00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man presents to a rural medical assessment unit with recurrent episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to a rural medical assessment unit with recurrent episodes of syncope. He is admitted into the hospital in the cardiology ward for a work-up.

      After two hours of admission, he experiences dizziness and mild disorientation. Upon examination, his airway is clear, he is breathing at a rate of 15 breaths per minute, his oxygen saturation is 96% on air, his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, and his heart rate is 40 beats per minute. It is noted that he has a documented anaphylactic allergy to atropine.

      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Atropine

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      An adrenaline infusion can be used as an alternative treatment for symptomatic bradycardia if transcutaneous pacing is not available. In this case, the patient requires rapid intervention to address their haemodynamic instability. Atropine infusion is not appropriate due to the patient’s allergy and potential to worsen their condition. Amiodarone is not useful in this situation, as it is typically used for other arrhythmias. Digoxin is not helpful in bradycardia and can actually reduce AV conduction speed. Glucagon is reserved for cases of cardiovascular failure caused by beta-blocker overdose, which is not the case for this patient.

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2021 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight that the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms depends on two factors. Firstly, identifying adverse signs that indicate haemodynamic compromise, such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. Secondly, identifying the potential risk of asystole, which can occur in patients with complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, or ventricular pause > 3 seconds.

      If adverse signs are present, Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, or isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing in patients with risk factors for asystole. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      203.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fatigue and lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fatigue and lower back pain. Upon conducting a thorough examination and taking a complete medical history, the physician orders blood tests. The results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 101 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 138 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 4.9 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 132 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 3.7 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 27 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29)
      - Urea: 8.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 142 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Calcium: 3.2 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 1.4 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
      - Magnesium: 1.0 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)

      What is the recommended first-line imaging for this patient?

      Your Answer: Brain and spinal cord MRI

      Correct Answer: Whole body MRI

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations

      Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.

      To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic raindrop skull pattern.

      The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      69.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old is brought to the ICU following a severe head injury from...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old is brought to the ICU following a severe head injury from a car crash. The patient arrives agitated and hypoxic, requiring intubation and ventilation. Upon further examination, it is discovered that the patient has an elevated intracranial pressure. How does altering the ventilation rate aid in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Hyperventilation -> reduce CO2 -> vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries -> reduced ICP

      Explanation:

      Controlled hyperventilation can be employed for patients with elevated ICP by increasing CO2 expiration. This leads to constriction of cerebral arteries due to low blood CO2 levels. As a result, blood flow decreases, reducing the volume inside the cranium and ultimately lowering intracranial pressure. Therefore, the other options are incorrect.

      Understanding Raised Intracranial Pressure

      As the brain and ventricles are enclosed by a rigid skull, any additional volume such as haematoma, tumour, or excessive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can lead to a rise in intracranial pressure (ICP). In adults, the normal ICP is between 7-15 mmHg in the supine position. The net pressure gradient causing cerebral blood flow to the brain is known as cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which can be calculated by subtracting ICP from mean arterial pressure.

      Raised intracranial pressure can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic intracranial hypertension, traumatic head injuries, infections, meningitis, tumours, and hydrocephalus. Its symptoms include headache, vomiting, reduced levels of consciousness, papilloedema, and Cushing’s triad, which is characterized by widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular breathing.

      To investigate the underlying cause, neuroimaging such as CT or MRI is key. Invasive ICP monitoring can also be done by placing a catheter into the lateral ventricles of the brain to monitor the pressure, collect CSF samples, and drain small amounts of CSF to reduce the pressure. A cut-off of >20 mmHg is often used to determine if further treatment is needed to reduce the ICP.

      Management of raised intracranial pressure involves investigating and treating the underlying cause, head elevation to 30º, IV mannitol as an osmotic diuretic, controlled hyperventilation to reduce pCO2 and vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries, and removal of CSF through techniques such as drain from intraventricular monitor, repeated lumbar puncture, or ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old construction worker comes to you with a puncture wound that got...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old construction worker comes to you with a puncture wound that got contaminated with rusted metal while working on a construction site. You want to know if he needs protection against tetanus and find out that he received 5 doses of tetanus vaccine in the past, with the last dose being 6 years ago. What is the recommended course of action for tetanus treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Requires booster vaccine but not immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: No booster vaccine or immunoglobulin required

      Explanation:

      If the patient has received all 5 doses of tetanus vaccine and the last dose was administered less than 10 years ago, they do not need a booster vaccine or immunoglobulins, regardless of the severity of the wound.

