that the patient is experiencing a threatened miscarriage. Ovarian torsion typically presents with pain and vomiting, but it is usually associated with risk factors such as ovarian cysts or enlargement.

      Understanding Fibroid Degeneration

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are known to be sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.

      Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days. It is important to note that fibroid degeneration is a common occurrence and doesn’t necessarily indicate a serious underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for a check-up. She has...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for a check-up. She has been diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus since she was 20 years old. Her diabetes is currently well managed, and she has no other medical conditions. There is no family history of diabetes.
      Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to develop? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Thyroid disease

      Explanation:

      The Link Between Diabetes and Other Medical Conditions

      Diabetes, a chronic metabolic disorder, is often associated with other medical conditions. Autoimmune diseases such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and Graves’ disease, which affect the thyroid gland, have a higher prevalence in women with diabetes. However, diabetes doesn’t increase the risk of developing giant cell arteritis (GCA) or polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), but the high-dose steroids used to treat these conditions can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes (T2DM). Anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction, is not linked to diabetes, but increased steroid use in asthmatic patients, a chronic respiratory condition, is a risk factor for developing T2DM. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune condition that causes widespread inflammation, doesn’t have a significant increased risk in diabetic patients, but steroid treatments used to treat SLE can increase the risk of developing T2DM. Understanding the link between diabetes and other medical conditions is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      119.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old female patient presents to your morning clinic with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female patient presents to your morning clinic with complaints of pain and cramps in her right calf. She has also observed some brown discoloration around her right ankle. Her symptoms have been progressing for the past few weeks. She had been treated for a right-sided posterior tibial deep vein thrombosis (DVT) six months ago. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Apixaban

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings should only be offered to patients with deep vein thrombosis who are experiencing post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS), which typically occurs 6 months to 2 years after the initial DVT and is characterized by chronic pain, swelling, hyperpigmentation, and venous ulcers. Apixaban is not appropriate for treating PTS, as it is used to treat acute DVT. Codeine may help with pain but doesn’t address the underlying cause. Hirudoid cream is not effective for treating PTS, as it is used for superficial thrombophlebitis. If conservative management is not effective, patients may be referred to vascular surgery for surgical treatment. Compression stockings are the first-line treatment for PTS, as they improve blood flow and reduce symptoms in the affected calf.

      Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.

      While compression stockings were previously recommended to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome in patients with DVT, Clinical Knowledge Summaries now advise against their use for this purpose. However, compression stockings are still recommended as a treatment for post-thrombotic syndrome. Other recommended treatments include keeping the affected leg elevated.

      In summary, post-thrombotic syndrome is a potential complication of DVT that can cause a range of uncomfortable symptoms. While compression stockings are no longer recommended for prevention, they remain an important treatment option for those who develop the syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old mother is worried about experiencing bilateral nipple pain for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old mother is worried about experiencing bilateral nipple pain for the past two weeks. She exclusively breastfeeds her 3-month-old daughter and has never had any issues before. The pain is most intense after feeds and can persist for up to 30 minutes. She reports severe pain and itching. During her visit to the clinic, she also requests that you examine her daughter's diaper rash. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Wean infant from breast

      Correct Answer: Miconazole 2% cream for the mother and miconazole oral gel for her infant

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      1787
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including blood tests, electrocardiogram, and urine dip, all come back normal. His QRisk2 score is 18%. His blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/100. He has no significant medical history, but there is a family history of high blood pressure. Despite making lifestyle changes, his blood pressure remains elevated, and you both agree on treatment.

      What is your plan for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      First Step in Managing Hypertension

      Having diagnosed hypertension, the first step in management involves considering several key factors in the patient’s history. One important factor is whether the patient has diabetes, as this influences the choice of antihypertensive medication. In diabetic patients, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are preferred over calcium antagonists due to their secondary benefits in managing diabetes.

      Another important factor is the patient’s age, with a threshold of 55 years indicating the preference for a calcium antagonist over an ACE inhibitor or ARB in step 1. This is because these medications are less effective in older individuals. Other age thresholds, such as 40 and 80 years, are also important in diagnosis and monitoring.

