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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old patient is being treated for symptomatic bradycardia. Despite receiving multiple boluses of atropine, the patient's condition remains unchanged with a heart rate of 35 beats per minute, blood pressure of 85/55 mmHg, respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 98%, and a temperature of 37.3ºC. The patient is experiencing confusion, sweating, and has cold and clammy extremities. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Direct current cardioversion
Correct Answer: External pacing
Explanation:Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms
The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.
Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog.
Which of the following is the best treatment?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Antibiotics for Dog Bite Infections: Recommended and Not Recommended Options
Dog bites can lead to infections caused by various micro-organisms, including anaerobic mouth flora and bacteria. Co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, is the recommended antibiotic for dog bite-related infections, as it is effective against the most likely organisms. Fluconazole, an antifungal agent, is not indicated for such infections, as fungal micro-organisms in dogs usually cause only superficial skin rashes. Metronidazole, although effective against anaerobic bacteria, is not recommended for dog bite-related infections, except for patients allergic to penicillin. Aciclovir is not used for dog bite-related infections, as it is restricted to treating varicella-zoster and herpes zoster. Flucloxacillin, although recommended for skin infections, is not active against anaerobic bacteria and is not recommended for dog bite-related infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents to the GP with a two-week history of feeling generally unwell. She reports experiencing hot flashes and sweating, as well as difficulty sleeping at night. Her husband has also noticed that she seems more agitated and on edge than usual. The patient has no significant medical history but reports having had flu-like symptoms six weeks ago that have since resolved. On examination, there is a tender goitre present. Thyroid function tests reveal a TSH level of 0.5 mU/L (normal range 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 21 pmol/L (normal range 9.0-18). What is the first-line management for the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carbimazole
Correct Answer: Conservative management with ibuprofen
Explanation:Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely cause of this patient’s hyperthyroidism, as evidenced by symptoms such as heat intolerance, insomnia, and agitation, as well as a normal TSH and high T4 level. The presence of a tender goitre and recent viral illness further support this diagnosis. Conservative management, including observation and NSAIDs for pain relief, is the most appropriate course of action as subacute thyroiditis is typically self-limiting. Antithyroid drugs such as carbimazole and propylthiouracil are not indicated for this condition, as they are used to treat chronic hyperthyroidism such as Grave’s disease. Radioactive iodine therapy is also not appropriate for subacute thyroiditis.
Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient in his late 60s with advanced prostate cancer and bone metastases receives intravenous zoledronic acid for pain and bone fractures. However, he presents to the emergency department three days later with muscle spasms, body aches, and tingling around his lips. Additionally, he reports worsening nausea and vomiting since the day after the infusion. What are the expected serum study results for this patient?
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to correct any hypocalcemia or vitamin D deficiency in the patient. This is especially important for patients with metastatic prostate cancer who may experience symptoms such as muscle spasms, tingling sensations, and nausea/vomiting, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. Bisphosphonates like zoledronic acid reduce bone turnover, which can further exacerbate the effects of calcium or vitamin D deficiency on serum calcium levels. Hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, and hypernatremia are unlikely to occur as a result of bisphosphonate therapy and are therefore incorrect options.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old male with a history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department with a painful red eye, photophobia, lacrimation, and reduced visual acuity. On examination, an irregularly shaped pupil is noted. What is the most suitable approach to manage this patient's current condition?
Your Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops
Explanation:Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Correct
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You assess a 24-year-old female patient who complains of bilateral nasal obstruction, nocturnal cough, and clear nasal discharge for the past three weeks. She reports experiencing similar symptoms around the same time last year and has a medical history of asthma. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Allergic rhinitis
Explanation:Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily activities. Proper management involves identifying and avoiding allergens, as well as using medication as prescribed by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and a newly diagnosed non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. He has significantly changed his diet and has been reading a lot about liver disease. He realises that he is at increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) due to his liver disease and wanted to know what can be done to monitor him for HCC.
How is HCC screened for in high-risk patients?Your Answer: Abdominal US is routinely ordered at 12-month intervals
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound (US) is routinely ordered at 6-month intervals
Explanation:Screening for Hepatocellular Carcinoma: Recommended Tests and Intervals
Regular screening for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is recommended in high-risk patients. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is the primary screening tool, with 6-month intervals for follow-up if a lesion of < 1 cm is detected. If there is no growth over 1-2 years, routine 6-monthly surveillance can continue. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels may be used in conjunction with US, but are not reliable on their own. A triphasic contrast computed tomography (CT) scan is recommended every two years for high-suspicion cases. This article provides an overview of the recommended tests and intervals for HCC screening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman expecting her second child and who is 28 weeks pregnant is referred to the Obstetric Unit with symptoms of headache, blurred vision and nausea.
