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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and difficulty moving around. During the examination, it is observed that he has a slow gait with reduced arm movement and a tremor in his right arm. What is the usual frequency of the resting tremor in Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: 2 Hz
Correct Answer: 4 Hz
Explanation:the Tremor of Parkinson’s Disease
The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is a type of rest tremor that typically has a frequency of 3 to 6 HZ. It usually starts on one side of the body and becomes more severe as the disease progresses. Eventually, the tremor becomes bilateral, affecting both sides of the body.
While the tremor is initially a rest tremor, it may develop into an action tremor over time. Additionally, the severity of the tremor may increase with the use of levodopa. the characteristics of the tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is important for both patients and healthcare providers in managing the symptoms of the disease. By recognizing the progression of the tremor, appropriate treatment options can be explored to improve quality of life for those living with Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The organism was diagnosed as being Streptococcus pneumoniae after a lumbar puncture and the patient was treated with ceftriaxone. On discharge, his observations were normal. He has a past medical history of asthma treated with salbutamol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. He has no known drug allergies.
A few days following his discharge, he started experiencing postural headaches that were worse when sitting upright. He grades his pain as 7/10. He has been feeling nauseated, although has had no vomiting episodes. He also has some minor neck stiffness and is not confused. He attends A&E, as he is worried about his new symptoms. There is evidence of extrathecal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Diagnosis is confirmed on a computed tomography (CT) myelogram.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s headache?Your Answer: Spontaneous intracranial hypotension
Explanation:Distinguishing Spontaneous Intracranial Hypotension from Other Conditions
Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is a condition that affects around 5 per 100,000 of the general population, with a peak age at diagnosis of 40 years. It is more common in women and develops due to a weakness in the spinal dura, which could be congenital, iatrogenic, or due to calcification of spinal discs. Lumbar punctures, which are commonly performed to aid the diagnosis of meningitis, are a common cause of SIH.
Clinically, SIH causes a postural headache that worsens when standing or sitting and improves when lying down. It is associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can be diagnosed with a CT myelogram. Interestingly, CSF opening pressure is often normal, making diagnosis by repeat lumbar puncture unhelpful. Treatment typically involves an epidural blood patch.
It is important to distinguish SIH from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A subdural hematoma, for example, would be diagnosed on a CT head by the presence of concave opacity and typically has a slow onset with fluctuating confusion. Aseptic meningitis, which presents with symptoms similar to meningitis, would be confirmed on microscopy of lumbar puncture. Insufficiently treated meningitis would not cause a postural headache, and a subarachnoid hemorrhage would cause a sudden-onset thunderclap headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome?
Your Answer: Loss of distal pulse is an early sign
Correct Answer: Passive stretch of affected muscles exacerbates pain
Explanation:Compartment Syndrome
Compartment syndrome is a condition that occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases to a level that exceeds arterial blood pressure. This can happen even without a fracture, such as in cases of crush injuries. The earliest and most reliable symptom of compartment syndrome is pain, which can be exacerbated by passive stretching of the muscles in the affected area. As the condition progresses, loss of peripheral pulses may occur, indicating that the pressure has reached a critical level.
Treatment for compartment syndrome involves decompression of the affected compartment(s), including the skin. It is important to recognize the symptoms of compartment syndrome early on in order to prevent further damage and potential loss of function. By the signs and symptoms of this condition, individuals can seek prompt medical attention and receive the appropriate treatment to alleviate the pressure and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is referred to the Paediatric Neurology Service after his teacher raised concerns that the child sometimes appears to ‘stare into space’. The parents brought him to the General Practitioner reporting that they have also noticed that he would look blank for a minute and then looks confused. After these episodes, the boy becomes his normal self and does not remember what happened. The boy says that he sometimes has headaches, which usually occur at home and for which he takes paracetamol. There is no significant past medical or family history.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Focal seizure
Correct Answer: Absence seizure
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Seizures: Symptoms and Characteristics
One of the most common types of seizures is the absence seizure, which is characterized by brief periods of decreased consciousness. In this type of seizure, the child may stop talking or what they were doing for about 10-15 seconds before returning to their normal self. Absence seizures are a form of generalized seizure and require electroencephalography (EEG) for diagnosis.
Another type of seizure is the focal seizure, which originates within networks limited to one hemisphere. It can be discretely localized or more widely distributed, and it replaces the terms partial seizure and localization-related seizure.
Primary generalized seizures usually present with a combination of limb stiffening and limb jerking, known as a tonic-clonic seizure. Patients may also experience tongue biting and incontinence. After the seizure, patients often feel tired and drowsy and do not remember what happened.
Atonic seizures are a form of primary generalized seizure where there is no muscle tone, causing the patient to drop to the floor. Unlike other forms of seizures, there is no loss of consciousness.
While migraines can cause neurological symptoms, they do not typically cause an episode such as the one described. Migraines often present with an aura and do not result in loss of consciousness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe and unremitting occipital headache. On examination, she is drowsy and confused, with a blood pressure of 180/95 mmHg. You suspect that she may have had a subarachnoid haemorrhage and arrange a computed tomography (CT) scan. This is normal. She undergoes a lumbar puncture and the results are shown below:
Pot 1: red cells 490 × 109/l, white cells 10 × 109/l, no organisms seen
Pot 2: red cells 154 × 109/l, white cells 8 × 109/l, no organisms seen
Pot 3: red cells 51 × 109/l, white cells <5 × 109/l, no organisms seen
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these results?Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage >1 week ago
Correct Answer: Traumatic tap
Explanation:Interpreting Lumbar Puncture Results in Neurological Conditions
Lumbar puncture is a diagnostic procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis in various neurological conditions. The results of a lumbar puncture can provide valuable information in diagnosing conditions such as traumatic tap, subarachnoid hemorrhage, bacterial meningitis, and viral meningitis.
