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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of oligomenorrhoea that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of oligomenorrhoea that has persisted for the past year. The GP orders blood tests to evaluate her baseline hormone profile. The results are as follows:

      FSH 5 U/L (2-8)
      LH 15 mmol/L (3-16)
      Oestradiol 210 mmol/L (70-600)

      Based on these findings, what is the probable underlying cause of her anovulation?

      Your Answer: Primary ovarian insufficiency

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Polycystic ovary syndrome leads to anovulation with normal levels of FSH and estrogen, known as normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation. LH levels may be elevated or normal in this condition.

      Hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation is caused by hypopituitarism or hyperprolactinemia, resulting in low levels of gonadotropins and estrogen. However, hyperprolactinemia can be ruled out based on gonadotropin and estrogen levels alone.

      Hypothalamic amenorrhea is a functional cause of hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, often due to factors such as low BMI, stress, or excessive exercise.

      Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories

      Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.

      There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

      One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a nodule on his scrotum....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a nodule on his scrotum. Upon biopsy, it is revealed to be a squamous cell carcinoma of the scrotum. Which group of nearby lymph nodes is most likely to be affected by the spread of this cancer through the lymphatic system?

      Your Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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  • Question 3 - A woman in her mid-thirties, who is HIV positive, seeks advice on starting...

    Correct

    • A woman in her mid-thirties, who is HIV positive, seeks advice on starting a family. She expresses her desire to become pregnant but is concerned about the risk of transmitting the virus to her baby. What guidance should be provided to her?

      Your Answer: With treatment and correct advice, the rate of vertical transmission of HIV is 2%

      Explanation:

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In London, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Guidelines on this subject are regularly updated, and the most recent guidelines can be found using the links provided. Factors that can reduce vertical transmission from 25-30% to 2% include maternal antiretroviral therapy, mode of delivery (caesarean section), neonatal antiretroviral therapy, and infant feeding (bottle feeding).

      To ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy, NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women. Additionally, all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy, regardless of whether they were taking it previously.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. Otherwise, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the procedure.

      Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also crucial in minimizing vertical transmission. Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. Otherwise, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is another important factor to consider. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed to minimize the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy.

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  • Question 4 - A pair of twin sisters are delivered in the delivery room. The midwife...

    Correct

    • A pair of twin sisters are delivered in the delivery room. The midwife observes that they are identical. These twins separated after implantation but before day 6. What category of twins do they belong to?

      Your Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic

      Explanation:

      The most uncommon and recent occurrence of twins is when they are conjoined, resulting in a unique cleavage.

      When twins share the same placenta, known as monochorionic twins, there is a possibility of uneven blood flow between them. This can lead to one twin receiving more blood than the other, which often requires medical intervention.

      Dizygotic twins, which come from two separate eggs, have a higher chance of occurring in certain situations. These include being between the ages of 35-40, having a family history of twins, previously giving birth to multiples, having a high BMI, smoking, and conceiving in the summer or autumn.

      Around 1 in 10 dichorionic twins are monozygotic, meaning they come from a single fertilized egg that splits into two embryos.

      Triplets can occur when two eggs are fertilized, and one of them splits into a pair of monozygotic twins.

      Twin Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Twin pregnancies occur in approximately 1 out of 105 pregnancies, with the majority being dizygotic or non-identical twins. Monozygotic or identical twins, on the other hand, develop from a single ovum that has divided to form two embryos. However, monoamniotic monozygotic twins are associated with increased risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, and twin-to-twin transfusions. The incidence of dizygotic twins is increasing due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilisation, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean.

      Antenatal complications of twin pregnancies include polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, anaemia, and antepartum haemorrhage. Fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations, especially in monozygotic twins. Labour complications may also arise, such as postpartum haemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement.

      Management of twin pregnancies involves rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labour, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most are induced at 38-40 weeks. Overall, twin pregnancies require close monitoring and management to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and babies.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 5 - A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria,...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria, and foul-smelling green vaginal discharge. Additionally, she experiences pain in the upper right quadrant. What could be the probable reason for this upper right quadrant pain?