On examination, her blood pressure (BP) is 160/110 mmHg; her antenatal diary shows consistent systolic readings of 115/125 mmHg and consistent diastolic readings of < 85 mmHg. Her urine dip shows proteinuria.
What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy
Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by high blood pressure, headaches, flashing lights, and vomiting. The following are treatment options for pre-eclampsia:
Labetalol: This beta-blocker is the first-line treatment for pre-eclampsia. According to NICE guidelines, patients should be admitted for monitoring if their blood pressure is above 140/90 mmHg. Labetalol should be used if their systolic blood pressure goes above 150 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg. Nifedipine can be used as an alternative if labetalol is contraindicated or not tolerated.
Ramipril: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.
Hydralazine: This vasodilator is reserved for severe pre-eclampsia and requires specialist support.
Methyldopa: This medication is the third-line option if labetalol is ineffective and nifedipine is not tolerated or ineffective.
Nifedipine: This calcium channel blocker is the second-line treatment if labetalol is ineffective or not tolerated.
In conclusion, pre-eclampsia requires prompt treatment to prevent serious complications. Labetalol is the first-line treatment, and other medications can be used if necessary. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain that has been occurring on and off for several weeks. However, the pain has now intensified, causing her to feel nauseated and lose her appetite. She has not had a bowel movement in three days and has not noticed any blood in her stool. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C, her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft, but she experiences tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are present but reduced, and rectal examination reveals tenderness only. She has no history of gastrointestinal problems and only sees her General Practitioner for osteoarthritis. She has not had a sexual partner since her husband passed away two years ago. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Understanding Diverticulitis and Other Bowel Conditions in Older Adults
As people age, they may develop various conditions affecting their bowel health. One such condition is diverticulosis, which is characterized by the presence of diverticula in the colon. While most people with diverticulosis do not experience symptoms, some may develop diverticular disease, which can cause left lower quadrant abdominal pain that worsens after eating and improves after bowel movements. Diverticulitis, on the other hand, refers to inflammation of the diverticula, which can lead to fever and tachycardia. Risk factors for diverticular disease include low dietary fiber, obesity, and smoking. Complications of diverticulitis may include perforation, obstruction, or abscess formation.
Another bowel condition that may affect older adults is inflammatory bowel disease, which is typically diagnosed in young adulthood but may also occur in people aged 50-70. Unlike diverticulosis, inflammatory bowel disease can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, rectal bleeding, and weight loss.
When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of bowel disease, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as colorectal cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease. While the former may present with similar symptoms as diverticulitis, the latter is more common in women and may mimic gastrointestinal conditions.
In summary, understanding the various bowel conditions that may affect older adults can help healthcare providers make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 10
Correct
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A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the most probable side-effect that he may experience?
Your Answer: Dry skin
Explanation:Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects
Isotretinoin is an oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found that two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of oral isotretinoin experience long-term remission or cure. However, it is important to note that this medication also comes with a number of adverse effects that patients should be aware of.
One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in developing fetuses. As such, females who are taking this medication should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, as well as low mood and depression (although this is a controversial topic). Patients may also experience raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nose bleeds, and photosensitivity.
It is important for patients to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Additionally, patients should always follow their healthcare provider’s instructions for taking isotretinoin and should not combine this medication with tetracyclines due to the risk of intracranial hypertension. By being informed and proactive, patients can help to ensure that they receive the best possible care while taking isotretinoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 38-year-old factory worker undergoes a routine hearing assessment as part of his annual work-based medical. He is noted to have a positive Rinne’s test (normal) and Weber’s test localising to the left ear.
What is the most likely defect in this patient?Your Answer: Right sensorineural hearing loss
Explanation:For a man with a positive Rinne’s test and sound localization to the left ear on Weber’s testing, the diagnosis is likely to be right-sided sensorineural hearing loss. If the Rinne’s test had been negative, it would have indicated left-sided conductive hearing loss. Similarly, if the sound had been localized to the right ear, it would have suggested left-sided sensorineural hearing loss. In the case of bilateral hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on both sides, and the Weber test would not localize to either ear. Finally, if the man had right-sided conductive hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on the right side, and the Weber test would localize to the right side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Emergency Department by her General Practitioner with a 4-day history of fever.
