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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old Nigerian woman is undergoing treatment for TB.
Which of the following medications speeds up the metabolism of her combined oral contraceptive?Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Streptomycin
Explanation:Tuberculosis Treatment and Pregnancy
When treating tuberculosis in women who are of childbearing age or pregnant, it is important to consider the potential effects of the medication on contraception and fetal development. Rifampicin, a commonly used medication for tuberculosis, can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. Therefore, patients should be advised to use alternative forms of contraception while taking rifampicin.
If a pregnant woman develops tuberculosis, standard treatment with rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol should be given. However, streptomycin should be avoided as it may be ototoxic to the fetus. Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, should also be avoided during pregnancy as they have been shown to cause arthropathy in animal studies.
Overall, it is important to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of tuberculosis treatment in pregnant women and to provide appropriate counseling and monitoring throughout the course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 2
Correct
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You receive a discharge summary for a middle-aged patient who was admitted with back pain and diagnosed with vertebral wedge fractures. The patient has been prescribed high dose vitamin D replacement due to a proven vitamin D deficiency found during the work-up for the fractures. What monitoring should be arranged?
Your Answer: Calcium
Explanation:It is important to monitor calcium levels when starting vitamin D as it can reveal any underlying hyperparathyroidism and lead to hypercalcaemia. Therefore, patients with renal calculi, granulomatous disease, or bone metastases may not be suitable for vitamin D. The National Osteoporosis Society recommends checking serum calcium after one month. However, there is no need to regularly check vitamin D levels once replacement therapy has begun.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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For the long-term secondary prevention of stroke, which antiplatelet drug regime is the most appropriate first choice according to current NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:Secondary Prevention after Stroke or Transient Ischaemic Attack
According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (2013), the first choice for antiplatelet therapy in secondary prevention after a stroke or transient ischaemic attack is clopidogrel at a daily dose of 75 mg. In cases where clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated, modified-release dipyridamole at a dose of 200 mg twice a day can be used in combination with low dose aspirin. If both clopidogrel and modified-release dipyridamole are not suitable, aspirin alone can be used. And if both clopidogrel and aspirin are contraindicated or not tolerated, modified-release dipyridamole alone can be used. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective secondary prevention after a stroke or transient ischaemic attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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In an emergency surgery one morning you see a 12-year-old patient with an infective exacerbation of asthma. She is under the respiratory specialist at the local hospital as she has had longstanding problems with poor disease control. Her current medications consist of salbutamol 2 puffs PRN, Symbicort 400/6 2 puffs BD, montelukast 10 mg OD and theophylline 400 mg BD. She is allergic to penicillin.
She reports a one week history of progressive chest tightness and cough productive of green purulent phlegm. Following your assessment you feel she warrants antibiotic treatment.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe?Your Answer: Azithromycin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The Importance of Drug Interactions in Theophylline Metabolism
Theophylline is a medication that undergoes hepatic metabolism, making it susceptible to interactions with other drugs. These interactions can either increase or decrease its metabolism, affecting its plasma concentration and ultimately its clinical effectiveness. Due to its narrow therapeutic index, concurrent prescription of drugs that affect its metabolism can lead to toxicity or limit its effectiveness.
Certain antibiotics, such as azithromycin, ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin, can increase the plasma concentration of theophylline if co-prescribed. Therefore, it is important to consider these interactions when prescribing medications to patients taking theophylline.
In cases where the patient is penicillin allergic, doxycycline is a safe option as it doesn’t interfere with theophylline metabolism. By being aware of these interactions, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe and effective use of theophylline in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She previously lived in Australia and has used substantial amounts of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis and also phenacetin some years ago. Renal function testing is normal. She has a raised plasma viscosity and is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 100 g/l (115-155).
Select the most likely diagnosis to fit with this clinical picture.Your Answer: Nephrolithiasis
Correct Answer: Transitional-cell carcinoma of the bladder
Explanation:Bladder Cancer: Risk Factors, Presentation, and Survival Rates
Bladder cancer is a relatively uncommon malignancy, accounting for around 3% of cancer deaths. It is more prevalent in males, with a male to female ratio of 4:1, and is rare in individuals under 40 years of age. The most common type of bladder cancer is transitional-cell carcinoma.