      In case the last vaccine was administered more than 10 years ago, a booster vaccine would be required for a lower risk wound.

      For a high-risk wound or if the vaccination status is unknown, both a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin would be necessary.

      Currently, there is no need for two consecutive booster vaccines.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      293.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, disoriented, and experiences frequent falls. Upon examination, you observe that he has difficulty with balance and coordination, and bilateral lateral rectus palsy with nystagmus. His sensory examination reveals a polyneuropathy, and his pulse is 90 bpm. There is no agitation or tremor noted on examination.
      What is the most urgent treatment that should be administered to this patient?

      Your Answer: Pabrinex

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.

      When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      122.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal discomfort and distension for the past...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal discomfort and distension for the past two days. He has not had a bowel movement in a week and has not passed gas in two days. He seems sluggish and has a temperature of 35.5°C. His pulse is 56 BPM, and his abdomen is not tender. An X-ray of his abdomen reveals enlarged loops of both small and large bowel. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudo-obstruction

      Explanation:

      Pseudo-Obstruction and its Causes

      Pseudo-obstruction is a condition that can be caused by various factors, including hypothyroidism, hypokalaemia, diabetes, uraemia, and hypocalcaemia. In the case of hypothyroidism, the slowness and hypothermia of the patient suggest that this may be the underlying cause of the pseudo-obstruction. However, other factors should also be considered.

      It is important to note that pseudo-obstruction is a condition that affects the digestive system, specifically the intestines. It is characterized by symptoms that mimic those of a bowel obstruction, such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. However, unlike a true bowel obstruction, there is no physical blockage in the intestines.

      To diagnose pseudo-obstruction, doctors may perform various tests, including X-rays, CT scans, and blood tests. Treatment options may include medications to stimulate the intestines, changes in diet, and surgery in severe cases.

      Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of pseudo-obstruction in order to provide appropriate treatment and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      251.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with frequent blood pressure readings above...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with frequent blood pressure readings above 160/95 mmHg on an ambulatory monitor. He has a history of well-controlled heart failure (New York Heart Association stage 2) and chronic kidney disease. The patient is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and atorvastatin, with optimized dosages for the past year.

      What is the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add indapamide

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action for a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor is to add indapamide to their medication regimen. This is in accordance with the NICE treatment algorithm, which recommends adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic in such cases. It is important to note that nifedipine should be avoided in patients with heart failure, and that amlodipine is the only calcium channel blocker licensed for use in such patients. Continuing to monitor blood pressure at home and reviewing in one month would not be sufficient in this case, as the patient’s hypertension needs to be addressed more aggressively. Stopping ramipril and trying amlodipine instead is not recommended, as combination therapy is the preferred approach. Similarly, stopping ramipril and trying amlodipine with indapamide instead is not recommended, as the combination should not be used in place of an ACE inhibitor.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are evaluating a patient who presents with diplopia. When looking straight ahead,...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a patient who presents with diplopia. When looking straight ahead, the patient's right eye is elevated and abducted. When attempting to gaze to the left, the diplopia exacerbates.
      What is the probable underlying cause of this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right 4th nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is the perception of seeing two images stacked on top of each other. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding these symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment of fourth nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent symptoms three weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent symptoms three weeks after a flare of ulcerative colitis. Despite daily use of topical mesalazine, he reports passing stool with a small amount of blood up to three times daily. His vital signs are within normal limits, and blood tests reveal elevated WBC and ESR levels. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add oral mesalazine, continue topical mesalazine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with distal ulcerative colitis experiences a mild-moderate flare that does not respond to topical aminosalicylates, oral aminosalicylates should be added as an adjunct therapy. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are typical of a mild flare according to Truelove and Witt’s criteria. As his symptoms are not improving with topical treatment, oral mesalazine should be added while continuing the topical mesalazine. Oral steroids are not currently indicated for this patient’s mild flare. It is important to continue the topical therapy alongside the oral therapy for optimal management. If symptoms do not improve within two weeks, the patient should schedule a follow-up appointment.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by a friend who...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by a friend who found him confused and drowsy, with his hands over his abdomen. The patient has vomited twice on the way to the hospital and appears to be in pain. An arterial blood gas reveals the following results: pH 7.29 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 17 mmol/L (normal range: 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 3kPa (normal range: 4.5-6kPa), p02 12kPa (normal range: 10-14kPa), and anion gap 20mEq/L (normal range: 10-14mEq/L). Which diagnostic test would provide the quickest indication of the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood glucose monitoring (BM)

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the most prevalent form of colorectal cancer that is inherited?

