-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain. His mother reports that the left testicle is swollen, higher than the right, and extremely tender to touch. The patient denies any urinary symptoms and is not running a fever. The pain began about 2 hours ago, and the cremasteric reflex is absent. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Urgent ultrasound testes
Correct Answer: Emergency surgical exploration
Explanation:Testicular torsion is a serious urological emergency that typically presents with classical symptoms in young boys. It is important to note that this condition is diagnosed based on clinical examination. In this case, since the patient has been experiencing pain for only two hours, the most appropriate course of action is to immediately proceed to emergency surgery for scrotal exploration. Delaying treatment beyond 4-6 hours can result in irreversible damage to the testicle. While an ultrasound may be useful for painless testicular swelling, it is not appropriate in this scenario. Additionally, IV antibiotics may be administered for orchitis, but this is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms as they are not experiencing a fever.
Testicular cancer is the most common malignancy in men aged 20-30 years, with germ-cell tumours being the most common type. Seminomas and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours are the two main subtypes, with different key features and tumour markers. Risk factors include cryptorchidism, infertility, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound and CT scanning, and treatment involves orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy. Benign testicular disorders include epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, and hydrocele.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 4-week-old girl is brought to the paediatric emergency department with a fever, vomiting and reduced appetite for the past 48 hours. The baby's growth and development have been normal so far. During the examination, the baby appears lethargic and fussy, with a respiratory rate that is faster than normal and a temperature of 39ºC. Blood pressure and pulse rate are within the normal range, and there are no signs of raised intracranial pressure. The medical team suspects bacterial meningitis and performs a lumbar puncture. What should be done while waiting for the lumbar puncture results?
Your Answer: Start empirical antibiotics only
Explanation:It is not recommended to use corticosteroids in children under 3 months of age who have suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis. The most common organisms causing bacterial meningitis vary depending on the age of the child. For neonates up to 3 months old, Group B streptococcus, E.coli, and Listeria monocytogenes are the most common. For children between 1 month and 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common. For children over 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common. In older children with bacterial meningitis, dexamethasone may reduce the risk of hearing loss, particularly in those with Hib meningitis. However, it should be avoided in children under 3 months old with suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis, as well as those with certain central nervous system abnormalities or nonbacterial meningitis. Activated protein C and recombinant bacterial permeability-increasing protein should not be used in children and young people with meningococcal septicaemia. Treatment should not be delayed for a CT scan, as bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not currently recommended for the management of meningitis.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a 3 days history of painful swelling in the right eye.
On examination, the girl appears agitated and is crying continuously. Her temperature is 38.5°C and other vital signs are within normal limits. On examination of the affected eye, the eyelid is swollen and red. Proptosis of the right eye is observed, and there seems to be limited ocular movement as well. The globe is unaffected, and the other eye is normal. There are no signs of systemic involvement.
What imaging modality should be performed to confirm the most probable diagnosis and assess for potential complications?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of the affected eye and orbit
Correct Answer: Contrast enhanced-CT scan of the orbits, sinuses and brain
Explanation:If there is suspicion of orbital cellulitis, a CT scan with contrast should be conducted to evaluate the potential spread of infection to the posterior region. The presence of symptoms such as limited ocular movement and proptosis indicates a higher likelihood of orbital cellulitis rather than periorbital cellulitis. In cases where orbital cellulitis is suspected, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the sinuses, brain, and orbits should be considered to confirm the diagnosis and identify any potential complications, such as abscesses that may require surgical drainage. Plain skull X-rays are typically used to detect facial bone fractures or metallic foreign bodies in trauma cases. Optical coherence tomography (OCT) is not relevant in this scenario as it is a non-invasive imaging test used to take cross-sectional images of the retina. Ultrasound scans of the eye and orbit are commonly used in cases of eye area injury or trauma. CT venography is performed when cavernous sinus thrombosis is suspected.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of widespread pain, stiffness, and subjective weakness to her shoulders bilaterally. Getting dressed in the morning is taking longer, sometimes up to 45 minutes due to her symptoms. She denies any scalp tenderness or jaw claudication.
Upon examination, there is no objective weakness identified in her upper and lower limbs. No erythema or swelling is visible in her shoulders. Passive motion of her shoulders bilaterally improves her pain.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Upon examination, there is no actual weakness observed in the limb girdles of individuals with polymyalgia rheumatica. Any perceived weakness is likely due to myalgia, which is pain-induced inhibition.