Several risk factors have been identified, including smoking, exposure to certain chemicals found in industrial settings, and the use of certain medications such as phenacetin and cyclophosphamide. Chronic inflammation caused by conditions such as schistosomiasis, indwelling catheters, or stones is associated with squamous-cell carcinoma of the bladder.
The most common presentation of bladder cancer is painless hematuria (blood in the urine), although pain may occur due to clot retention. Women are more likely to have muscle-invasive disease at presentation.
The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer varies depending on the stage of the disease at diagnosis. Patients with small, early superficial tumors have a survival rate of 80-90%, while those with metastases at presentation have a survival rate of only 5%.
In conclusion, bladder cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A toddler boy is now 2 years old, having been born at 34 weeks’ gestation. You see his mother during a follow-up appointment and she expresses concerns about potential complications of prematurity during early childhood.
Which of these problems is MOST LIKELY to be a complication of preterm (premature) birth during early childhood?Your Answer: Blindness
Explanation:Health Risks Associated with Premature Birth
Premature birth, defined as birth before 37 weeks of gestation, can lead to a range of health problems for the newborn. These include cerebral palsy, blindness, deafness, learning disabilities, motor function problems, and speech and language problems. Premature infants are also at an increased risk of having special educational needs. The risk of these health problems is higher for infants born at earlier gestational ages and with lower birthweights.
One specific visual problem that premature infants may experience is retinopathy of prematurity, a vascular disorder of the immature retina. Additionally, premature infants are at an increased risk of developing chronic kidney disease during adulthood, although the reason for this is not clear.
However, not all health problems are associated with premature birth. Cystic fibrosis, for example, is caused by an autosomal-recessive gene and is not more prevalent in premature infants. Similarly, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is caused by several autosomal-recessive genes and is not more prevalent in premature infants. Developmental dysplasia of the hip, while more common in infants with neuromuscular disorders, is not commonly associated with prematurity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What factors are associated with the age of menopause onset in women?
Your Answer: Family tendency
Correct Answer: Age at menarche
Explanation:Premature Menopause: Causes and Ethnic Differences
Studies have not found a correlation between the age at which a woman experiences menarche and the age at which she enters menopause. However, premature menopause may be linked to various factors such as smoking, living at high altitudes, and poor nutritional status. Additionally, there may be a genetic predisposition to early menopause. While there is no evidence of ethnic differences in the age of menopause, certain ethnic groups may be more susceptible to specific causes of premature menopause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of fever, chills and a headache after returning from a trip to Sub-Saharan Africa. Past data shows that 70% of patients with these symptoms and a travel history to this region have Malaria. The calculated likelihood for a negative test result is 0.1.
What is the significance of this result?Your Answer: There is a 10 fold decrease in the odds of the patient having malaria with a negative test result
Explanation:When a test result is negative, the likelihood ratio measures how much the odds of having the disease decrease. This ratio is used to determine the likelihood of a patient having a particular condition or disease. A higher likelihood ratio indicates a greater likelihood of having the condition, while a lower likelihood ratio suggests that the patient is less likely to have the condition. The negative likelihood ratio specifically measures the change in odds for patients with a negative test result. Conversely, the positive likelihood ratio measures the change in odds for patients with a positive test result.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 9
Correct
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A mother has coeliac disease. She is concerned that her 18-month-old daughter may have the condition.
Which of the following is the most commonly presenting feature of coeliac disease in a child of 18 months?Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the digestive system and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. The incidence of this disease is higher in relatives of patients than in the general population. The symptoms of coeliac disease can vary depending on the age of the patient.
In children, the most common presenting symptom is diarrhoea, which occurs due to poor digestion and absorption of nutrients. Other symptoms include weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, irritability, constipation, abdominal protrusion, and eversion of the umbilicus. Children may also experience growth problems and delayed puberty.