    Familial...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent form of colorectal cancer that is inherited?

      Familial adenomatous polyposis, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, Fanconi syndrome, and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are all types of inherited colorectal cancer. However, which one is the most common?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Genetics and Types of Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a type of cancer that affects the colon and rectum. There are three main types of colorectal cancer: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is the most common type, accounting for 95% of cases. It is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumour suppressor genes.

      HNPCC, also known as Lynch syndrome, is an autosomal dominant condition that accounts for 5% of cases. It is the most common form of inherited colon cancer and is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most commonly affected genes are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of developing other cancers, such as endometrial cancer.

      FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that accounts for less than 1% of cases. It is caused by a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC), which leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. Patients with FAP inevitably develop carcinoma and are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin.

      In conclusion, understanding the genetics behind colorectal cancer is important for diagnosis and treatment. While sporadic colon cancer is the most common type, HNPCC and FAP are inherited conditions that require genetic testing and surveillance for early detection and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old male who recently had cardiac surgery is experiencing symptoms of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male who recently had cardiac surgery is experiencing symptoms of fever, fatigue, and weight loss. After being discharged following a successful mitral valve replacement 6 months ago, an urgent echocardiogram is conducted and reveals a new valvular lesion, leading to a diagnosis of endocarditis. To confirm the diagnosis, three sets of blood cultures are collected. What is the most probable organism responsible for the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, especially in acute presentations and among intravenous drug users. However, if the patient has undergone valve replacement surgery more than 2 months ago, the spectrum of organisms causing endocarditis returns to normal, making Staphylococcus epidermidis less likely. While Streptococcus bovis can also cause endocarditis, it is not as common as Staphylococcus aureus and is associated with colon cancer. Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most common cause of endocarditis within 2 months post-valvular surgery. On the other hand, Streptococcus mitis, a viridans streptococcus found in the mouth, is associated with endocarditis following dental procedures or in patients with poor dental hygiene.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is on opioids for pain management requests some pain relief for breakthrough pain. He has a medical history of metastatic lung cancer, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease. Earlier in the day, his latest blood results were as follows:

      Hb 121 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 340 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 9.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 25.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 624 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      eGFR 9 mL/min/1.73m² (>90)

      CRP 19 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most appropriate pain relief for this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sublingual fentanyl

      Explanation:

      For palliative care patients with severe renal impairment, fentanyl or buprenorphine are the preferred opioids for pain relief. This is because they are not excreted through the kidneys, reducing the risk of toxicity compared to morphine. Fentanyl is the top choice due to its liver metabolism, making it less likely to cause harm in patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 10 mL/min/1.73². Oxycodone can be used in mild to moderate renal impairment (GFR 10-50 mL/min/1.73²), but it should be avoided in severe cases as it is partially excreted through the kidneys. Ibuprofen is not recommended as it is a weaker pain reliever than opioids and is contraindicated in patients with poor renal function.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea and pyrexia. He has a history of alcohol abuse and emits a strong smell of alcohol. While in the department, he begins to cough up currant jelly sputum. He is admitted and given the appropriate antibiotics. The sputum is cultured and the causative agent is identified. What other condition is associated with this organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleural empyema

      Explanation:

      Empyema formation can be caused by Klebsiella.

      Alcoholics are often affected by Klebsiella infections, which have unique characteristics such as sputum resembling currant jelly. They are also linked to various other conditions, including ascending cholangitis. Patients may develop empyema after pneumonia, which is a collection of pus in an existing cavity, such as the pleural space, and should not be confused with an abscess, which is a collection of pus in a newly formed cavity.

      Tuberculosis is associated with Addison’s disease, while parvovirus B19 infection is linked to aplastic anemia in individuals with sickle cell anemia. Although erythema multiforme can have multiple causes, it is not caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae. The most common cause of this condition is Mycoplasma pneumonia.

      Klebsiella Pneumoniae: A Gram-Negative Rod Causing Infections in Humans

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is a type of Gram-negative rod that is typically found in the gut flora of humans. Although it is a normal part of the body’s microbiome, it can also cause a variety of infections in humans, including pneumonia and urinary tract infections. This bacterium is more commonly found in individuals who have diabetes or who consume alcohol regularly. In some cases, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can occur following aspiration.