The most probable diagnosis for this case is polymyalgia rheumatica due to several factors. The patient’s gradual onset of symmetrical symptoms and demographic align with this condition. The subjective weakness reported is most likely due to pain rather than objective weakness, which is typical of polymyalgia rheumatica. If there were any visible deformities or true weakness, it would suggest a different diagnosis.
Rotator cuff tendinopathy would not typically present with symmetrical features or significant morning stiffness. Cervical myelopathy would likely reveal objective weakness and other symptoms such as clumsiness, numbness, or paraesthesia. Fibromyalgia is an unlikely diagnosis as it does not usually present with morning stiffness and is less common as a first presentation in this age group.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents one week following delivery with some concerns about breastfeeding. She is exclusively breastfeeding at present, but the baby has lost weight (400 g) and she finds breastfeeding difficult and painful. The baby weighed 3200 grams at the time of birth. There is pain in both nipples, worse at the beginning of the feed, and clicking noises are heard when the baby is feeding. She sometimes has to stop feeding because of the discomfort.
On examination, the breasts are engorged and there is no area of erythema or tenderness. The nipples appear normal, and there is no discharge or erythema.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?Your Answer: Flucloxacillin for 10–14 days
Correct Answer: Refer to a breastfeeding specialist for assessment
Explanation:Management of Breastfeeding Difficulties: Referral to a Specialist for Assessment
Breastfeeding is a crucial process for the health and well-being of both the mother and the infant. However, some mothers may experience difficulties, such as poor latch, which can lead to pain, discomfort, and inadequate feeding. In such cases, it is essential to seek professional help from a breastfeeding specialist who can assess the situation and offer advice and support.
One of the key indicators of poor latch is pain in both nipples, especially at the beginning of the feed, accompanied by clicking noises from the baby, indicating that they are chewing on the nipple. Additionally, if the baby has lost weight, it may be a sign that they are not feeding enough. On the other hand, a good latch is characterized by a wide-open mouth of the baby, with its chin touching the breast and the nose free, less areola seen under the chin than over the nipple, the lips rolled out, and the absence of pain. The mother should also listen for visible and audible swallowing sounds.
In cases where there is no evidence of skin conditions or nipple infection, the patient does not require any treatment at present. However, if there is suspicion of a fungal infection of the nipple, presenting with sharp pain and itching of the nipples, associated with erythema and worsening of the pain after the feeds, topical miconazole may be recommended. Similarly, if there is psoriasis of the nipple and areola, presenting as raised, red plaques with an overlying grey-silver scale, regular emollients may be advised.
It is important to note that flucloxacillin is not recommended in cases where there is no evidence of infection, such as ductal infection or mastitis. Moreover, nipple shields are not recommended as they often exacerbate the poor positioning and symptoms associated with poor latch.
In summary, seeking professional help from a breastfeeding specialist is crucial in managing breastfeeding difficulties, especially poor latch. The specialist can observe the mother breastfeeding, offer advice, and ensure that the method is improved to allow successful feeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident and Emergency with difficulty breathing. On arrival, his saturations were 76% on air, pulse 118 bpm and blood pressure 112/72 mmHg. He was given nebulised bronchodilators and started on 6 litres of oxygen, which improved his saturations up to 96%. He is more comfortable now, but a bit confused.
What should be the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Antibiotics
Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas
Explanation:Management of Acute Exacerbation of COPD: Considerations and Interventions
When managing a patient with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), it is important to consider various interventions based on the patient’s clinical presentation. In this case, the patient has increased oxygen saturations, which may be contributing to confusion. It is crucial to avoid over-administration of oxygen, as it may worsen breathing function. An arterial blood gas can guide oxygen therapy and help determine the appropriate treatment, such as reducing oxygen concentration or initiating steroid therapy.
IV aminophylline may be considered if nebulisers and steroids have not been effective, but it is not necessary in this case. Pulmonary function testing is not beneficial in immediate management. Intubation is not currently indicated, as the patient’s confusion is likely due to excessive oxygen administration.
Antibiotics may be necessary if there is evidence of infection, but in this case, an arterial blood gas is the most important step. Overall, management of acute exacerbation of COPD requires careful consideration of the patient’s clinical presentation and appropriate interventions based on their individual needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man with a long history of ulcerative colitis (UC) presents to the clinic for evaluation. Although his inflammatory bowel disease is currently under control, he reports experiencing increased lethargy and itching. During the physical examination, his blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 68 bpm. The patient displays mildly jaundiced sclerae and evidence of scratch marks on his skin.