      While not relevant to this question, it is important to note that in patients under 80 years of age, the target blood pressure should be below 140/90 in clinic or below 135/85 in home or ambulatory monitoring. Additionally, a statin may be considered for patients with a QRisk2 score above 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      290.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about feeling anxious after giving...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about feeling anxious after giving birth to her daughter last week. Despite her usual loss of appetite when anxious, she reports eating well. While she was excited about her daughter's arrival during pregnancy, she now experiences frequent unhappiness and irritability. She expresses worry about motherhood and a lack of enthusiasm for it.

      What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale before referring to psychiatry

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      Mothers experiencing the ‘baby blues’ typically require reassurance, support, and follow-up. This is the correct answer as ‘baby blues’ is a common condition among mothers in the postnatal period, usually starting a week after childbirth and lasting only a few days. It is normal for mothers to feel emotional, anxious, tearful, and low after giving birth due to sudden hormonal changes. Reassurance is usually sufficient to manage this condition.

      Cognitive behavioural therapy and starting sertraline are incorrect options as they are suitable for patients with postnatal depression, which tends to start within 1-3 months post-delivery. Symptoms of postnatal depression include those of baby blues, but with additional symptoms such as lack of sleep, appetite changes, anhedonia, and thoughts of hurting themselves and their baby. Symptoms may also come on more gradually and last for a long time. However, in this vignette, the patient only describes feelings related to low mood and anxiety that set in a week after giving birth, making a diagnosis of postnatal depression unlikely.

      Referring to psychiatry is also an incorrect option as it is necessary only for severe circumstances where the patient has severe mental health impairment and poses a risk to themselves or others. This vignette suggests that the patient has baby blues, so reassurance would be the most appropriate option.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      142.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and...

    Correct

    • Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and low mood. Upon further inquiry, he reveals experiencing muscle stiffness, particularly in his shoulders, which can last up to an hour upon waking. During examination, Liam exhibits 5/5 power in all muscle groups, but movement is painful when he abducts and elevates his shoulders. There is no apparent joint swelling, and there are no other neurological issues. Despite the pain, Liam has a good range of motion. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, for which he takes metformin.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      The usual progression of rheumatoid arthritis involves experiencing pain first, followed by stiffness. However, in this particular case, the patient is experiencing both pain and stiffness simultaneously. The condition commonly causes swelling, stiffness, and pain in the small joints of the hands and feet.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      223.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 54-year-old businessman has just registered with your practice and has asked the...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old businessman has just registered with your practice and has asked the receptionists for an appointment to discuss prevention of cardiovascular disease.

      He was generally well but had suffered a myocardial infarction six months ago whilst on business in South Africa. He was diagnosed with diabetes three years ago and is on diet control alone.

      He had an eight year history of hypertension with a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. He was obese with a BMI of 34 kg/m2.

      Investigations reveal:

      Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L (<5.2)

      Which would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Add a statin (HMG coA reductase inhibitor)

      Explanation:

      Secondary Prevention Scenario: Managing a Type 2 Diabetic with Cardiovascular Disease

      Firstly, it is important to recognize that this scenario involves secondary prevention. Evidence from trials such as the MRC/BHF Heart Protection Study has shown the benefits of lowering cholesterol in Type 2 diabetics with cardiovascular disease, regardless of their initial total cholesterol levels. Similarly, studies like CARE have demonstrated the advantages of maintaining cholesterol levels below 6 mmol/L in secondary prevention.

      As this patient is likely to be hypertensive, it would be appropriate to initiate antihypertensive therapy if their blood pressure remains elevated. The decision regarding insulin therapy would depend on their HbA1c levels, with metformin being the initial treatment of choice to improve insulin resistance.

      It is important to note that there is no significant benefit from using 300 mg over 75 mg of aspirin in these patients, and the higher dose may lead to more side effects. Additionally, there is no evidence to support improved life expectancy with Xenical.