      One of the distinctive features of Klebsiella pneumoniae infections is the presence of red-currant jelly sputum. This type of sputum is often seen in patients with pneumonia caused by this bacterium. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections tend to affect the upper lobes of the lungs.

      Unfortunately, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can be quite serious and even life-threatening. They commonly lead to the formation of lung abscesses and empyema, and the mortality rate for these infections is between 30-50%. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for Klebsiella pneumoniae infections, particularly in patients who are at higher risk due to underlying health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old man visits his GP complaining of watery diarrhoea that has persisted...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man visits his GP complaining of watery diarrhoea that has persisted for a few days. The patient had received IM ceftriaxone for gonorrhoeae treatment the previous week. He has not traveled recently and has maintained his regular diet. This is the first time the patient has encountered diarrhoea in his life. The GP conducted some tests and found that the patient is positive for C.difficile toxin. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with C. difficile infection is oral vancomycin. This is the appropriate treatment for the patient in question, who has tested positive for C. difficile toxin in their stool while taking IM ceftriaxone. As this is their first episode of C. difficile, oral vancomycin should be prescribed. Prescribing oral fidaxomicin would be incorrect, as it is typically reserved for recurrent episodes of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution. Oral metronidazole is an alternative but less effective option for non-severe cases, and should only be used if vancomycin is not available or contraindicated. Prescribing a combination of oral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole would only be necessary in cases of life-threatening C. difficile infection, which is not the case for this patient.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a lack of blood flow to the brain four weeks ago but has since made a remarkable recovery. However, the patient experienced severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea when he switched from taking 300mg of aspirin daily to 75 mg of clopidogrel. Consequently, he stopped taking clopidogrel, and his symptoms have subsided.
      What would be the most suitable medication(s) to recommend for preventing a secondary stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole

      Explanation:

      When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking either medication alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended for this purpose by NICE, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:
    Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
    ALP...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:
      Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
      ALP 84 U/L
      ALT 23 U/L
      Albumin 41 g/L
      Dipstick urinalysis normal
      He has been experiencing symptoms of a cold, including a runny nose and dry cough. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is typically characterized by a rise in bilirubin levels in response to physiological stress. Therefore, it is likely that a 22-year-old male with isolated hyperbilirubinemia has Gilbert’s syndrome. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome, which both result in conjugated bilirubinemia, can be ruled out based on a normal dipstick urinalysis. Viral infections are often responsible for triggering a bilirubin increase in individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain situations such as intercurrent illness, exercise, or fasting. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. The exact mode of inheritance for Gilbert’s syndrome is still a matter of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of occasional double...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of occasional double vision that occurs during the day. She reports that her vision returns to normal after taking a break. The symptoms have been worsening over the past six months, and she has already consulted an optometrist who could not identify a cause. There have been no indications of muscle or peripheral nerve issues. What medication is typically attempted as a first-line treatment for the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyridostigmine

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in insufficient functioning acetylcholine receptors. It is more common in women and is characterized by muscle fatigability, extraocular muscle weakness, proximal muscle weakness, ptosis, and dysphagia. Thymomas are present in 15% of cases, and autoimmune disorders are also associated with the disease. Diagnosis is made through single fibre electromyography and CT thorax to exclude thymoma. Management includes long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, immunosuppression, and thymectomy. Plasmapheresis and intravenous immunoglobulins are used to manage myasthenic crisis. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors are seen in 85-90% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old man presents for a health check and his thyroid function tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents for a health check and his thyroid function tests (TFTs) from three months ago showed elevated TSH levels and normal Free T4 levels. His recent TFTs show similar results and he reports feeling more tired and cold than usual. He denies any other symptoms and has no past medical history, but his mother has a history of autoimmune thyroiditis. What is the next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe levothyroxine for 6 months and repeat thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      For patients under 65 years old with subclinical hypothyroidism and a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L, a 6-month trial of thyroxine should be offered if they have hypothyroidism symptoms and their TSH remains elevated on two separate occasions 3 months apart. This is because subclinical hypothyroidism increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to overt hypothyroidism, and treatment with levothyroxine generally resolves symptoms. Repeat thyroid autoantibody tests and thyroid function testing after 3 months are unnecessary if the patient has already had negative autoantibody results and two elevated TSH levels 3 months apart. Prescribing levothyroxine only if further symptoms develop is not recommended as it delays treatment and increases the risk of negative impacts on the patient’s quality of life.

      Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men, with a 2-5% chance per year. This risk is further increased if thyroid autoantibodies are present.

      Not all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism require treatment, and guidelines have been produced by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS) to help determine when treatment is necessary. If the TSH level is above 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, levothyroxine may be offered. If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be considered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms of hypothyroidism. For older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients may simply have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.

      In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and consideration of treatment options based on individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans to start trying for a baby. Despite feeling relatively well, she has several pre-existing medical conditions. She is classified as grade 2 obese and has type 2 diabetes (which is managed with metformin), hypertension (treated with ramipril), gastro-oesophageal reflux (using ranitidine), and allergic rhinitis (taking loratadine). Additionally, she experiences back pain and takes paracetamol on a daily basis.
      Which medication should she avoid during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should avoid taking ACE inhibitors like ramipril as they can lead to fetal abnormalities and renal failure. These medications are believed to hinder the production of fetal urine, resulting in oligohydramnios, and increase the likelihood of cranial and cardiac defects. However, other drugs do not pose any known risks during pregnancy and can be continued if necessary.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with peri-umbilical pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with peri-umbilical pain. The pain is sharp in nature, is exacerbated by coughing and came on gradually over the past 12 hours. On examination, she is unable to stand on one leg comfortably and experiences pain on hip extension. The is no rebound tenderness or guarding. A urine pregnancy test is negative, and her temperature is 37.4ºC. The following tests are done:

      Hb 135 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 300 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 14 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Neuts 11 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Lymphs 2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)

      Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)

      Eosin 0.2 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      CRP 24 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute appendicitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for individuals experiencing pain in the peri-umbilical region is acute appendicitis. Early appendicitis is characterized by this type of pain, and a positive psoas sign is also present. A neutrophil predominant leucocytosis is observed on the full blood count, indicating an infection. Ovarian torsion can cause sharp pain, but it is typically sudden and severe, not gradually worsening over 12 hours. Inguinal hernia pain is more likely to be felt in the groin area, not peri-umbilical, and there is no mention of a mass during the abdominal examination. Suprapubic pain and lower urinary tract symptoms such as dysuria are more likely to be associated with a lower urinary tract infection. In the absence of high fever and/or flank pain, an upper urinary tract infection is unlikely.

      Understanding Acute Appendicitis

      Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to the obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, leading to oedema, ischaemia, and possible perforation.

      The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is usually peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.

      Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers, compatible history, and examination findings. Imaging may be used in some cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. The treatment of choice for acute appendicitis is appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.

      In conclusion, acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the pathogenesis, symptoms, and management of acute appendicitis is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and is found to have evidence of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and is found to have evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia on chest x-ray. On examination the respiratory rate is 36 breaths per minute, pulse rate is 90 per minute and the blood pressure is 106/48 mmHg. Initial bloods show a urea of 12 mmol/l.
      What is the patient's CURB 65 score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB 65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 38-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about sudden weight gain. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about sudden weight gain. Despite following a balanced diet and exercising, she has gained 10 kilograms in the past month. She also reports an increase in body hair and new acne on her face. During the examination, the doctor observes central adiposity. The patient has been taking regular oral corticosteroids for adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder. Based on the likely diagnosis, what acid-base imbalance would be anticipated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, which is a common feature of Cushing’s syndrome. This condition is caused by an excess of corticosteroids, which can be exacerbated by corticosteroid therapy. The patient’s symptoms, such as central adiposity, stretch marks, bruising, hirsutism, and acne, are all indicative of Cushing’s syndrome.

      Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis occurs when cortisol levels are high, allowing cortisol to bind to mineralocorticoid receptors. This leads to an increase in water and sodium retention, increased potassium excretion, and increased hydrogen ion excretion. The resulting decrease in hydrogen ions causes alkalosis, while the decrease in potassium causes hypokalemia.

      Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, on the other hand, is caused by bicarbonate loss, usually due to diarrhea. The patient does not report any gastrointestinal symptoms, so this is unlikely to be the cause. Hyperkalaemic metabolic acidosis is associated with type 4 renal tubular acidosis and hypoaldosteronism, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperkalaemic metabolic alkalosis is also unlikely, as a decrease in hydrogen ions would lead to a decrease in potassium ions. Finally, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis is most commonly caused by vomiting, which the patient did not report.