In older children, teenagers, and young adults, anaemia is a common symptom due to malabsorption of iron and vitamins B12 and folate. Dermatitis herpetiformis, an itchy blistering disorder of the elbows, knees, and buttocks, may also be associated with coeliac disease in teenagers and adults.
Bloating and flatulence are common symptoms of coeliac disease, but they are more likely to be complained of in older people with the condition. Peripheral oedema, or swelling in the limbs, may rarely occur due to protein loss from enteropathy, but other causes such as nephrotic syndrome should be considered first.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms of coeliac disease is important for early diagnosis and treatment. If you or a loved one is experiencing any of these symptoms, it is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?
Your Answer: The alternative hypothesis is rejected when it is false
Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false
Explanation:Type II error – the false hypothesis is not rejected when it is true.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents for contraceptive advice. She wishes to resume taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after a 12-year hiatus due to a new relationship. She is in good health with no significant medical history, but she does smoke occasionally, averaging 2-3 cigarettes per day. Her body mass index (BMI) is 26 kg/m².
According to the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), what is the most appropriate advice to provide regarding the COCP?Your Answer: The disadvantages outweigh the advantages and alternative methods should be used
Explanation:The FSRH has issued UKMEC recommendations for the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) due to the heightened risk of cardiovascular disease. According to these guidelines, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 2 for individuals under the age of 35. For those over the age of 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes per day, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 3. However, for those over the age of 35 who smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 4. Progestogen-only contraceptives, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and are therefore classified as UKMEC 1, regardless of the patient’s age or cigarette intake.
The choice of contraceptive for women may be affected by comorbidities. The FSRH provides UKMEC recommendations for different conditions. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular disease, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women under 35 and UKMEC 3 for those over 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes/day, but is UKMEC 4 for those who smoke more. Obesity increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² and UKMEC 3 for those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or more. The COCP is contraindicated for women with a history of migraine with aura, but is UKMEC 3 for those with migraines without aura and UKMEC 2 for initiation. For women with epilepsy, consistent use of condoms is recommended in addition to other forms of contraception. The choice of contraceptive for women taking anti-epileptic medication depends on the specific medication, with the COCP and POP being UKMEC 3 for most medications, while the implant is UKMEC 2 and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS are UKMEC 1. Lamotrigine has different recommendations, with the COCP being UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS being UKMEC 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 10-year-old girl, visits your clinic with her mother. She reports having a constant headache for several weeks. Her mother is extremely worried. However, Samantha is always anxious during medical appointments and refuses to cooperate with a thorough examination.
As a healthcare provider, you are concerned about Samantha's condition and decide to request an immediate referral. What is the maximum time frame within which she should receive an appointment with a specialist?Your Answer: 1 week
Correct Answer: 3 days
Explanation:Referral Guidelines for Children with Suspected Cancer
When a child presents with symptoms and signs of cancer, it is important to refer them to a paediatrician or a specialist children’s cancer service, if appropriate. If the child experiences headaches and vomiting that cause early morning waking or occur on waking, this could be a sign of raised intracranial pressure, and an immediate referral should be made.