      In summary, managing a Type 2 diabetic with cardiovascular disease in a secondary prevention scenario involves lowering cholesterol levels, initiating antihypertensive therapy if necessary, and considering insulin therapy based on HbA1c levels. It is important to carefully consider the risks and benefits of medications such as aspirin and Xenical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old man is terminally ill with carcinoma of the pancreas. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is terminally ill with carcinoma of the pancreas. He has abdominal and back pain and his analgesic combination of full doses of paracetamol and codeine is no longer controlling this.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?

      Your Answer: Dihydrocodeine

      Correct Answer: Morphine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Pain Medication: A Guide to Opioids and Adjuvants

      When it comes to managing pain, healthcare professionals often follow the World Health Organization’s analgesic ladder. This involves starting with non-opioid medications, such as paracetamol, and weak opioids, such as codeine, before moving on to stronger opioids like morphine if necessary.

      In cases where bone pain or soft tissue infiltration is present, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen can be added as an adjuvant at any step in pain management. However, it is important to note that these adjuvants are unlikely to be a substitute for stronger opioids like morphine.

      Dihydrocodeine and tramadol are both weak opioids and are therefore unlikely to provide significant pain relief in cases where stronger medication is needed. Amitriptyline, on the other hand, is an adjuvant typically used for neuropathic pain and is unlikely to be effective in this scenario.

      For patients who require a strong opioid but are unable to take oral medication, fentanyl may be prescribed as a transdermal patch. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication and adjuvants will depend on the individual patient’s needs and the severity of their pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      164.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old woman has a 3-week history of increasing jaundice and dark urine....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman has a 3-week history of increasing jaundice and dark urine. In the past 4 months she has noticed intermittent loose, pale stools and has lost 6 kg in weight. On examination she is thin and jaundiced, with epigastric tenderness and a palpable gallbladder. Urine dipstick shows glucose +++, bilirubin +++ and urobilinogen +.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Courvoisier’s Law and Obstructive Jaundice in Diagnosing Pancreatic Carcinoma

      Courvoisier’s law is a crucial factor in diagnosing the cause of jaundice. If a palpable gallbladder is present in the presence of jaundice, it is unlikely to be due to gallstones. This is because gallstones cause a fibrotic gallbladder that will not distend in the presence of obstruction of the common bile duct. However, absence of Courvoisier’s sign doesn’t rule out malignancy.

      In cases of obstructive jaundice, haemochromatosis can be excluded as a cause. The initial symptoms of haemochromatosis are usually vague and nonspecific, such as fatigue, weakness, arthropathy, and nonspecific abdominal problems.

      Of the three obstructive neoplastic processes that remain, carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is the only one that will cause glycosuria. Therefore, the development of diabetes in anyone who is non-obese and over 50 years old without definite risk factors should raise suspicion of pancreatic carcinoma.

      In conclusion, understanding Courvoisier’s law and the exclusions of other potential causes of obstructive jaundice is crucial in diagnosing pancreatic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What disease is notifiable? ...

    Incorrect

    • What disease is notifiable?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      Measles, food poisoning, infectious bloody diarrhea, legionnaires’ disease, and severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) are among the notifiable diseases in the UK. This means that registered medical practitioners have a statutory duty to report suspected cases to the appropriate authorities. The reporting procedures vary slightly in different parts of the UK, but the general principles are the same. For example, in England and Wales, the GP should fill out a notification certificate immediately on diagnosis and ensure it gets to the officer within three days. The full list of notifiable diseases and reporting procedures is available on Public Health England’s website. While the exact mechanism of reporting may not be tested in the MRCGP AKT exam, it is important to have a general understanding of notifiable diseases in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      46.7
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  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a swollen lower right eyelid....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a swollen lower right eyelid. He complains of a gritty sensation in his eye, but now he is experiencing pain and blurred vision. Upon examination, the right eyelid is inflamed, red, and has crusted margins. The patient's left eye has reduced visual acuity. The doctor suspects blepharitis.