      Investigations for Cushing’s Syndrome

      Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive cortisol production in the body. There are various causes of Cushing’s syndrome, including iatrogenic, ACTH-dependent, and ACTH-independent causes. To diagnose Cushing’s syndrome, doctors typically perform tests to confirm the condition and determine its underlying cause.

      General lab findings consistent with Cushing’s syndrome include hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and impaired glucose tolerance. Ectopic ACTH secretion, which is often associated with small cell lung cancer, is characterized by very low potassium levels.

      The two most commonly used tests to confirm Cushing’s syndrome are the overnight dexamethasone suppression test and the 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. The overnight dexamethasone suppression test is the most sensitive test and is used first-line to test for Cushing’s syndrome. Patients with Cushing’s syndrome do not have their morning cortisol spike suppressed. The 24-hour urinary free cortisol test measures the amount of cortisol in the urine over a 24-hour period.

      To localize the cause of Cushing’s syndrome, doctors may perform additional tests such as high-dose dexamethasone suppression test, CRH stimulation, and petrosal sinus sampling of ACTH. An insulin stress test may also be used to differentiate between true Cushing’s and pseudo-Cushing’s. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine its underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35 year old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of recent paresthesia in her left leg. She was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 4 months ago by the neurology department. The paresthesia has been ongoing for 3 days and is accompanied by increased fatigue and urinary frequency/urgency symptoms. A urine dip test shows no abnormalities. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      In the case of this patient, it is probable that she is experiencing an acute relapse of her multiple sclerosis. A urine dip has been conducted to rule out a urinary tract infection, which could also cause a flare in her symptoms (known as Uhthoff’s phenomenon). As her symptoms are new and have persisted for more than 24 hours, it is likely that she requires treatment with methylprednisolone (either intravenous or oral) to manage the relapse.

      While Fingolimod, Natalizumab, and Beta-interferon are all disease modifying drugs that may reduce the frequency of relapses, they are not appropriate for treating acute relapses and should only be started in secondary care with proper drug counseling.

      Amantadine may be useful in managing fatigue, but it is recommended by NICE to only be trialed for fatigue once other potential causes have been ruled out. It is unlikely to be effective in treating the patient’s other symptoms.

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.

      Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with his son. The son reports...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with his son. The son reports that his father's memory has been declining for the past 8 months and he has been experiencing fluctuations in attention and consciousness. The patient has also reported seeing dogs and children running around in his living room. The patient has a medical history of resting tremors, rigidity, and shuffling gait for the past 10 years. However, there is no history of mood swings or urinary or bowel incontinence. On examination, there are no postural changes in his blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease dementia

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) and Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD) share similar features such as tremors, rigidity, postural instability, fluctuating cognition, and hallucinations. However, they can be differentiated based on the time of onset of dementia compared to motor symptoms. PDD is diagnosed if a patient had a Parkinson’s disease diagnosis for at least 1 year before the emergence of dementia. In contrast, DLB would have dementia occurring first followed by motor symptoms. This patient has had 8 years of preceding motor symptoms before the onset of dementia, making PDD more likely. It is important to distinguish between the two as their management varies significantly. Levodopa is the mainstay of treatment in PDD, whereas rivastigmine is the drug of choice in DLB. Treating this patient as DLB may miss out on important elements of treatment needed in patients with PDD. Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and multiple system atrophy are not likely diagnoses in this case as they have different clinical features.

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.

      The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.

      Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old male with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) presents to the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) presents to the emergency department complaining of fever, chills, and feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.6ºC, pulse rate is 116 beats/min, blood pressure is 102/62 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 24 beats/min. Crackles and bronchial breathing are heard in the left upper zone of his chest. A urine dip is negative for leucocytes and blood tests reveal a neutrophil count of 0.4. He received his last cycle of chemotherapy 10 days ago. What is the most appropriate antibiotic treatment to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment with antibiotics. Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) is the preferred antibiotic for this condition, even before neutropenia is confirmed on blood testing. This combination works by breaking down the cell walls of bacteria and preventing bacterial resistance to piperacillin. However, if a patient is unable to tolerate Tazocin, alternative antibiotics should be considered based on local guidelines or microbiology advice.

      Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid and gentamicin are other antibiotics that can be used for severe infections, but they are not the best choice for neutropenic sepsis. Aztreonam and vancomycin can be used in combination when Tazocin is not an option, but a third antibiotic may be necessary for additional coverage. It is important to note that gentamicin should be used with caution due to the risk of kidney damage and ototoxicity.