      Your Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Upper right quadrant pain can be caused by various conditions, but in this case, the woman is suffering from pelvic inflammatory disease, which is often associated with Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (adhesions of liver to peritoneum).

      It is important to note that cholecystitis, pulmonary embolisms, pleurisy, and viral hepatitis do not typically present with symptoms such as dyspareunia, dysuria, or vaginal discharge.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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  • Question 6 - A soon-to-be mother is advised on the significance of screening for Rhesus incompatibility...

    Correct

    • A soon-to-be mother is advised on the significance of screening for Rhesus incompatibility between her and her unborn child. What maternal and fetal Rh status combination could potentially lead to Rhesus disease?

      Your Answer: Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive baby

      Explanation:

      When the baby has Rh-positive blood and the mother has Rh-negative blood, their blood supplies can mix during pregnancy. This can lead to the mother producing antibodies that may harm the baby by passing through the placenta and causing conditions like hydrops fetalis. Additionally, subsequent pregnancies may also be impacted.

      Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of suprapubic pain and fever. She has no significant medical or surgical history but takes a daily combined oral contraceptive pill and multivitamin. The surgical team orders a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis, which shows pelvic fat stranding and free fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease can be a challenging diagnosis for emergency practitioners, as it presents with vague abdominal pain that can be mistaken for a surgical or gynecological issue. While CT scans are not ideal for young patients due to the risk of radiation exposure to the sex organs, they can reveal common findings for pelvic inflammatory disease, such as free fluid in the pouch of Douglas, pelvic fat stranding, tubo-ovarian abscesses, and fallopian tube thickening of more than 5 mm. In contrast, CT scans for appendicitis may show appendiceal dilatation, thickening of the caecal apex with a bar sign, periappendiceal fat stranding and phlegmon, and focal wall nonenhancement in cases of gangrenous appendix. The most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In cases of appendicitis, Escherichia coli is the most likely causative organism, with rare cases caused by other organisms.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant pain and nausea that has persisted for 12 hours. She has oedema in her hands and feet, and a urine dip reveals protein 2+. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, and her most recent blood tests are as follows:

      - Hb: 95 g/l
      - Platelets: 60 * 109/l
      - WBC: 5.5 * 109/l
      - Bilirubin: 88 µmol/l
      - ALP: 526 u/l
      - ALT: 110 u/l

      What is the definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Delivery of the fetus

      Explanation:

      The woman has HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia. Management includes magnesium sulfate, dexamethasone, blood pressure control, and blood product replacement. Delivery of the fetus is the only cure.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old primigravida is having her 12-week booking appointment and is undergoing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primigravida is having her 12-week booking appointment and is undergoing a routine physical examination and blood tests. She has no significant medical or drug history and reports feeling well with no pregnancy-related symptoms. The physical examination is normal, but her urinalysis shows trace glycosuria.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-diabetes

      Correct Answer: Normal finding

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, there is a common occurrence of trace glycosuria due to the increase in glomerular filtration rate and decrease in the reabsorption of filtered glucose in the tubules. This means that glycosuria is not a reliable indicator of diabetes in pregnancy and is considered a normal finding.

      Gestational diabetes is characterized by carbohydrate intolerance leading to varying degrees of hyperglycemia during pregnancy. Risk factors include a history of gestational diabetes, obesity, family history of diabetes, previous macrosomia or polyhydramnios, and glycosuria of +1 on multiple occasions or ≥+2 on one occasion. Symptoms include polyhydramnios and glycosuria, and diagnosis is confirmed if fasting glucose levels are >5.6mmol/L or 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test results are >7.8mmol/L.

      Pre-diabetes and type 2 diabetes are typically diagnosed before pregnancy. Pre-diabetes is diagnosed with fasting glucose levels of 6.1-6.9 mmol/L or 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test results of 7.8-11.0mmol/L.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of vaginal bleeding, hot flashes,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of vaginal bleeding, hot flashes, and diarrhea. She is extremely anxious as she coughed up blood earlier in the day. The patient had a successful delivery of a healthy baby boy two months ago and has no significant medical history except for a previous miscarriage. An X-ray shows multiple infiltrates in both lung fields, leading the physician to suspect a malignancy related to her recent pregnancy.