      As per the latest NICE CKS recommendations, what would be the subsequent appropriate steps for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Advise the patient on good eyelid hygiene, and on a warm compress. Prescribe artificial tears and review if symptoms persist or worsen

      Correct Answer: Refer for same-day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a patient with blepharitis experiences symptoms of corneal disease, such as blurred vision and pain, they should be referred for ophthalmological assessment on the same day, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Other reasons for referral include sudden onset visual loss, acute redness and pain in the eye, persistent localized disease despite optimal primary care treatment, obvious eyelid margin asymmetry or deformities, deterioration in vision, associated cellulitis, associated conditions like Sjögren’s syndrome, or diagnostic uncertainty.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

      When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.

      Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A father brings in his 10 month old daughter who has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his 10 month old daughter who has been experiencing a persistent nappy rash despite his best efforts to care for her skin. The baby seems uncomfortable but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the nappy area shows patches of red, oozing skin with a few scattered pustules. The baby doesn't have a fever.

      What could be the reason for this skin reaction?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Bacterial infection

      Explanation:

      Nappy rash is a common condition that affects infants who wear nappies. It is most prevalent between the ages of 9 and 12 months, but can also affect older children and adults who are incontinent.

      The rash typically appears as red patches and bumps in the nappy area, with the skin folds being spared. Infants may appear uncomfortable and distressed. It is important to look out for signs of secondary infection, especially if the rash persists despite initial treatment. Secondary bacterial infections can cause marked redness, exudate, pustules, papules or blisters. If a bacterial infection is suspected or confirmed, NICE recommends a seven-day course of flucloxacillin (or clarithromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin).

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27-year-old male presents with irregular skin discoloration on his upper back after...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with irregular skin discoloration on his upper back after returning from a 2-week vacation in Ibiza. Although he applied sunscreen intermittently, he did experience mild sunburn in the area, which has since healed. He doesn't experience any pain or itching, but he is self-conscious about the appearance of his skin. During the examination, there are scattered pale pink macules covered with fine scales visible over his upper back, despite having a suntan. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sunburn

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      The patient has pityriasis Versicolor, a fungal infection that affects sebum-rich areas of skin. It presents as multiple round or oval macules that may coalesce, with light pink, red or brown colour and fine scale. Itching is mild. It is not vitiligo, sunburn or pityriasis rosea, nor tinea corporis.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      162.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Samantha is a 70 year old woman who is attending hospital for chemotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 70 year old woman who is attending hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is struggling with the cost of transportation to and from the hospital and is currently receiving pensioners credit. What advice would you give to Samantha?

      Your Answer: Eligible for refund from social services

      Correct Answer: Eligible to claim travel refund from hospital

      Explanation:

      He can claim a refund for his travel expenses from the hospital.

      Travel Refund for Hospital Visits

      If you are required to attend a hospital for treatment, you may be eligible for a refund for your travel expenses. The criteria for eligibility include receiving Income Support, the guarantee element of Pension Credit, income-based Jobseekers Allowance, income-related Employment and Support Allowance, Universal Credit, or having a valid NHS tax exemption certificate. Additionally, if you receive a valid war pension and are being treated for your war disability, you may also be eligible. If you require someone to travel with you for medical reasons, their travel costs may also be covered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      89.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and she complains that she resists going to school because she wants to stay with her mother. She becomes terrified whenever her parents leave the house. During the day she worries that her family may never come back home.
      What is the disorder most closely associated with these symptoms in adulthood?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Panic disorder

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Childhood Separation Anxiety and Mental Disorders

      Separation anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by excessive anxiety related to separation from an attachment figure, such as a mother. Studies have shown that this disorder is a strong risk factor for developing mental disorders, particularly panic disorder and depression, in people aged 19-30 years. However, there is no proven link between childhood separation anxiety and irritable bowel syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, or somatic symptom disorder. While negative childhood experiences may play a role in the development of some mental disorders, separation anxiety in childhood is not directly related to these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
      Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

      Explanation:

      Common Infections in Kidney Transplant Patients

      Kidney transplant patients are at a higher risk of infections due to immunosuppression. In the first month post-transplant, infections are similar to those in non-immunosuppressed individuals. However, in the one-month to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6, hepatitis A, B and C viruses, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are most problematic. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but routine annual administration of the injectable inactivated vaccine is recommended. Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions and even disseminated or visceral disease. Pneumonia and urinary infections are also common, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation and prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after transplantation. A small group of patients may experience persistence of viral infections and are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, vomiting and impaired hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, vomiting and impaired hearing on the right side lasting for 1-4 hours. She has experienced six such episodes over the last 10 months. Neurological examination shows evidence of right sensorineural deafness. An audiogram confirms the presence of right low-frequency sensorineural deafness. She also reports worsening tinnitus.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Vertigo: A Guide

      Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between different causes of vertigo.

      Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, nausea/vomiting, and deafness lasting for hours. An audiogram typically shows unilateral low-frequency sensorineural deafness. Treatment involves antiemetics, betahistine, bendroflumethiazide, and salt restriction.

      Vertebrobasilar insufficiency refers to transient ischemic attacks in the vertebrobasilar vascular territory. Attacks typically last about eight minutes and may include vertigo, nausea/vomiting, syncope, facial numbness, visual field defects, sudden hearing loss, speech disturbance, and ataxia.

      Acoustic neuroma usually presents with slowly progressive deafness and disequilibrium, but not paroxysmal vertigo. True vertigo is uncommon and usually only occurs with small tumors.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is the most common cause of vertigo and is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo induced by head movement. It may coexist with Ménière’s disease and has a high chance of recurrence.

      Labyrinthitis is characterized by sudden onset vertigo, hearing loss, and often tinnitus. Nausea and vomiting are common. It is not triggered by movement but may be exacerbated by it. Most cases are thought to be viral in origin and resolve within days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      126.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires a statin. His brother has encouraged him to book the appointment because ‘everyone in the family takes a statin’, due to familial hypercholesterolaemia. He has no significant medical history and rarely consults with a doctor. His total cholesterol is 8.2 mmol/l.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Carry out blood tests for liver, renal and thyroid function, HbA1c and lipid panel

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia requires a thorough diagnostic and management approach. The first step is to carry out blood tests for liver, renal, and thyroid function, HbA1c, and lipid panel. Additionally, a full cardiovascular assessment and exclusion of secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia should be conducted before referral.

      QRisk2 scoring is not appropriate in suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia due to the high risk of premature heart disease associated with the condition. Atorvastatin 20 mg is a good choice for primary prevention, but further tests are necessary to establish its suitability for the patient. Atorvastatin 80 mg is often given as secondary prevention, but there is no evidence that this is necessary for the patient from the information provided.

      Referral to a lipid clinic in secondary care is imperative for patients with suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia. This condition should be suspected in adults with a total cholesterol >7.5mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of a cardiovascular event before the age of 60 years old. Basic blood tests will provide important diagnostic and management information, ruling out secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia and assessing the patient’s suitability for treatment with lipid-lowering drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman has come to see you to discuss the results of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has come to see you to discuss the results of her smear test.

      Unfortunately, the sample was inadequate and needs to be repeated.

      How soon after the initial smear should she have the repeat smear taken?

      Your Answer: 28 days

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Importance of Waiting for Cervical Epithelium Regeneration and Antimicrobial Treatment

      It is crucial to wait for at least three months for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium after a screening test. This is because the epithelium needs time to heal and regenerate before another test is conducted. Rushing to re-sample before the regeneration of the epithelium can lead to inaccurate results, which can be detrimental to the patient’s health.

      Moreover, if there is any suspicion of infection, antimicrobial treatment should be administered before re-sampling. This is because an infection can interfere with the accuracy of the test results, leading to false positives or false negatives. Therefore, it is essential to wait for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium and treat any suspected infection before conducting another screening test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      215.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic for a new patient medical evaluation....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic for a new patient medical evaluation. During his assessment, his urine dipstick test reveals the presence of blood+ and protein+. He reports no lower urinary tract symptoms or history of visible haematuria, and has no significant medical history. His blood pressure measures 140/92 mmHg. Over the course of the next two weeks, he submits two additional urine samples, both of which continue to show blood+ and protein+. A blood test reveals mildly elevated creatinine levels within the normal range and an eGFR of 60 ml/min. What is the most appropriate management approach for this patient?