On examination, the patient has bilateral conjunctival injection, a maculopapular rash across her trunk, and erythematous extremities. Her chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Her lips look cracked, and her tongue looks erythematous. She has no palpable lymphadenopathy.
Which of the following blood test results would support the likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Neutropenia
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis and Blood Test Results
Kawasaki disease is a clinical diagnosis that presents with a persistent fever and at least four of the following five criteria: bilateral conjunctival injection, polymorphous rash, oral changes, oedema and erythema in hands/feet, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Thrombocytosis is a common non-specific change seen in Kawasaki disease, and blood tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function, lipid profile, C-reactive protein (CRP), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can support the diagnosis, assess severity, and monitor disease and treatment. Neutropenia is not usually associated with Kawasaki disease, and a raised white cell count with a relative neutrophilia is commonly seen. An elevated CRP with a normal ESR or an elevated ESR with a normal CRP would not be expected in Kawasaki disease, as both markers reflect acute inflammation. Kawasaki disease is associated with normocytic anaemia, but not macrocytic anaemia. It is important to arrange an echocardiogram as soon as possible to look for any initial evidence of coronary artery aneurysm, a common complication of Kawasaki disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has been bothering him for the past 4 weeks. He reports that this is affecting his work performance. He denies experiencing any sore throat, difficulty swallowing, or cough. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the last 25 years and drinks a glass of beer every day. Apart from this, he is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-week rule referral to ENT specialist
Explanation:If a patient aged over 45 years old has persistent and unexplained hoarseness, it is recommended by NICE to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist under the 2-week wait rule. This is because they may have laryngeal cancer. While a chest radiograph is important, it is more appropriate to prioritize the referral to ENT if cancer is suspected. It is not appropriate to delay the referral or provide false reassurance. While advice on smoking cessation and alcohol should be given, specialist referral is the most important aspect of management in this situation.
Understanding Hoarseness and its Causes
Hoarseness is a condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is voice overuse, which can strain the vocal cords and lead to hoarseness. Smoking is another factor that can contribute to hoarseness, as it can irritate the throat and vocal cords. Viral illnesses, hypothyroidism, and gastro-oesophageal reflux are also known to cause hoarseness. In some cases, hoarseness can be a symptom of laryngeal or lung cancer.
When investigating patients with hoarseness, it is important to consider a chest x-ray to rule out any apical lung lesions. If laryngeal cancer is suspected, referral guidelines recommend a suspected cancer pathway referral to an ENT specialist for individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. By understanding the causes of hoarseness and seeking appropriate medical attention, individuals can receive the necessary treatment and improve their vocal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic. He has been recently diagnosed with idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) and wants to know what lifestyle changes and medical treatments he needs to adopt to help reduce symptoms, and which to avoid.
Which of the following should be avoided in patients with IIH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maintaining a high-sodium diet
Explanation:Managing Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension: Strategies and Interventions
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the skull, which can lead to vision loss and other neurological symptoms. Effective management of IIH involves a combination of lifestyle modifications, medication, and, in some cases, surgery. Here are some key strategies and interventions for managing IIH:
Low-sodium diet with acetazolamide: A low-sodium diet with acetazolamide has been shown to improve vision in patients with IIH. A high-sodium diet should be avoided as it can increase fluid retention and decrease the effectiveness of acetazolamide.
Weight loss: Weight loss can induce remission of papilledema in patients with IIH. A strict diet and pharmacological therapy may be necessary to achieve weight loss and prevent vision loss.
Surgical treatment: If patients are losing their vision despite maximal medical therapy, surgical treatment by optic-nerve-sheath fenestration or CSF shunting should be considered.
Discontinuing excessive vitamin A intake: Excessive vitamin A intake can increase CSF volume and pressure, so it is important to eliminate this risk factor in patients with IIH.
Discontinuing retinoid treatment: Retinoid, a metabolite of vitamin A, has been linked to the development of IIH. Therefore, discontinuing retinoid treatment is crucial when suspecting IIH.
Starting acetazolamide: Acetazolamide is a medication that decreases CSF production in humans and is often used in the initial management of IIH.