      What is likely to be elevated in this 32-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: α-fetoprotein

      Correct Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of vaginal bleeding, hyperthyroidism, and chest pain suggest a possible diagnosis of choriocarcinoma, which is characterized by significantly elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin in the serum. Metastases to the lungs may explain the chest pain, while the hyperthyroidism may be due to cross-reactivity between hCG and TSH receptors. Alkaline phosphatase is a tumor marker associated with bone and liver metastases as well as germ cell tumors, while chromogranin is a marker for neuroendocrine tumors that can occur in various parts of the body.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

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  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old primigravida woman in her third trimester attends her antenatal appointment. During...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primigravida woman in her third trimester attends her antenatal appointment. During an ultrasound scan, it is discovered that the fetal abdominal circumference is smaller than expected. However, the fetal head circumference is normal and no congenital abnormalities are detected. The diagnosis is asymmetrical intrauterine growth restriction. What is the most probable cause of this condition in this case?

      Your Answer: Placental insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Placental insufficiency is linked to asymmetrical growth restriction in small for gestational age babies.

      When a fetus or infant experiences growth restriction, it can be categorized as either symmetrical or asymmetrical.

      Asymmetrical growth restriction occurs when the weight or abdominal circumference is lower than the head circumference. This is typically caused by inadequate nutrition from the placenta in the later stages of pregnancy, with brain growth being prioritized over liver glycogen and skin fat. Placental insufficiency is often associated with this type of growth restriction.

      Symmetrical growth restriction, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in head circumference that is equal to other measurements. This type of growth restriction is usually caused by factors such as congenital infection, fetal chromosomal disorder (such as Down syndrome), underlying maternal hypothyroidism, or malnutrition. It suggests a prolonged period of poor intrauterine growth that begins early in pregnancy.

      In reality, it is often difficult to distinguish between asymmetrical and symmetrical growth restriction.

      Small for Gestational Age (SGA) is a statistical definition used to describe babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age. Although there is no universally agreed percentile, the 10th percentile is often used, meaning that 10% of normal babies will be below this threshold. SGA can be determined either antenatally or postnatally. There are two types of SGA: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical SGA occurs when the fetal head circumference and abdominal circumference are equally small, while asymmetrical SGA occurs when the abdominal circumference slows relative to the increase in head circumference.

      There are various causes of SGA, including incorrect dating, constitutionally small (normal) babies, and abnormal fetuses. Symmetrical SGA is more common and can be caused by idiopathic factors, race, sex, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, toxins such as smoking and heroin, and infections such as CMV, parvovirus, rubella, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis. Asymmetrical SGA is less common and can be caused by toxins such as alcohol, cigarettes, and heroin, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, and infections.

      The management of SGA depends on the type and cause. For symmetrical SGA, most cases represent the lower limits of the normal range and require fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments to demonstrate normal growth rates. Pathological causes should be ruled out by checking maternal blood for infections and searching the fetus carefully with ultrasound for markers of chromosomal abnormality. Asymmetrical SGA also requires fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments, as well as biophysical profiles and Doppler waveforms from umbilical circulation to look for absent end-diastolic flow. If results are sub-optimal, delivery may be considered.

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  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old woman is undergoing treatment for metastatic breast cancer. The consultant is...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is undergoing treatment for metastatic breast cancer. The consultant is exploring hormonal therapies to restrict the spread of cancer in her body. Ultimately, she decides to prescribe an aromatase inhibitor.

      What is the mechanism of action of these medications?

      Your Answer: Inhibit secretion of gonadotropins from the anterior pituitary

      Correct Answer: Reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole and letrozole are medications that belong to the class of drugs known as aromatase inhibitors. These drugs are commonly used in the treatment of breast cancer as they work by reducing the production of oestrogen in the body. Aromatase is an enzyme that converts androgens into oestrogens, and these drugs inhibit this process, which typically occurs in adipose tissue.

      Tamoxifen is another medication used in the treatment of breast cancer. It works by blocking oestrogen receptors in breast tissue, which reduces the growth of breast cancer cells. However, tamoxifen can activate oestrogen receptors in other parts of the body, which increases the risk of endometrial cancer.