Lab Results:
Test Result Normal Range
Hemoglobin 112g/L 135–175 g/L
White blood cell count (WBC) 8.9 × 109/L 4–11 × 109/L
Platelets 189 × 109/L 150–400 × 109/L
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/L 135–145 mmol/L
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/L 3.5–5.0 mmol/L
Creatinine 115 μmol/L 50–120 µmol/L
Alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L 30–130 IU/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 205 U/L 5–30 IU/L
Bilirubin 80 μmol/L 2–17 µmol/L
Ultrasound Evidence of bile duct dilation
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)
Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
Explanation:Differentiating Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis from Other Liver Conditions
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects the liver and bile ducts, causing autoimmune sclerosis and irregularities in the biliary diameter. Patients with PSC may present with deranged liver function tests, jaundice, itching, and chronic fatigue. PSC is more common in men, and up to 50% of patients with PSC also have ulcerative colitis (UC). Ultrasound, endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) can show intrahepatic biliary duct stricture and dilation, often with extrahepatic duct involvement. Cholangiocarcinoma is a long-term risk in cases of PSC.
Alcoholic-related cirrhosis is a possibility, but it is unlikely in the absence of a history of alcohol excess. Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an autoimmune condition that causes destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts, resulting in a cholestatic pattern of jaundice. PBC mostly affects middle-aged women and does not cause bile duct dilation on ultrasound. Ascending cholangitis is a medical emergency that presents with a triad of jaundice, fever, and right upper quadrant tenderness. Autoimmune hepatitis most often occurs in middle-aged women presenting with general malaise, anorexia, and weight loss of insidious onset, with abnormal liver function tests. It normally causes hepatitis, rather than cholestasis.
In summary, differentiating PSC from other liver conditions requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and diagnostic tests.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old pregnant woman has a vaginal swab taken at 34 weeks gestation despite being asymptomatic. She informs you that during her previous pregnancy a bacteria which can cause sepsis in babies was detected on one of her swabs, which is why she needs to be tested again.
The microbiology report reads as follows:
Sample: Positive (awaiting sensitivities)
Gram stain: Positive
Morphology: Cocci in chains
Growth requirements: Facultative anaerobe
What is the most likely organism present based on this report?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Streptococcus agalactiae
Explanation:Mothers who have previously tested positive for Group B Streptococcus during pregnancy should be given intravenous antibiotics as a preventative measure during labor or offered testing in late pregnancy and given antibiotics if the test is positive. Group B Streptococcus is a bacterium that can cause severe infections in newborns, including pneumonia and meningitis. It is a Gram-positive coccus that forms chains and is a facultative anaerobe. In contrast, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative, diplococcus that requires oxygen to grow and is associated with conjunctivitis in newborns. Clostridium difficile is a Gram-positive, anaerobic bacillus that causes diarrheal illness, not neonatal sepsis.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension following a rugby injury. During the game, he was tackled from the side and experienced intense pain in his left lower rib cage. On examination, the patient has a pulse of 140 bpm and a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg. There is visible bruising over the left flank and tenderness upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Splenic rupture
Explanation:High Impact Injuries to the Left Flank
High impact injuries to the left flank can result in damage to the spleen or kidney, as well as the ribs and soft tissue. If the patient experiences fractured ribs and hypotension, it is important to suspect a spleen rupture. Fluid resuscitation can be used to determine if the patient responds positively, and a CT scan can be arranged to confirm the diagnosis. Based on the injury grade and physical parameters, a decision can be made to either manage the injury conservatively or operate.
Observation should be conducted in a High Dependency Unit (HDU) setting initially to ensure that any deterioration in haemodynamic parameters can be addressed promptly. CT scans are also useful in trauma cases to rule out other injuries, such as hollow visceral injuries that would require a laparotomy. Renal trauma typically does not cause hypotension unless other organs are also injured, and aortic dissection would require more force.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male, who is breastfeeding, came in with mastitis symptoms. During the examination, erythema was observed around the nipple. The patient was prescribed flucloxacillin and an analgesic. What analgesic should be avoided in this case?
Your Answer: Dihydrocodeine
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers should steer clear of aspirin
Breastfeeding mothers are advised against taking aspirin, especially in high doses for pain relief. This is because aspirin has been linked to Reye’s syndrome, a condition that can result in liver and brain harm.
Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an irregularly irregular and tachycardic pulse, and a systolic murmur is heard on auscultation. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and right axis deviation, while an echocardiogram shows an atrial septal defect.
What is the process of atrial septum formation?Your Answer: The foramen ovale is a physiological defect in the septum primum in the fetus
Correct Answer: The septum secundum grows down to the right of the septum primum
Explanation:During embryonic development, the septum primum grows down from the roof of the primitive atrium and fuses with the endocardial cushions. It initially has a hole called the ostium primum, which closes as the septum grows downwards. However, a second hole called the ostium secundum develops in the septum primum before fusion can occur. The septum secundum then grows downwards and to the right of the septum primum and ostium secundum. The foramen ovale is a passage through the septum secundum that allows blood to shunt from the right to the left atrium in the fetus, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. This defect closes at birth due to a drop in pressure within the pulmonary circulation after the infant takes a breath. If there is overlap between the foramen ovale and ostium secundum or if the ostium primum fails to close, an atrial septal defect results. This defect does not cause cyanosis because oxygenated blood flows from left to right through the defect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room unconscious with a long history of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations reveal elevated levels of sodium, potassium, urea, and glucose. What is the osmolality?
Your Answer: 442
Explanation:Understanding Plasma Osmolality and its Clinical Significance
Plasma osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the blood and is an important indicator of a patient’s clinical state. To calculate plasma osmolality, the equation 2 [Na+ + K+] + [urea] + [glucose] is used. The normal osmolality of extracellular fluid is 280-290 mOsm/kg.
A high plasma osmolality may indicate conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, caused by undiagnosed diabetes, or high blood ethanol, methanol, or ethylene glycol. On the other hand, low plasma osmolality may be caused by excess fluid intake, hyponatremia, SIADH, or paraneoplastic syndromes.
It is important to identify the cause of abnormal plasma osmolality as it can help guide appropriate treatment. For example, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state requires urgent fluid resuscitation and insulin, while hyponatremia may require fluid restriction or medication to correct.
Overall, understanding plasma osmolality and its clinical significance can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye. He has been encountering flashes/floaters and spider webs for the past 2 days, and now there is some darkening on the periphery of vision. Additionally, he has observed that straight lines appear somewhat jagged. There is no associated pain or injury. The patient is in good health and has no chronic medical conditions.
What is the probable diagnosis for the aforementioned symptoms?Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:If you experience peripheral vision loss accompanied by spider webs and flashing lights, it could be a sign of retinal detachment. This condition is often described as a curtain coming down over your vision and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Additionally, you may notice floaters or string-like shapes, and straight lines may appear distorted due to the retina detaching from the choroid.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old teacher comes to the general practitioner (GP) worried about her risk of developing Alzheimer's disease. Her father has been diagnosed with an advanced form of the condition, and although she has no symptoms, the patient is anxious, as she has heard recently that the condition can be inherited.
Which one of the following statements regarding Alzheimer's disease is true?Your Answer: It accounts for 30–40% of all cases of dementia
Correct Answer: It is more common in women than men
Explanation:Myth Busting: Common Misconceptions About Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about the disease that need to be addressed:
1. It is more common in women than men: While it is true that women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s disease, it is not entirely clear why. It is thought that this may be due to the fact that women generally live longer than men.
2. The familial variant is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder: This is incorrect. The familial variant of Alzheimer’s disease is typically inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder.
3. It accounts for 30-40% of all cases of dementia: Alzheimer’s disease is actually responsible for approximately 60% of all cases of dementia.
4. The onset is rare after the age of 75: Onset of Alzheimer’s disease typically increases with age, and it is not uncommon for people to develop the disease after the age of 75.
5. It cannot be inherited: This is a myth. While not all cases of Alzheimer’s disease are inherited, there are certain genetic mutations that can increase a person’s risk of developing the disease.
It is important to dispel these myths and educate ourselves about the true nature of Alzheimer’s disease. By understanding the facts, we can better support those affected by the disease and work towards finding a cure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man has been referred to the chest clinic for a cough and haemoptysis. However, he presents to the Emergency department with the worst headache of his life, along with facial swelling and nasal stuffiness. Upon examination, there is significant swelling of his head and neck. Which vein is most likely to have been obstructed?