By implementing these strategies and interventions, patients with IIH can effectively manage their condition and prevent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for a possible stroke. The stroke specialist has clinically diagnosed him with a POCI, indicating a posterior circulation infarct. Which specific area of the brain is affected by this type of stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The vertebrobasilar arteries
Explanation:A POCI (posterior circulation infarct) typically affects the vertebrobasilar arteries. In contrast, a TACI involves the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, a PACI affects the smaller arteries of anterior circulation, and a LACI involves the perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia.
Stroke can be classified based on the initial symptoms using the Oxford Stroke Classification, also known as the Bamford Classification. The criteria assessed include unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm, and leg, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cognitive dysfunction such as dysphasia.
Total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI) involve the middle and anterior cerebral arteries and present with all three criteria mentioned above. Partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI) involve smaller arteries of the anterior circulation and present with two of the criteria. Lacunar infarcts (LACI) involve perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia and present with one of three symptoms: unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg, or all three; pure sensory stroke; or ataxic hemiparesis.
Posterior circulation infarcts (POCI) involve vertebrobasilar arteries and present with one of three symptoms: cerebellar or brainstem syndromes, loss of consciousness, or isolated homonymous hemianopia. Other recognized patterns of stroke include lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery), also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, which presents with ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy (e.g., Horner’s), and contralateral limb sensory loss. Weber’s syndrome presents with ipsilateral III palsy and contralateral weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of pain in her right knee. She is an avid runner and reports that the pain is most noticeable after exercise. She denies any swelling or redness in the joint and has not experienced any locking of the knee. Upon examination, the knee has a full range of motion, but there is sharp pain when palpating the lateral epicondyle of the femur, especially when the knee is flexed at 30 degrees. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome
Explanation:Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent reason for knee pain, especially among runners. A typical history and examination for this condition involves assessing lateral knee pain in avid runners. In contrast, Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, would result in pain and swelling around the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans would cause joint locking, swelling, and tenderness. Patellar tendonitis would also cause post-exercise pain, but it would typically be located at the lower part of the patella.
Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome
Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.
To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.
In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has progressively worsened. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly. What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum IGF1 levels
Explanation:Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing
Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for detecting pituitary tumors, which are often the cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to determine if a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not a specific investigation for acromegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a persistent history of acid reflux. She has visited her primary care physician multiple times. A trial of low-dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and lifestyle changes has not improved her symptoms. She has been tested for Helicobacter pylori, and the results were negative. Her screening blood tests are normal.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do an upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy
Explanation:Approaches to Managing Dyspepsia in Patients with Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease
Patients with chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) are at risk of developing Barrett’s oesophagus and oesophageal cancer. Therefore, patients aged 50 years or older with a history of chronic GORD should undergo at least one upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy to screen for these conditions. In younger patients, long-term low-dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy may be considered, with dose adjustment if necessary. However, ongoing dyspepsia in a patient over 50 years old warrants further investigation to exclude serious pathology. Intermittent high-dose PPI therapy is currently only used in hospital for specific indications. Counselling with false reassurance should be avoided in patients with concerning symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man is being examined for excessive bleeding after a tooth extraction. The test results show:
Platelet count: 173 * 109/l
Prothrombin time (PT): 12.9 seconds
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 84 seconds
Which clotting factor is he most likely deficient in?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor VIII
Explanation:Understanding Haemophilia
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation. It is caused by a deficiency in either factor VIII (Haemophilia A) or factor IX (Haemophilia B), which are essential for blood clotting. Although it is an X-linked recessive disorder, up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition.
The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can confirm the diagnosis, with a prolonged APTT being a common finding. However, the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are usually normal.
Treatment for haemophilia involves replacing the missing clotting factor through regular infusions. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment, which can make it less effective.
In summary, haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and can cause symptoms such as haemoarthroses and prolonged bleeding. Diagnosis is confirmed through blood tests, and treatment involves replacing the missing clotting factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with constipation.
What is the recommended first line treatment for constipation in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrogol (Movicol)
Explanation:First-Line Treatment for Constipation in Children: Macrogol (Movicol)
When a child is diagnosed with constipation and secondary causes have been ruled out, treatment can be initiated. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is macrogol, which is available as Movicol Paediatric Plain or Movicol depending on the child’s age. The dose is escalated until regular and good consistency stools are achieved. However, it is important to check for faecal impaction before starting maintenance treatment. Suppositories and enemas should not be routinely used in primary care. If macrogol is not tolerated or if there is a particularly hard stool, a stool softener such as lactulose can be used. A stimulant laxative such as senna can also be used as an alternative to macrogol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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