      GnRH analogues, such as goserelin, are used in the treatment of various types of cancer, including breast and prostate cancer. These drugs work by inhibiting the secretion of gonadotropins from the pituitary gland, which reduces the stimulation of the ovaries.

      Trastuzumab, also known as Herceptin, is a monoclonal antibody that is used to treat HER2-positive breast cancer. This drug works by binding to HER2 receptors, which are overexpressed in some breast cancer cells, and inhibiting their growth.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

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  • Question 13 - A 33-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with gestational...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes following an oral glucose tolerance test. What are the possible complications associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Microsomia and polyhydramnios

      Correct Answer: Macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the development of carbohydrate intolerance is referred to as gestational diabetes mellitus. To diagnose this condition, an OGTT is typically performed at 28 weeks, although it may be done earlier for those at higher risk (such as those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, with a BMI over 30, a history of stillbirth, or family members with diabetes). Diabetes during pregnancy can increase the likelihood of various complications, including macrosomia, polyhydramnios, shoulder dystocia, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, and neonatal hypoglycemia. Ebstein’s anomaly of the heart can occur as a result of lithium use during pregnancy, while prolonged rupture of membranes during pregnancy can lead to neonatal infection.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

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  • Question 14 - At 32 weeks gestation, a woman is in labour and the baby's head...

    Incorrect

    • At 32 weeks gestation, a woman is in labour and the baby's head is delivered. However, after a minute of gentle traction, the shoulders remain stuck. What is the initial step that should be taken to address shoulder dystocia once it has been identified?

      Your Answer: Urgent episiotomy

      Correct Answer: McRoberts manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old G3 P3 woman presents to her GP with complaints of heaviness...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old G3 P3 woman presents to her GP with complaints of heaviness and dragging sensation suggestive of prolapse after a forceps delivery last year.

      Which ligament has been damaged that runs between the cervix and lateral pelvic wall?

      Your Answer: Round ligament

      Correct Answer: Cardinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The cardinal ligament is responsible for connecting the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall. When this ligament, along with the uterosacral ligament, becomes weak, it can lead to uterine prolapse. It is important not to confuse the ovarian ligament, which connects the ovaries and uterus but does not contain blood vessels, with the suspensory ligament that contains the ovary’s neurovascular supply and connects the ovary, uterus, and pelvic wall. The pubocervical ligament, which connects the cervix to the posterior aspect of the pubic bone, can also weaken and cause vaginal prolapse. Finally, the round ligament connects the uterine fundus and the labia majora.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

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  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old girl has missed her period by 6 days, which is unusual...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has missed her period by 6 days, which is unusual given her regular 30-day cycle. She purchases a pregnancy test and receives a positive result. What substance is released upon fertilization of the egg to prevent polyspermy?

      Your Answer: Phosphate ions

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Fertilization happens when a sperm reaches an egg that has been released during ovulation. The process begins with the sperm penetrating the outer layer of the egg, called the corona radiata, using enzymes in the plasma membrane of its head. These enzymes bind to receptors on the next inner layer of the egg, called the zona pellucida, triggering the acrosome reaction. This reaction causes the acrosomal hydrolytic enzymes to digest the zona pellucida, creating a pathway to the egg’s plasma membrane. The sperm then enters the egg’s cytoplasm, and the two cells fuse together to form a diploid zygote. The sperm also stimulates the release of calcium ions from the cortical granules of the egg, which inactivate the receptors on the zona pellucida to prevent polyspermy. After fertilization, the zygote undergoes rapid mitotic cell divisions to form an embryo.

      The Process of Fertilisation

      Fertilisation is the process by which a sperm cell reaches and penetrates an egg cell that has been released during ovulation. The first step involves the sperm penetrating the corona radiata, which is the outer layer of the ovum, using enzymes in the plasma membrane of the sperm’s head. These enzymes bind to the ZP3 receptors on the zona pellucida, which is the next inner layer of the ovum, triggering the acrosome reaction. This reaction involves the acrosomal hydrolytic enzymes digesting the zona pellucida, creating a pathway to the ovum plasma membrane.