      Your Answer: Monitor his blood pressure and renal function six monthly

      Correct Answer: Refer to a urologist

      Explanation:

      Microscopic Haematuria and Proteinuria: Clinical Relevance and Referral

      Here we have an incidental finding of microscopic haematuria and proteinuria. Microscopic haematuria is considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative, while blood 1+ or more is significant. Additionally, this patient has persistent proteinuria 1+ in all samples.

      If there had been no proteinuria, a non-urgent referral to a urologist would have been the best approach given the patient’s age. However, with the presence of proteinuria, referral to a renal physician is indicated as per NICE guidance. It is important to consider these findings and take appropriate action to ensure the best possible patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and...

    Incorrect

    • What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and 16?

      Your Answer: BCG

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza B

      Explanation:

      Recommended Vaccinations for Adolescents

      A booster vaccination for tetanus and diphtheria is required for adolescents between the ages of 14 and 16. It is recommended that these boosters be administered every 10 years thereafter. In some countries, a second dose of the MMR vaccine is given at age 12. The BCG vaccine is not routinely given, but is offered to individuals who are at risk. It is important for adolescents to stay up-to-date on their vaccinations to protect themselves and those around them from preventable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is localised around the right eye and is associated with tearing and redness of the eye. The patient reported he has had similar episodes over the last year. He also admits that these episodes occurred every day for a few weeks with one to three attacks a day which last for 1-2 hours, frequently at night. After 6 weeks, the attacks stopped. She lost her job 6 months ago and has noticed an increase in the intensity of the pain since. Examination reveals drooping of the eyelid and small pupil on the right side.
      Select the single MOST likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Iritis-associated headache

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Types: Cluster Headache, Intracranial Neoplasm, Acute Anterior Uveitis, Migraine, and Tension-Type Headache

      Headaches can be caused by various factors, and it is important to differentiate between different types to provide appropriate treatment. Cluster headache is a rare condition that affects mostly men and is characterized by intense pain around one eye, accompanied by nasal stuffiness and sometimes Horner syndrome. In contrast, headache is often a late symptom of an intracranial neoplasm, and a new headache or change in pattern may indicate an underlying tumor. Acute anterior uveitis presents with eye pain, redness, photophobia, excessive tearing, and decreased vision. Migraine is a common type of headache that presents with severe, often unilateral pain, accompanied by vomiting and photophobia. Tension-type headache is usually mild to moderate and described as pressure or tightness around the head. Understanding the specific features and associated symptoms of each type of headache can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently had an HbA1c reading...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently had an HbA1c reading of 60 mmol/mol. He is currently taking the maximum dose of gliclazide as he experiences frequent loose stools with any form of metformin. What additional treatment options would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Correct Answer: Gliptin

      Explanation:

      Metformin often causes mild gastrointestinal side effects, particularly when first taken. The severity and duration of these side effects depend on the dosage, but they typically improve over time. To minimize these effects, it’s best to start with a low dose, take the medication with food, and gradually increase the dosage.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      219.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling his heart skip a beat regularly but denies any other symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, chest pain, or fainting.

      Upon examination, his chest is clear and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral edema. His blood pressure is 126/64 mmHg and his ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no P waves and a heart rate of 82/min.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assessment using ORBIT bleeding risk tool and CHA2DS2-VASc tool

      Explanation:

      To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct an assessment using both the CHA2DS2-VASc tool and the ORBIT bleeding risk tool. This applies to all patients with atrial fibrillation, according to current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, the option to commence on apixaban and bisoprolol is not correct.

      The patient’s symptoms and ECG findings indicate atrial fibrillation, but there is no indication for a 24-hour ECG. Therefore, referral for a 24-hour ECG and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not necessary.

      As there are no signs or symptoms of heart failure and no evidence of valvular heart disease on examination, referral for an echocardiogram and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not the appropriate option.

      The patient is currently haemodynamically stable.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Population Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/3) 67%
Allergy And Immunology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/4) 25%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Leadership And Management (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Passmed