It is important to note that patients have a legal right to be seen by a specialist within two weeks of being urgently referred for suspected cancer by their GP. If this is not possible, the NHS must do everything it reasonably can to offer them clinically appropriate alternatives. By following these referral guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that children with suspected cancer receive timely and appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents with dry, gritty discomfort of both eyes that worsens as the day goes on. She has had these symptoms for several years and the eyes can be slightly sensitive to light at times. Inspection reveals both eyes to appear mildly red and fluorescein staining demonstrates punctate staining. The lid margins and lashes appear normal. She has no history of any other eye problems and doesn't use any visual aids such as glasses or contact lenses. There is no history suggestive of a foreign body in the eyes.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer: Advise use of a tear substitute
Explanation:Understanding Dry Eyes
Dry eyes occur when there is a deficiency in tear production or excessive evaporation. This can lead to inflammation and is a common condition, especially in older individuals. Symptoms include a dry and gritty feeling in the eyes, which worsens throughout the day. Mild light sensitivity may also be present, along with redness and a punctate pattern on fluorescein staining. Treatment involves using tear substitutes, with eye ointment used at night to supplement this. If blepharitis is present, eyelid massage, warm compresses, and hygiene measures may also be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 2200 ng/litre.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Referral to cardiology within 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Refer to on-call cardiologist
Explanation:NT-proBNP Guidelines for Heart Failure Diagnosis
NICE guidelines provide clear instructions for the interpretation of NT-proBNP levels in the diagnosis of heart failure. An NT-proBNP level above 2000ng/litre indicates a poor prognosis and requires urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks. For levels between 400 and 2000 ng/litre, referral should be made within 6 weeks. However, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use can reduce the reading. Therefore, careful consideration of these factors is necessary when interpreting NT-proBNP levels. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What is the probable reason for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Drugs and Pancytopenia in Ulcerative Colitis: Understanding the Risks
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for the condition, various drugs can help manage symptoms and induce remission. However, some of these drugs can also cause bone marrow suppression, leading to a condition called pancytopenia.
Azathioprine, methotrexate, ciclosporin, infliximab, and mesalazine are some of the drugs commonly used in ulcerative colitis that can cause bone marrow suppression. Patients taking these drugs should be monitored regularly for symptoms of bleeding or infection, and blood counts should be undertaken.
Anti-diarrhoeal drugs like codeine phosphate, co-phenotrope, and loperamide may help control symptoms, but they do not cause pancytopenia. Mebeverine may provide symptomatic relief from colic, but it doesn’t cause pancytopenia either.
While metronidazole may be helpful in people with Crohn’s disease, it is generally not considered useful for those with ulcerative colitis. Pancytopenia has been reported with metronidazole. Prednisolone, on the other hand, can be used to induce remission in ulcerative colitis without causing pancytopenia.
It is essential to note that other drugs, such as chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, septrin, gold, penicillamine, indometacin, diclofenac, naproxen, piroxicam, phenytoin, carbamazepine, carbimazole, thiouracil, dosulepin, phenothiazines, chlorpropamide, and chloroquine, have also been reported to cause pancytopenia. Therefore, patients with ulcerative colitis should be aware of the risks associated with these drugs and report any symptoms immediately to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He has no particular complaints and on examination, no abnormalities were found.
You check the blood test results which were sent by the nurse prior to the appointment:
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 3.5 mmol/l
Urea 4 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 µmol/l
You decide to review his medications.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused his electrolyte abnormality?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:SSRIs like sertraline are linked to hyponatraemia, while aspirin and bisoprolol are not commonly associated with it. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the minimum steroid dosage that a patient should be on before being considered for osteoporosis prevention?
Your Answer: Equivalent of prednisolone 10 mg or more each day for 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Equivalent of prednisolone 7.5 mg or more each day for 3 months
Explanation:Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headaches that she has experienced since her teenage years. Lately, she has noticed an increase in the frequency of her headaches. She attributes this to her stressful job, which has caused her to feel more anxious. She reports a bilateral frontal headache that is moderate in intensity and feels like a tightening sensation. She denies any prodrome, visual symptoms, or vomiting. On examination, she appears well and has a blood pressure of 118/68 mmHg. Her cranial nerve examination is normal, and there are no focal neurological deficits. Which of the following treatments should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate
Explanation:Managing Tension Headaches
Tension headaches are a common type of headache that can be episodic or chronic. Episodic tension headaches can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers such as paracetamol, aspirin, or NSAIDs. However, chronic tension headaches may require a regular prescription of amitriptyline or nortriptyline. Acupuncture may also be a treatment option for some patients.