      Once the sperm enters the ovum cytoplasm, the two cells fuse together, resulting in the formation of a diploid zygote. The sperm also stimulates the release of calcium ions from the cortical granules of the ovum, which inactivate the ZP3 receptors to prevent polyspermy. After fertilisation, rapid mitotic cell divisions occur, resulting in the production of an embryo.

      In summary, fertilisation is a complex process that involves the penetration of the ovum by the sperm, the fusion of the two cells, and the subsequent development of the zygote into an embryo.

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  • Question 17 - At a routine check-up, a teenage girl is being educated by her physician...

    Correct

    • At a routine check-up, a teenage girl is being educated by her physician about the ovarian cycle. The physician informs her that the primordial follicles undergo modifications until they develop into mature follicles. What specific alteration indicates the conversion of the primordial follicle into a primary follicle?

      Your Answer: Development of the zona pellucida

      Explanation:

      The formation of the zona pellucida is a significant milestone in the growth of the ovarian follicle, indicating the transition from a primordial follicle to a primary follicle. As the follicle continues to develop, it undergoes several changes, each marking a different stage of growth.

      The stages of ovarian follicle development are as follows:

      1. Primordial follicles: These contain an oocyte and granulosa cells.

      2. Primary follicles: At this stage, the zona pellucida begins to form, and the granulosa cells start to proliferate.

      3. Pre-antral follicles: The theca develops during this stage.

      4. Mature/Graafian follicles: The antrum forms, marking the final stage of follicular growth.

      5. Corpus luteum: The oocyte is released due to the enzymatic breakdown of the follicular wall, and the corpus luteum forms.

      Anatomy of the Ovarian Follicle

      The ovarian follicle is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in female reproductive function. It consists of several components, including granulosa cells, the zona pellucida, the theca, the antrum, and the cumulus oophorus.

      Granulosa cells are responsible for producing oestradiol, which is essential for follicular development. Once the follicle becomes the corpus luteum, granulosa lutein cells produce progesterone, which is necessary for embryo implantation. The zona pellucida is a membrane that surrounds the oocyte and contains the protein ZP3, which is responsible for sperm binding.

      The theca produces androstenedione, which is converted into oestradiol by granulosa cells. The antrum is a fluid-filled portion of the follicle that marks the transition of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte. Finally, the cumulus oophorus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte that must be penetrated by spermatozoa for fertilisation to occur.

      Understanding the anatomy of the ovarian follicle is essential for understanding female reproductive function and fertility. Each component plays a unique role in the development and maturation of the oocyte, as well as in the processes of fertilisation and implantation.

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  • Question 18 - During a routine abdominal CT scan for abdominal discomfort and weight loss, a...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine abdominal CT scan for abdominal discomfort and weight loss, a 27-year-old gentleman is found to have enlarged para-aortic lymph nodes.

      Which part of his body should be examined for a possible cancer, considering the CT results?

      Your Answer: Prostate

      Correct Answer: Testes

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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  • Question 19 - At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP...

    Correct

    • At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP about the ovarian cycle. The GP informs her that the follicle generates hormones that prime the uterus for embryo implantation. What specific component of the follicle is responsible for this function?

      Your Answer: Granulosa cells

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Ovarian Follicle

      The ovarian follicle is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in female reproductive function. It consists of several components, including granulosa cells, the zona pellucida, the theca, the antrum, and the cumulus oophorus.

      Granulosa cells are responsible for producing oestradiol, which is essential for follicular development. Once the follicle becomes the corpus luteum, granulosa lutein cells produce progesterone, which is necessary for embryo implantation. The zona pellucida is a membrane that surrounds the oocyte and contains the protein ZP3, which is responsible for sperm binding.

      The theca produces androstenedione, which is converted into oestradiol by granulosa cells. The antrum is a fluid-filled portion of the follicle that marks the transition of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte. Finally, the cumulus oophorus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte that must be penetrated by spermatozoa for fertilisation to occur.

      Understanding the anatomy of the ovarian follicle is essential for understanding female reproductive function and fertility. Each component plays a unique role in the development and maturation of the oocyte, as well as in the processes of fertilisation and implantation.