Your Answer: Right subclavian vein
Correct Answer: Superior vena cava (SVC)
Explanation:Obstruction of the Superior Vena Cava
The superior vena cava (SVC) is a relatively short vessel that runs along the right side of the mediastinum and drains into the right atrium. However, due to its location surrounded by rigid structures, the SVC is prone to compression, invasion, or involvement in inflammatory conditions. Obstruction of the SVC is a recognized complication of bronchial carcinoma and can cause venous congestion and pressure in the head and neck. Collateral routes can develop to help with drainage, but if obstruction occurs more quickly than collateral, pressure rises, and symptoms such as facial congestion, oedema, and distended veins can occur.
Initial treatment involves glucocorticoids to decrease the inflammatory response to tumour invasion and oedema surrounding the tissue mass. However, this can only buy time to allow tissue diagnosis and a plan for further intervention, such as radiotherapy, to be made. Obstruction of the SVC can be caused by malignant or benign disease, with bronchogenic carcinoma being the most common malignant cause, followed by non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Benign causes of obstruction of SVC include fibrotic disease, infections, thoracic aortic aneurysms, central venous catheters, and pacemaker wires.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset palpitation and chest pain that began 1 hour ago. The palpitation is constant and is not alleviated or aggravated by anything. She is worried that something serious is happening to her. She recently experienced conflict at home with her husband and left home the previous day to stay with her sister. She denies any medication or recreational drug use. Past medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs are within normal limits, except for a heart rate of 180 bpm. Electrocardiography shows narrow QRS complexes that are regularly spaced. There are no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage results in recovery of normal sinus rhythm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Tachycardia
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a sudden-onset tachycardia with a heart rate of 180 bpm, regularly spaced narrow QRS complexes, and no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage or adenosine administration can diagnose PSVT, which is commonly caused by atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia.
Sinus tachycardia is characterized by normal P waves preceding each QRS complex. Atrial flutter is less common than atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia and generally does not respond to carotid massage. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly spaced QRS complexes and does not respond to carotid massage. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia is associated with wide QRS complexes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
Sarah, a 44-year-old taxi driver, visits her GP 4 months after being involved in a car accident. During the consultation, the GP takes a thorough psychiatric history. Sarah is unable to recall the specifics of the accident, but the thought of driving her car causes her to feel anxious. Consequently, she avoids driving whenever possible, which worries her as it may impact her income.
Further investigation by the GP reveals that Sarah has been compulsively buying clothes and electronics online. Additionally, she has been relying on her sister and son to help with household tasks such as cooking and cleaning due to a lack of motivation. Sarah's sister has also noted that she has been crossing busy roads recklessly on several occasions.
Which aspect of Sarah's history provides the strongest indication of a PTSD diagnosis?Your Answer: Avoidance of driving
Explanation:PTSD is characterized by several common features, including re-experiencing of the traumatic event through flashbacks and nightmares, avoidance of triggering situations or people, and hyperarousal such as hypervigilance and sleep disturbances. Those with PTSD may avoid situations that cause anxiety related to the traumatic event, as well as certain individuals or objects. While disordered mood and thinking are present in PTSD, individuals with the disorder often remember specific details of the traumatic event in vivid detail. Compulsive behavior is not a recognized symptom of PTSD, but may be present in other psychiatric conditions such as bipolar disorder. While increased reliance on family members is not a recognized feature of PTSD, individuals with the disorder may experience difficulties in relationships and interpersonal interactions.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man with metastatic cancer of the prostate is experiencing breakthrough pain in between his oral morphine doses. The Palliative Care team is consulted to evaluate the patient and modify or supplement his medications to improve pain management.
What is the analgesic with the longest duration of action?Your Answer: Oramorph® SR oral
Correct Answer: Fentanyl transdermal
Explanation:Comparison of Duration of Analgesic Effects of Different Opioids
When it comes to managing pain, opioids are often prescribed. However, different opioids have varying durations of analgesic effects. Here is a comparison of the duration of analgesic effects of some commonly used opioids:
– Transdermal fentanyl: This option has the longest duration of analgesic effect, lasting for 48-72 hours.
– Oral Oramorph® SR: This slow-release option has an effect that lasts for 8-12 hours.
– Oral oxycodone: This option has an effect that lasts for 3-6 hours.
– Oral hydromorphone: This option has a duration of action of 3-6 hours.