It is important to note that codeine and dihydrocodeine should be avoided in the treatment of tension headaches due to the risk of medication overuse headache. Patients who respond to amitriptyline should continue treatment for at least 2 months before slowly reducing the dose to stop. Those who cannot tolerate amitriptyline may be prescribed nortriptyline instead. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage tension headaches and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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During his 3-month check-up, a 50-year-old patient with a BMI of 33 reports that he has been unable to adhere to his orlistat prescription due to the side effects he has experienced. The patient has a medical history of psoriasis, hyperlipidaemia, and hypertension. According to NICE, what alternative treatment may be appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Bariatric surgery
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The first three options listed above are not recommended for treating obesity at present. However, exenatide may have the unintended effect of promoting weight loss when prescribed for type 2 diabetes. Silbutramine is no longer available for prescription in the UK (see notes below). Additionally, the patient doesn’t currently meet the eligibility criteria for bariatric surgery, which were somewhat expanded in the 2014 guidelines.
If the patient experienced gastrointestinal side effects such as abdominal distention and loose stool while taking orlistat, it may be possible to reduce these side effects by providing further education on a low-fat diet.
Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing unusual lower back pain for the last couple of months. After an x-ray of her lumbar spine, it was suggested that she may have spinal metastases, but there is no indication of a primary tumor. She was sent for a series of tumor marker tests and referred to an oncologist. Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA 15-3?
Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:Breast cancers can be detected by the presence of the tumour marker CA 15-3.
Understanding Tumour Markers
Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be present in people without cancer.
Monoclonal antibodies are a type of tumour marker that target specific carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens. Some examples of monoclonal antibodies and their associated cancers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer.
Tumour antigens are another type of tumour marker that are produced by cancer cells. Examples of tumour antigens and their associated cancers include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer, S-100 for melanoma and schwannomas, and bombesin for small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, and neuroblastoma.
Understanding tumour markers and their associations with different types of cancer can aid in the diagnosis and management of cancer. However, it is important to interpret tumour marker results in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A study was conducted to investigate whether individuals with lower socioeconomic status were at a higher risk of developing gastric cancer. The study tracked participants for 35 years and discovered that those with lower socioeconomic status had a significantly greater likelihood of developing gastric cancer. The researchers concluded that there was a strong correlation between lower socioeconomic status and gastric cancer development. However, an independent committee reviewing the study later discovered that individuals with lower socioeconomic status were also more likely to smoke.
What type of potential bias is likely to be present in this study design?Your Answer: Sampling bias
Correct Answer: Confounding bias
Explanation:Confounding bias arises when an unaccounted factor has a causal relationship with the main outcome, leading to a distorted effect of the exposure of interest. In the case of the study mentioned, the association between lower socioeconomic status and gastric cancer is confounded by smoking, which is more prevalent among people with lower socioeconomic status. Berkson bias occurs when cases and controls are selected from hospitals instead of the general population, while measurement bias arises from systematically distorted information gathering. Recall bias occurs when those exposed have a greater sensitivity for recalling exposure, and selection bias arises from a poorly devised method of recruiting participants, leading to nonrandom assignment to study groups.
Understanding Confounding in Statistics
Confounding is a term used in statistics to describe a situation where a variable is correlated with other variables in a study, leading to inaccurate or spurious results. For instance, in a case-control study that examines whether low-dose aspirin can prevent colorectal cancer, age could be a confounding factor if the case and control groups are not matched for age. This is because older people are more likely to take aspirin and also more likely to develop cancer. Similarly, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor as it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease.
Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the populations being studied. Common causes of confounding include age, sex, and social class. To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, randomization can be used to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. In the analysis stage, confounding can be controlled for by stratification. Understanding confounding is crucial in ensuring that research findings are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following a haematemesis with a diagnosis of NSAID-induced gastric ulcer. She has taken ibuprofen regularly for pain relief and has found it effective, while finding paracetamol has been ineffective. She is taking 10 mg esomeprazole a day. She has a history of osteoarthritis and hypertension.