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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman seeking to become pregnant is worried about experiencing two miscarriages....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman seeking to become pregnant is worried about experiencing two miscarriages. She is seeking guidance on how to improve her chances of a successful pregnancy. What factors are linked to miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Older paternal age

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is not caused by a single factor, but rather by a combination of risk factors. Women over the age of 35 and men over the age of 40 are at a significantly higher risk of experiencing a miscarriage. It is important to note that activities such as exercise, emotional stress, consuming spicy foods, and engaging in sexual intercourse do not increase the risk of miscarriage.

      Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology

      Miscarriage, also known as spontaneous abortion, refers to the natural expulsion of the products of conception before the 24th week of pregnancy. It is a common occurrence, with approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies ending in miscarriage during the early stages. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used instead of abortion.

      Studies show that up to 50% of conceptions fail to develop into a blastocyst within 14 days. This highlights the importance of early detection and monitoring during pregnancy. Additionally, recurrent spontaneous miscarriage affects approximately 1% of women, which can be a distressing and emotionally challenging experience.

      Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for women who experience this loss. With proper medical attention and emotional support, women can navigate through this difficult time and move forward with hope and healing.

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  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old G2P1 woman who is 7-weeks pregnant presents to the obstetric emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old G2P1 woman who is 7-weeks pregnant presents to the obstetric emergency department with severe vomiting and nausea. The patient explains that their symptoms started around 3 weeks ago, and are now vomiting up to 12 times a day.

      Her weight is recorded by the doctor, which shows a decrease of 5.5% from her usual weight.

      Investigations show the following results:

      Na+ 131 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Cl- 92 mmol/L (98-106)
      Urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 115 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Serum ketones 0.1 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L)

      What would be the expected results on an arterial blood gas (ABG)?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum causes significant electrolyte disturbances, leading to hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypochloraemia, and metabolic alkalosis. This is due to the severe nausea, vomiting, and weight loss experienced during pregnancy. While metabolic acidosis may occur in rare cases, it is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum, as blood tests do not indicate elevated ketone levels. A mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis is also not expected in these patients, as it is more commonly seen in those with COPD.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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  • Question 22 - A preteen girl presents with vaginal discharge and itching. She is subsequently diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A preteen girl presents with vaginal discharge and itching. She is subsequently diagnosed with preadolescent atrophic vaginitis which her doctor explains is because she has not yet entered adolescence. What is the underlying pathophysiology of preadolescent atrophic vaginitis?

      Your Answer: Lack of vaginal oestrogen causing infection-prone acidic environment

      Correct Answer: Lack of vaginal oestrogen causing infection-prone alkaline environment

      Explanation:

      The cause of prepubertal atrophic vaginitis is a deficiency of vaginal estrogen, making any response suggesting otherwise incorrect. This leads to an environment that is prone to infection due to its alkalinity, as estrogen boosts lactobacilli levels, which aid in the conversion of glucose to lactic acid. It is critical to consider this diagnosis when a prepubertal female patient complains of vaginal itching and discharge.

      Understanding Atrophic Vaginitis

      Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, painful intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The condition can be treated with vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. However, if these remedies do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor suspecting that she might be pregnant as...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor suspecting that she might be pregnant as she has missed her last two menstrual cycles. What hormone is expected to be present in the highest amount if her suspicion is true?

      Your Answer: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the role that hormones play during pregnancy.

      Endocrine Changes During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body, including endocrine changes. Progesterone, which is produced by the fallopian tubes during the first two weeks of pregnancy, stimulates the secretion of nutrients required by the zygote/blastocyst. At six weeks, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone, which inhibits uterine contractions by decreasing sensitivity to oxytocin and inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. Progesterone also stimulates the development of lobules and alveoli.

      Oestrogen, specifically oestriol, is another major hormone produced during pregnancy. It stimulates the growth of the myometrium and the ductal system of the breasts. Prolactin, which increases during pregnancy, initiates and maintains milk secretion of the mammary gland. It is essential for the expression of the mammotropic effects of oestrogen and progesterone. However, oestrogen and progesterone directly antagonize the stimulating effects of prolactin on milk synthesis.