      Neutropenic Sepsis: A Common Complication of Cancer Therapy

      Neutropenic sepsis is a frequent complication of cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis.

      To prevent neutropenic sepsis, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 as a result of their treatment should be offered a fluoroquinolone. In the event of neutropenic sepsis, antibiotics must be initiated immediately, without waiting for the white blood cell count.

      According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotic therapy should begin with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately. While some units may add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After initial treatment, patients are typically assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they may be able to receive outpatient treatment.

      If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) rather than blindly initiating antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with constipation, confusion, and fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with constipation, confusion, and fatigue. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and prostate cancer. His blood work shows a significantly elevated calcium level. What is the expected ECG result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shortening of the QT interval

      Explanation:

      Patients with cancer have a high risk of developing hypercalcemia, which is linked to a shortened QT interval. The QT interval can also be prolonged due to electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalcemia, as well as hypothermia, myocardial ischemia, and congenital long QT syndrome. First-degree heart block is characterized by a fixed prolonged PR interval, while hyperkalemia is indicated by tall T waves that may be followed by flattened P waves, PR prolongation, and a sine-wave appearance. S1Q3T3, which refers to an S wave in lead I, a Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III, is a rare finding that is often associated with pulmonary embolism (PE), but it is not a reliable indicator of this condition.

      Hypercalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The symptoms and signs of hypercalcaemia can be remembered by the phrase ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’. This means that patients with hypercalcaemia may experience bone pain, kidney stones, constipation, and changes in mood or behavior. In addition, corneal calcification and a shortened QT interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG) may also be present. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is another common feature of hypercalcaemia. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present, as hypercalcaemia can lead to serious complications if left untreated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old patient visits his primary care physician complaining of a recent exacerbation...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient visits his primary care physician complaining of a recent exacerbation of his chronic cough. He reports experiencing similar episodes in the past, during which his typically yellow sputum becomes thicker and slightly tinged with blood. The patient has a history of hypertension and bronchiectasis, and has received multiple courses of antibiotics for these exacerbations. Upon examination, the patient appears relatively healthy but continues to cough. Crackles are heard upon chest auscultation. Given the patient's medical history and likely diagnosis, the physician decides to obtain a sputum sample. What organism is most likely to be observed upon culturing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most common organism associated with bronchiectasis is Haemophilus influenzae, making it the correct answer for an acute exacerbation of this condition. While Klebsiella pneumonia is also a possibility, it is less frequently seen and typically associated with pneumonia in patients with alcohol dependence. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an incorrect answer, as it is more commonly found in patients with cystic fibrosis than bronchiectasis. Staphylococcus aureus is also less commonly isolated in bronchiectasis, and is more commonly associated with other infective conditions such as infective endocarditis and skin infections, as well as being a secondary bacterial cause of pneumonia following influenzae.

      Managing Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      Spacing:

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.

      The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.

      The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of leg pains. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of leg pains. He has been suffering from diabetic neuropathy in both legs for the last 6 years and has tried various medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, and gabapentin. He inquires if there are any additional measures that can be taken to alleviate his pain in the long run. What would be the most suitable answer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him to the pain management clinic

      Explanation:

      In cases of resistant diabetic neuropathy, pain management clinics may be considered for the management of pain. If a patient has already tried common medications for neuropathic pain and has almost reached the limit of care, referral to a pain management clinic is the most appropriate step. NICE recommends referral for patients with severe or worsening pain, or those whose pain impairs their daily life. Cannabis sativa extract and morphine are not typically used for neuropathic pain unless recommended by a specialist. Tramadol may be used for breakthrough pain in the acute setting, but is not suitable for long-term management of neuropathic pain. Advising a patient to improve their diabetic control will not necessarily improve their current pain, but may limit further neuropathy from occurring.

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You perform a home visit for an 80-year-old man diagnosed with terminal bronchial...

    Incorrect

    • You perform a home visit for an 80-year-old man diagnosed with terminal bronchial carcinoma. The patient has palliative care support in place, including anticipatory medications should he develop end-of-life symptoms. He is lucid and eating well, although unfortunately has developed shortness of breath and worsening pains from his metastases. The patient is a smoker and has a background of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.

      Which medication would be the most suitable to relieve his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (3/6) 50%
Passmed