What is the most appropriate analgesia to prescribe this patient?Your Answer: Celecoxib
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Choosing the Right Pain Medication for a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis and a History of Myocardial Infarction
When selecting a pain medication for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and a history of myocardial infarction, it is important to consider the potential cardiovascular and gastrointestinal risks associated with each option. Tramadol is often the drug of choice due to its lower risk of cardiovascular and gastrointestinal problems, but it may still cause toxicity in some patients. Celecoxib, a cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitor, carries a lower risk of gastrointestinal side-effects but should be avoided in patients with a history of thrombotic events. Diclofenac and misoprostol carry an intermediate risk of gastrointestinal side-effects and increase the risk of thrombotic events. Ibuprofen and naproxen have lower gastrointestinal risks, but their use may be problematic in patients taking antiplatelet medication. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the patient’s individual medical history and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a mugging on his way back from the bar last night. The assailant bit him during the altercation, leaving deep bite marks on his hand, which appears red and swollen. You decide to administer tetanus and hepatitis B prophylaxis.
What antibiotic do you recommend for his treatment?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate treatment for human bites, similar to animal bites. In case the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole can be used. However, since there is no mention of any allergies, we assume that the patient has none. Waiting for the swab results is not the correct approach. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for various conditions, including hand/foot/facial injuries, deep puncture wounds, wounds requiring surgical debridement, wounds involving joints/tendons/ligaments, suspected fractures, and patients who are immunosuppressed, diabetic, cirrhotic, asplenic, or elderly. Antibiotic treatment is necessary for infected bites, which is the case here as the bite appears red, swollen, and is on the hand. Cellulitis, on the other hand, is treated with flucloxacillin.
Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.
On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the second time in the span of three months, after experiencing a syncopal episode. She also reported feeling extremely fatigued for the past few months and having bouts of dizziness. Upon examination, she appeared slender and sun-kissed, with a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg while lying down, but it dropped to 87/63 mmHg upon standing. Her baseline serum cortisol was low (<100 nmol/l) and her free thyroxine (T4) level was also low.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for the clinical presentation described above? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Primary hypoadrenalism
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hypoadrenalism: A Case Study
A woman presents with a marked postural drop in blood pressure, increased pigmentation, and low cortisol levels, indicating primary hypoadrenalism as the most likely diagnosis. The high adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level causes pigmentation, and autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands is responsible for 80% of cases. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common in established cases. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends hospital admission for serum cortisol levels below 100 nmol/l and referral to an endocrinologist for levels between 100 and 500 nmol/l. Hypovolemia, HIV, hypothyroidism, and psychiatric symptoms are unlikely causes based on the case history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.
Which of the following is the most probable cause of the dementia?Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Dementia: Types and Symptoms
Dementia is a clinical condition that involves the loss of cognitive function in multiple domains beyond what is expected from normal aging. This condition affects areas such as memory, attention, language, and problem-solving. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, accounting for about two-thirds of all cases. The initial symptom is usually forgetfulness for newly acquired information, followed by disorientation and progressive cognitive decline with personality disruption.
Other types of dementia include blood vessel disease (multi-infarct dementia), dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease). Less common disorders such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, progressive supranuclear palsy, Huntington’s disease, and AIDS-associated dementia also contribute to the remaining cases.
It is important to understand the different types and symptoms of dementia to provide appropriate care and support for individuals affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A six-year-old has been brought to the GP by his mother due to frequent episodes of shortness of breath and wheeze during physical education lessons at school and when out playing with friends. He also has been coughing and complaining of chest tightness at night. Examination and vital signs are within normal limits. Peak flow is slightly reduced based on height.