Traumatic Tap: A traumatic tap is characterized by a gradation of red cell contamination in sequential samples of CSF. This condition is often accompanied by severe headaches and can be managed with adequate analgesia and reassessment of blood pressure.
Confirmed Recent Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage, red cells within the CSF are expected to be constant within each bottle. However, a more reliable way to examine for subarachnoid hemorrhage is to look for the presence of xanthochromia in the CSF, which takes several hours to develop.
Bacterial Meningitis: Bacterial meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly polymorphs. CSF protein and glucose, as well as paired blood glucose, are valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing bacterial meningitis.
Viral Meningitis: Viral meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly lymphocytes. Protein and glucose levels in the CSF are also valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing viral meningitis.
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage >1 Week Ago: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage that occurred more than a week ago, few red cells would remain in the CSF. In such cases, examining the CSF for xanthochromia in the lab is a more valuable test.
In conclusion, interpreting lumbar puncture results requires careful consideration of various parameters and their respective values in different neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.
She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?Your Answer: Intravenous thiamine
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 75-year-old female patient comes in with a two-month history of apathy, withdrawal, urinary and faecal incontinence, and anosmia. What is the most probable location of the neurological lesion?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:Frontal Lobe Syndrome
Frontal lobe syndrome is a condition that is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect the frontal lobe of the brain. This condition can present with a variety of symptoms, including personality changes, urinary and faecal incontinence, anosmia, expressive dysphasia, release of primitive reflexes, and epilepsy. In some cases, patients may also experience dementia-like symptoms.
One of the key features of frontal lobe syndrome is the release of primitive reflexes, such as the positive grasp, pout, and palmomental reflexes. These reflexes are typically present in infants, but they may reappear in patients with frontal lobe damage. Additionally, patients with frontal lobe syndrome may experience seizures, which can be a sign of a frontal lobe tumor.
It is important to note that frontal lobe syndrome can be difficult to diagnose, as it can mimic other conditions such as dementia. However, with proper evaluation and testing, doctors can identify the underlying cause of the symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Overall, frontal lobe syndrome is crucial for early detection and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man without significant history presents with complaints of pain in his left forearm and hand that is relieved by changing the position of his arm. During examination, there is a loss of sensation on the medial aspect of his hand, and a cervical rib is suspected. To confirm involvement of the C8 and T1 roots of the brachial plexus rather than a palsy of the ulnar nerve, which motor test should be used?
Your Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger
Correct Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger
Explanation:Assessing Nerve Lesions: Differentiating Between C8/T1 and Ulnar Nerve Lesions
When assessing for nerve lesions, it is important to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. One way to do this is by testing specific actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves.
Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is controlled by the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by both the ulnar nerve and the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve) via C8/T1 nerve roots. Weakness in this action would make an ulnar nerve injury unlikely.
Abduction and adduction of the fingers are controlled by the dorsal and palmar interosseous muscles, respectively. These muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots, making testing these actions unable to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Adduction of the thumb is controlled by the adductor pollicis muscle, which is also innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Similarly, flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger is controlled by the medial aspect of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
In summary, assessing for weakness in flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger can help differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. Testing other actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves would not provide this differentiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 57-year-old male with diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his left foot. He has noticed a dragging sensation when walking for the past two days. The patient has been diabetic for two years and has had no previous abnormalities during annual check-ups.
During the examination, the patient is unable to dorsiflex his left foot and evert it. However, his right foot is unaffected, and plantar flexion and inversion are normal. What sensory abnormality would you anticipate finding in conjunction with this motor defect?Your Answer: Sensory loss over the lateral part of the leg and dorsum of the foot
Explanation:Common Peroneal Nerve Neuropathy in a Diabetic Patient
A male patient with diabetes has developed a mononeuropathy that is consistent with a common peroneal nerve neuropathy. This condition results in a loss of sensation in the lateral part of the leg and dorsum of the foot, while the fifth toe remains unaffected. Although peripheral neuropathy may be expected in diabetic patients, the sudden onset of this condition and previously normal findings suggest otherwise.
In summary, this patient’s symptoms are indicative of a common peroneal nerve neuropathy, which is a type of mononeuropathy that affects the peroneal nerve. This condition is commonly seen in diabetic patients and can result in a loss of sensation in specific areas of the leg and foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with his friend after collapsing during a soccer match. He fell to the ground suddenly, losing consciousness. Witnesses reported jerking movements of his limbs and incontinence before the episode self-terminated after a few minutes. He has a history of psoriasis and takes methotrexate once weekly. He is urgently referred to a Neurology Clinic for review. Physical examination is normal, and investigations reveal no abnormalities except for a slightly elevated TSH level. What is the most likely cause of his presentation?
Your Answer: Methotrexate toxicity
Correct Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of a First Tonic-Clonic Seizure
A first tonic-clonic seizure can be a challenging diagnosis to make, and further investigation is required to determine the underlying cause. While an EEG can confirm seizure activity in around 70% of cases, it is not a definitive test and a negative result does not rule out epilepsy. However, given the history of a tonic-clonic seizure, epilepsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Other potential causes, such as head injury, hypothyroidism, methotrexate toxicity, and psychogenic seizure, should also be considered. Head injury is a risk factor for epilepsy, but there is no history of head injury in this scenario. Hypothyroidism is not clinically or biochemically present in the patient. Methotrexate toxicity may precipitate seizures in those with previously controlled epilepsy, but it is not a significant risk factor for first fits. Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures are an important differential, but the presence of incontinence and the characteristics of the seizure make it less likely.
Overall, a thorough investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of a first tonic-clonic seizure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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