– Oral methadone: This option has an effect that lasts for 3-8 hours.It is important to note that the duration of analgesic effect can vary depending on factors such as the individual’s metabolism and the dosage prescribed. It is crucial to follow the prescribing physician’s instructions and to report any adverse effects or concerns.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 29-year-old primiparous woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes in for a consultation after her foetal anomaly scan revealed polyhydramnios and a midline sac containing bowel. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. She had planned for a home birth and is now concerned about how this condition will affect her delivery.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer: Schedule an elective caesarean section
Explanation:If a foetus is diagnosed with exomphalos before birth, it is recommended to schedule and perform a caesarean section at term to reduce the risk of sac rupture, infection, and atresia. While a ward delivery provides access to theatres, specific surgical planning is necessary to minimize complications. Instrumental delivery in theatre does not decrease the risk of sac rupture. It is important to explain to the mother why hospital delivery is necessary and the risks associated with a home birth. Induction of labour at 37 weeks is not advisable as it increases the risk of complications during vaginal delivery.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and an unintentional 25 lb weight loss over the last 4 months. He reports a medical history significant for mild asthma controlled with an albuterol inhaler as needed. He takes no other medications and has no allergies. He has a 55 pack-year smoking history and has worked as a naval shipyard worker for 40 years. Examination reveals diffuse crackles in the posterior lung fields bilaterally and there is dullness to percussion one-third of the way up the right lung field. Ultrasound reveals free fluid in the pleural space.
Which one of the following set of test values is most consistent with this patient’s presentation?
(LDH: lactate dehydrogenase)
Option LDH plasma LDH pleural Protein plasma Protein pleural
A 180 100 7 3
B 270 150 8 3
C 180 150 7 4
D 270 110 8 3
E 180 100 7 2Your Answer: Option B
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:Interpreting Light’s Criteria for Pleural Effusions
When evaluating a patient with a history of occupational exposure and respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pneumoconiosis, specifically asbestosis. Chronic exposure to asbestos can lead to primary bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma. Chest radiography may reveal radio-opaque pleural and diaphragmatic plaques. In this case, the patient’s dyspnea, hemoptysis, and weight loss suggest primary lung cancer, with a likely malignant pleural effusion observed under ultrasound.
To confirm the exudative nature of the pleural effusion, Light’s criteria can be used. These criteria include a pleural:serum protein ratio >0.5, a pleural:serum LDH ratio >0.6, and pleural LDH more than two-thirds the upper limit of normal serum LDH. Meeting any one of these criteria indicates an exudative effusion.
Option C is the correct answer as it satisfies Light’s criteria for an exudative pleural effusion. Options A, B, D, and E do not meet the criteria. Understanding Light’s criteria can aid in the diagnosis and management of pleural effusions, particularly in cases where malignancy is suspected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 38-year-old mother attends her first antenatal appointment at eight weeks’ gestation. This is her first pregnancy. She has no past medical history and is taking regular folic acid. She is offered antenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities, including Down syndrome.
What test is used in antenatal screening for Down syndrome for a 38-year-old mother?Your Answer: Nuchal thickness
Explanation:Prenatal Screening Tests: Understanding Their Uses and Limitations
During pregnancy, various screening tests are conducted to assess the health of the fetus and identify any potential risks. Here are some commonly used prenatal screening tests and their uses and limitations:
Nuchal Thickness: This test measures the subcutaneous fluid-filled sac between the back of the neck and the underlying skin. An increase in thickness is associated with a decreasing chance of a normal birth. While it can detect 60-70% of cases of Down syndrome, it is not specific to this condition.
Pregnancy-Associated Plasma Protein A (PAPP-A): Low levels of PAPP-A, in combination with free β-hCG, can diagnose Down syndrome with 65% accuracy.
Utero-Placental Doppler: This test studies the blood flow in the utero-placental blood vessels and can identify women at risk of pre-eclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction.
Biparietal Diameter (BPD): This test measures the diameter across the skull and is associated with neurodevelopmental outcomes.
Ultrasound Assessment for Herniation of Dural Sac: This test screens for spina bifida and is usually evident during antenatal ultrasound.
Dehydroepiandrosterone Sulfate: This test measures adrenal androgen levels and is not influenced by a developing pregnancy.