What is the most appropriate next step for diagnosis?Your Answer: Peak flow readings twice weekly for four weeks
Correct Answer: Spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, the diagnosis of asthma in adults should include bronchodilator reversibility testing, while children aged 5-16 should also undergo this test if feasible. Fractional exhaled nitrous oxide (FeNO) testing is not recommended as the initial step for diagnosing asthma in children, but may be considered in cases of diagnostic uncertainty where spirometry is normal or obstructive with negative bronchodilator reversibility. Methacholine bronchial challenge is not used in children and should only be considered in adults if other tests have not provided a clear diagnosis. Peak flow readings may be offered in children aged 5-16 with normal or obstructive spirometry and positive FeNO. While symptoms may indicate asthma, further objective testing is necessary, starting with spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing in children aged 5-16. A diagnosis of asthma in this age group may be made with positive bronchodilator reversibility or positive FeNO with positive peak flow variability.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 27
Correct
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A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile dysfunction. His wife notes that he has a constant tan and lacks energy. He also reports experiencing hand pains. What investigation is most likely to uncover the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:To screen for haemochromatosis in the general population, a transferrin saturation level higher than ferritin is used. For family members, HFE genetic testing is recommended. It is important to note that while the patient in question is experiencing symptoms associated with haemochromatosis, diabetes mellitus alone would not typically result in decreased libido.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a fight with her partner. She has a history of relationship problems and frequently argues with loved ones. She denies experiencing any paranoid thoughts or unusual beliefs but reports hearing a voice in her head that describes her negative thoughts. Upon examination, you observe several superficial scars on her forearms. There is no evidence of delusions or abnormal speech.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation. Symptoms also include fluctuating mood and the possibility of paranoid thoughts and hallucinations.
Paranoid personality disorder is not the correct answer, as it primarily involves difficulty trusting others and interpreting situations as threatening. While some degree of paranoia is described in the patient, the other symptoms are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.
Schizoid personality disorder is also not the correct answer, as it involves difficulty forming close relationships and a preference for being alone. The patient in this scenario describes relationships with partners, friends, and family.
Schizophrenia is not the correct answer either, as it primarily involves delusions, auditory hallucinations, and disorders of thought perception.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a skin rash caused by her new wristwatch. The doctor suspects an allergy to nickel. What is the most appropriate test to confirm this suspicion?
Your Answer: Skin prick test
Correct Answer: Skin patch test
Explanation:Understanding Nickel Dermatitis
Nickel dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis that is commonly caused by exposure to nickel. This condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which means that it is caused by an immune response to a specific substance. In the case of nickel dermatitis, the immune system reacts to nickel, which is often found in jewelry such as watches.
To diagnose nickel dermatitis, a skin patch test is typically performed. This involves applying a small amount of nickel to the skin and monitoring the area for any signs of an allergic reaction. If a reaction occurs, it is likely that the individual has nickel dermatitis and will need to avoid exposure to nickel in the future.
Overall, understanding nickel dermatitis is important for anyone who may be at risk of developing this condition. By recognizing the symptoms and avoiding exposure to nickel, individuals can manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presented to the genitourinary medicine clinic with complaints of vaginal discharge. She had visited her GP a week ago and was prescribed clotrimazole pessaries, but they did not provide any relief. The patient reported no itching but did mention a foul odor, particularly after intercourse. During the examination, a thin white vaginal discharge with a pH of 5.9 was observed, and microscopy revealed Lactobacilli with Gram variable rods. What is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for seven days
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Treatment
Bacterial vaginosis is a common condition among women of childbearing age. It is characterized by a thin, milky white discharge with a malodorous fishy smell. The discharge is not itchy, but the fishy odor can be detected by adding 10% potassium hydroxide to the vaginal discharge. The vaginal pH is usually greater than 4.5.
Risk factors for bacterial vaginosis include the use of intrauterine coil devices, vaginal douching, and having multiple sexual partners. If left untreated, bacterial vaginosis can lead to pelvic inflammatory diseases. Some patients may not experience any symptoms, but those who do should seek treatment, especially if they are pregnant.
In the UK, the first line treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for seven days. Alternatively, a single dose of oral metronidazole 2 g may be given if patient adherence is an issue. Azithromycin is used to treat Chlamydia, and ceftriaxone is used to treat gonorrhea.
In the US, the CDC has updated treatment recommendations for bacterial vaginosis. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for seven days is the recommended therapy, with alternatives including several tinidazole regimens or clindamycin (oral or intravaginal). Additional regimens include metronidazole (750 mg extended release tablets once daily for seven days) or a single dose of clindamycin intravaginal cream, although data on the performance of these alternative regimens are limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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