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the syncitiotrophoblast and can be detected within nine days of pregnancy. It mimics LH, rescuing the corpus luteum from degenerating and ensuring early oestrogen and progesterone secretion. It also stimulates the production of relaxin and may inhibit contractions induced by oxytocin. Other hormones produced during pregnancy include relaxin, which suppresses myometrial contractions and relaxes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis, and human placental lactogen (hPL), which has lactogenic actions and enhances protein metabolism while antagonizing insulin.

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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman has recently received her first invitation for routine mammography and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has recently received her first invitation for routine mammography and wishes to discuss the potential risks and benefits. Can you explain how breast screening can detect cancers that may not have been clinically significant, resulting in unnecessary treatment? Additionally, for every woman whose life is saved through the breast cancer screening program, how many women are estimated to undergo treatment for breast cancer that would not have been life-threatening?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum mandates the capability to converse with patients about NHS screening programmes, as part of the objective to promote health and prevent disease. Over-diagnosis and over-treatment are the primary concerns associated with breast cancer screening. Research suggests that for every life saved by the screening programme, three women will receive treatment for a cancer that would not have posed a threat to their lives. Therefore, it is the woman’s personal decision to weigh the benefits against the risks when invited for routine screening.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

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  • Question 25 - A 57-year-old woman came to the breast clinic with a breast lump. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman came to the breast clinic with a breast lump. During the examination, a non-tender, irregular, 3 cm lump was palpated in the left upper quadrant. The diagnosis was ductal carcinoma in situ of the left breast. The oncology team was consulted, and the patient was started on anastrozole.

      What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Binds to human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) receptors

      Correct Answer: Reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole and letrozole are medications that inhibit the production of oestrogen in peripheral tissues through the enzyme aromatase. These drugs are commonly used to treat breast cancer in postmenopausal women.

      Trastuzumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets HER2 receptors on cancer cells, inhibiting their growth and proliferation. It is effective in treating HER2-positive breast cancer.

      Fulvestrant is a selective oestrogen receptor degrader that breaks down oestrogen receptors without activating them, unlike tamoxifen. This leads to downregulation of the receptor.

      Goserelin is an LHRH agonist that suppresses oestrogen production by the ovaries. It is often used as adjuvant therapy in premenopausal women.

      Tamoxifen is an antagonist (and partial agonist) of the oestrogen receptor. It is particularly useful in treating oestrogen-receptor positive breast cancer, especially in patients who have not yet gone through menopause.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts. Her periods have also become very irregular and she has not menstruated in the past 4 months. On further questioning, she reports not being sexually active since having a miscarriage 9 months ago which required surgical management. On examination, there are no palpable masses in her breasts bilaterally, she demonstrates a small amount of milky white discharge from her left nipple which is collected for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity. She has no focal neurological deficits, cardiac, and respiratory examination is unremarkable, and her abdominal examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of this patient’s amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea is a prolactinoma, which inhibits the secretion of GnRH and leads to low levels of oestrogen. Further tests, including a urinary pregnancy test and blood tests for various hormones, should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis. Asherman’s syndrome, intraductal papilloma, and pregnancy are less likely causes, as they do not present with the same symptoms or do not fit the patient’s reported history.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 11 weeks pregnant. Upon examination, there is evidence of bleeding, but the size of the uterus is consistent with the given dates, and the cervical os is closed. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?

      Your Answer: Incomplete miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is the loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week. It is a common occurrence, with about 10-20% of pregnancies ending in miscarriage. In most cases, the cause of miscarriage is unknown, but it can be due to genetic abnormalities, hormonal imbalances, or health conditions such as diabetes or thyroid problems.

      There are different types of miscarriage, including complete, incomplete, inevitable, and septic. A complete miscarriage is when all fetal tissue has been passed, bleeding has stopped, the uterus is no longer enlarged, and the cervical os is closed. An incomplete miscarriage is when only some fetal parts have been passed, and the cervical os is usually open. An inevitable miscarriage means that a miscarriage is about to occur, with the fetus still possibly alive but the cervical os open and bleeding usually heavier. A septic miscarriage occurs when the contents of the uterus are infected, causing endometritis. Symptoms include offensive vaginal loss, tender uterus, and in cases of pelvic infection, abdominal pain and peritonism.