It is important to note that these tests have their limitations and may not provide a definitive diagnosis. Further testing may be required for confirmation. It is recommended to discuss the results and implications of these tests with a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe crushing pain in his chest and left shoulder that has been ongoing for 2 hours. Despite taking sublingual nitroglycerin, the pain persists, and his electrocardiogram shows ST elevation in multiple leads. Due to preexisting renal impairment, primary percutaneous intervention (PCI) is not an option, and he is started on medical management in the Coronary Care Unit. The following day, his serum cardiac enzymes are found to be four times higher than the upper limit of normal, and his electrocardiographic changes remain.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Subendocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Transmural infarction
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Myocardial Infarction and Angina
When a patient presents with elevated serum cardiac enzymes and typical myocardial pain, it is likely that a myocardial infarction has occurred. If the ST elevation is limited to a few leads, it is indicative of a transmural infarction caused by the occlusion of a coronary artery. On the other hand, severely hypotensive patients who are hospitalized typically experience a more generalized subendocardial infarction.
Unstable angina, which is characterized by chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion, does not cause a rise in cardiac enzymes or ST elevation. Similarly, Prinzmetal angina, which is caused by coronary artery spasm, would not result in a marked increase in serum enzymes.
Stable angina, which is chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medication, is not associated with ST elevation or a rise in cardiac enzymes.
Subendocardial infarction, which affects most ECG leads, usually occurs in the setting of shock. It is important to differentiate between the different types of myocardial infarction and angina in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. She states that she has not experienced any changes in her vision. Upon examining her eyelids, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid edges that are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If these measures are not effective, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.
Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painful area on the eyelid, which settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can encourage drainage.
Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis present with conjunctival erythema, watery/discharging eye, and a gritty sensation. Most cases are self-limiting, but some patients will require topical antibiotics if symptoms have not resolved.
Entropion: This condition is when the margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.
Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, in which case plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 14-year-old girl comes to see you, the practice nurse, after getting an open wound on her right arm while playing basketball. Upon examination, you find a 5 cm wound that is dirty and contains dirt. What is the best course of action for tetanus vaccination in this patient?
Your Answer: If his immunisation status is uncertain he should receive tetanus immunoglobulin and vaccine
Explanation:Tetanus Vaccination and Treatment for Tetanus Prone Wounds
When it comes to tetanus vaccination, individuals who have completed the full five-course of the vaccine are not recommended to receive any further doses if they suffer a tetanus prone wound. However, there is some disagreement over whether or not to administer Tetanus Immune Globulin (TIG) to those who are known to be fully immunized. Some sources suggest giving TIG for all high-risk wounds, while others recommend it only if five years have passed since the last dose. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action in the event of a tetanus prone wound. Proper vaccination and treatment can prevent the potentially fatal effects of tetanus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Practice
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man who works for a pest control company presents to the Emergency Department with profuse diarrhoea, vomiting and hypersalivation. On examination, you observe bilateral constriction of the pupils, excess lacrimation, salivation and muscle fasciculations. His heart rate is 34 bpm and his blood pressure is 86/52 mmHg. He is promptly transferred to the intensive care unit for suspected acute organophosphate poisoning. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Atropine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Organophosphate Poisoning: Atropine Therapy
Organophosphate poisoning is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The main therapeutic option for this condition is IV atropine therapy. Atropine works by blocking the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors, which reverses the muscarinic effect seen in toxicity. This effect includes symptoms such as diarrhoea, miosis, bradycardia, bronchorrhoea, emesis, and hypotension.
While the patient may be cardiovascularly unstable, boluses of 0.9% saline are unlikely to benefit the patient significantly. The definitive treatment is with atropine and oximes. Benzodiazepines are used in the treatment of seizures, which are common in severe organophosphate poisoning. However, seizures are not an active issue in this patient, so other therapeutic agents should be prioritised.
Pralidoxime chloride is an oxime that works to reactivate the inhibited acetylcholinesterase. While it has a role in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning, it should not take priority over atropine therapy. Atropine is essential to reverse the muscarinic effects associated with toxicity, including bradycardia, which in this case is causing haemodynamic instability.
Tropicamide is a mydriatic medication that may temporarily reverse the miosis seen within this case. However, it does not treat the underlying cause. Therefore, atropine therapy remains the primary treatment option for organophosphate poisoning.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department, worried about her pregnancy. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications. However, during a shopping trip a few hours ago, she felt a sudden rush of fluid from her vagina and noticed that her underwear was wet.
The triage nurse has already taken her vital signs, which are all within normal limits.
What is the initial test that should be performed based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Speculum examination
Explanation:Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.
The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
What is the mechanism of action of denosumab in the management of osteoporosis?