      Types of Miscarriage

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur during pregnancy. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. One type is threatened miscarriage, which is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. This type of miscarriage complicates up to 25% of all pregnancies.

      Another type is missed (delayed) miscarriage, which is characterized by a gestational sac that contains a dead fetus before 20 weeks without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge and the disappearance of pregnancy symptoms, but pain is not usually present. The cervical os is closed, and when the gestational sac is larger than 25 mm and no embryonic or fetal part can be seen, it is sometimes referred to as a blighted ovum or anembryonic pregnancy.

      Inevitable miscarriage is another type, which is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain. The cervical os is open in this case. Lastly, incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled. This type of miscarriage is characterized by pain and vaginal bleeding, and the cervical os is open. Understanding the different types of miscarriage can help individuals recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate medical attention.

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  • Question 28 - A woman in her early menopausal stage is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT)...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early menopausal stage is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT) by her physician to relieve her symptoms, which includes both oestrogen and progesterone components. However, the physician cautions her about the potential complications associated with HRT. What is the complication that this woman is at a higher risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Vulval cancer

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      The use of HRT is associated with a higher likelihood of thrombotic events, including stroke. This is due to platelet aggregation, which is distinct from the accumulation of cholesterol that primarily contributes to atheroma formation. HRT does not elevate the risk of thrombocytopaenia or vulval cancer, and the inclusion of progesterone in the HRT helps to reduce the risk of developing endometrial cancer.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner due to ongoing investigations for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner due to ongoing investigations for infertility. She has a BMI of 32 kg/m² and noticeable facial hair on her upper lip. A recent transvaginal ultrasound scan revealed the presence of numerous cystic lesions on her ovaries.

      What is the probable reason behind her infertility?

      Your Answer: Hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation

      Correct Answer: Normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation

      Explanation:

      The most common type of ovulatory disorder is normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, which is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). This condition is characterized by normal levels of gonadotropin and estrogen, but low levels of FSH during the follicular phase can lead to anovulation. It is important to perform a thorough evaluation of both male and female factors when investigating infertility. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, which is characterized by low levels of GnRH or pituitary unresponsiveness to GnRH, resulting in low gonadotropins and low estrogen, is seen in conditions such as amenorrhea due to low weight, stress, or Sheehan syndrome. Uterine abnormalities, such as fibroids, may also contribute to infertility, but this is not consistent with the clinical findings in this case. Hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation, which is characterized by high levels of gonadotropins but unresponsive ovaries and low estrogen levels, is more commonly seen in conditions such as Turner’s syndrome, primary ovarian failure, or ovary damage.

      Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories

      Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.

      There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

      One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old woman who has given birth twice visits her doctor due to...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman who has given birth twice visits her doctor due to a two-week history of white vaginal discharge. She reports no other symptoms and feels generally healthy. She recently switched to a different soap and wonders if this could be the cause. She is taking birth control pills and is in a stable relationship with her spouse.

      During the examination, a strong fishy odor is present, and a gray discharge is visible that does not stick to the vaginal lining. The rest of the exam is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Vaginosis and Other Causes of Vaginal Discharge

      Vaginal discharge is a common concern among women, and bacterial vaginosis (BV) is the most common non-STI-related cause. BV occurs when there is an imbalance in the normal flora of the vaginal mucosa, which is mostly made up of Lactobacilli. These bacteria produce hydrogen peroxide, which helps to maintain a healthy pH level in the vagina by killing off anaerobes. However, disruptions to the normal flora, such as the use of new products or hormonal imbalances, can lead to the death of Lactobacilli and an increase in pH. This creates an environment where anaerobes like Gardnerella vaginalis can thrive and cause BV.

      Candidiasis, caused by the fungus Candida albicans, is the second most common cause of non-STI-related vaginal discharge. It is characterized by thick white curds attached to the vaginal mucosa and is often associated with vulval itching. However, this patient does not describe these symptoms.

      It is important to note that sexually transmitted infections like chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and trichomoniasis can also cause vaginal discharge. However, there is no indication in this patient’s clinical history that she may be affected by any of these infections. the causes of vaginal discharge can help women identify when they need to seek medical attention and receive appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      41.5
      Seconds

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