Your Answer: Upregulation of TGF-beta
Correct Answer: Inhibition of the RANK ligand (RANKL)
Explanation:Denosumab and its Mechanism of Action in Osteoporosis Treatment
Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody therapy used to treat osteoporosis. It is typically used as a second- or third-line agent due to its higher cost compared to bisphosphonate therapy. Bone is a dynamic tissue that undergoes continuous changes through the processes of bone formation by osteoblasts and bone resorption by osteoclasts. Many bone diseases are associated with an imbalance in this process.
The interaction between osteoblasts and osteoclasts is complex. Both cell types originate from the same precursor cell, and certain signals can favor the development of one cell type over the other. For example, inflammation promotes osteoclast development. Another interaction between these cells is through the RANK-RANKL system. RANK is a receptor present on osteoclasts that binds to a ligand on osteoblasts. This binding promotes osteoclast activity and reduces osteoblast activity.
Denosumab works by preventing the binding of RANKL to RANK, thereby inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting bone formation. This mechanism of action makes it an effective treatment option for osteoporosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A father is concerned about his 19 year-old daughter, who has recently become more reclusive and spends most days in her bedroom. She has stopped socialising with friends and has dropped out of college. She has also removed all the mirrors in her room as she believes that people are spying on her through the mirrors. The father's sister has had schizophrenia in the past, and he is worried that his daughter is showing very similar symptoms.
Which of the following statements best characterises the aetiology of schizophrenia?Your Answer: Neurodevelopmental trauma reduces the risk of schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Approximately 20 million people worldwide are reported to have schizophrenia with a prevalence of up to 1%
Explanation:Understanding Schizophrenia: Genetic and Environmental Factors
Schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that affects approximately 20 million people worldwide, with a prevalence of up to 1%. While there is clear evidence of a genetic predisposition to the disease, the heterogeneity of schizophrenia has presented a major challenge to medical research, resulting in a variety of explanatory hypotheses and controversies.
Studies have shown that monozygotic twins have an 85% concordance for schizophrenia, while dizygotic twins have a concordance of 50%. This suggests a significant genetic contribution to the illness, but also implies that non-genetic factors may be necessary for full expression of the disease.
Neurodevelopmental trauma has been linked to an increased risk of schizophrenia, but there is also evidence that family variables can exacerbate the illness. Adoption studies have shown that family environment does not cause schizophrenia, but patients who live in families where they are criticised and treated with hostility by an over-involved parent have higher rates of relapse and greater need for anti-psychotic medication.
Overall, understanding the genetic and environmental factors that contribute to schizophrenia is crucial for developing effective treatments and interventions for those affected by this debilitating illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman has a vaginal delivery of her first child. Although the birth was uncomplicated, she suffers a tear which extends from the vaginal mucosa into the submucosal tissue, but not into the external anal sphincter. Which degree tear is this classed as?
Your Answer: Second degree
Explanation:– First degree: a tear that only affects the vaginal mucosa
– Second degree: a tear that extends into the subcutaneous tissue
– Third degree: a laceration that reaches the external anal sphincter
– Fourth degree: a laceration that goes through the external anal sphincter and reaches the rectal mucosaPerineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
You are asked to assess a 75-year-old man who has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and congestive heart failure. He has come to the hospital with worsening paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and three pillow orthopnea, and is currently experiencing acute shortness of breath.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 120 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. The nurse has ordered a chest x-ray for the patient.
Which of the following findings would be inconsistent with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?Your Answer: Globular heart
Explanation:Radiographic Signs of Congestive Cardiac Failure
Congestive cardiac failure is a common reason for hospital admission, and it is important for all clinicians to be familiar with its presentation. One of the initial investigations is a chest radiograph, which can reveal various signs depending on the severity and acuteness of the condition.
The earliest radiographic sign of congestive cardiac failure is the appearance of Kerley B lines, which indicate interstitial oedema and are typically found in the middle and lower zones of the lungs. Kerley A lines, on the other hand, are seen in the upper zones. As the condition progresses, alveolar oedema becomes more prominent and is distributed in a bat’s wing pattern around the hilar region. This leads to significant V/Q mismatch in the lower zones, causing upper lobe blood diversion to improve oxygenation.
Bilateral pleural effusions, which are transudative in nature, are a common finding in congestive cardiac failure. In the long term, cardiomegaly may occur as a compensatory mechanism, but a globular heart is not typically associated with this condition. A globular heart is usually due to a pericardial effusion.
In summary, the radiographic signs of congestive cardiac failure is crucial for clinicians in order to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)