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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of painful periods and deep pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of painful periods and deep pain during intercourse. She has previously been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced lower abdominal pain. She is concerned about the impact of the pain on her desire to start a family. What is the recommended course of management?

      Your Answer: Arrange pelvic ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      If a woman experiences both deep dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, it is probable that she has endometriosis. However, if she is trying to conceive, she cannot use initial treatment options like the combined pill. To confirm the diagnosis, a laparoscopy is the preferred method. A pelvic ultrasound is not the most effective way to diagnose endometriosis and may not show any abnormalities in cases of mild to moderate disease.

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      80.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman patient of yours has epilepsy. Her epilepsy is under reasonable...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman patient of yours has epilepsy. Her epilepsy is under reasonable control but she still has occasional seizures - mainly during the night but occasionally during the day. You notice that she has driven herself to your surgery for an appointment.

      What should be your first step?

      Your Answer: Contact the DVLA immediately

      Correct Answer: Cancel the appointment and tell her to go home

      Explanation:

      Explaining Driving Rules for Epilepsy

      The first step in addressing a loved one’s epilepsy and driving is to explain the rules regarding driving and epilepsy. It is important to ensure that she is aware of the regulations and the potential risks involved. If she decides to continue driving despite being informed of the rules, it is necessary to take further action.

      One option is to inform the DVLA of the situation. This will help to ensure that the appropriate measures are taken to protect both the driver and other road users. Additionally, it may be necessary to warn the individual that the police may need to be notified for her own safety and the safety of others. By taking these steps, you can help to ensure that your loved one is safe and that the rules regarding driving and epilepsy are being followed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose weight. She has been attending supervised weight loss sessions and gym classes, but has not been successful in her efforts. She was prescribed orlistat 120 mg, to be taken after each meal, 10 weeks ago when she weighed 100 kg (BMI 37 kg/m2). After 10 weeks of taking orlistat, she now weighs 97.5 kg. What would be the most appropriate management in this situation?

      Your Answer: Continue orlistat and review in 12 weeks

      Correct Answer: Discontinue orlistat

      Explanation:

      Options for Managing Inadequate Weight Loss with Orlistat

      Orlistat is a medication used to aid weight loss by reducing the absorption of dietary fat. However, if a patient fails to lose at least 5% of their body weight after 12 weeks of treatment, orlistat should be discontinued. Here are some options for managing inadequate weight loss with orlistat:

      1. Discontinue orlistat: If a patient has not lost at least 5% of their starting weight, orlistat should be discontinued. A lower weight loss target may be considered for patients with type II diabetes.

      2. Increase activity levels: Increasing physical activity can help with weight loss. However, it is important to address any underlying issues that may be hindering weight loss.

      3. Refer for bariatric surgery: Bariatric surgery may be an option for patients with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or 35–40 kg/m2 with significant comorbidity that could be improved with weight loss. Non-surgical methods of weight loss should be attempted prior to referral.

      4. Increase the dose to 180 mg with meals: The maximum dose of orlistat is 120 mg up to three times a day. A 60 mg preparation is available over the counter. However, increasing the dose beyond the recommended maximum is not advised.

      It is important to regularly review progress and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old woman with asthma and a history of thyroid disease comes to...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman with asthma and a history of thyroid disease comes to the clinic for a check-up after a left Colles' fracture. You learn that she had a right Colles' fracture three years ago due to a fall on ice, but she declined investigation for osteoporosis. As you review her medical history, which risk factor would you consider the most significant?

      Your Answer: Treatment with 100 mcg BD beclomethasone for asthma

      Correct Answer: Onset of periods aged 10

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteoporosis Risk Factors and Treatment Options

      Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and increased risk of fractures. Several risk factors have been associated with this condition, including low BMI, increasing age, periods of immobility, high dose inhaled or oral corticosteroid therapy, untreated thyrotoxicosis, early menopause, and positive family history. While exposure to thyrotoxicosis and inhaled steroid dose can contribute to osteoporosis, family history is considered the most important risk factor.

      Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment option for osteoporosis, with anabolics such as PTH and other classes reserved for patients who cannot take bisphosphonates. It is important to understand the risk factors associated with osteoporosis and to seek appropriate treatment to prevent fractures and maintain bone health. By addressing these risk factors and utilizing effective treatment options, individuals can reduce their risk of developing osteoporosis and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 7-month-old girl presents with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has vomited twice and...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old girl presents with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has vomited twice and had about four diarrhoea stools in the previous 24 h. There is no obvious sign of dehydration. She was born at 37 weeks’ gestation with a low birthweight but has gained weight adequately since then.
      What is the most appropriate next management choice?

      Your Answer: Oral rehydration salt solution should be given

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastroenteritis in Children: Importance of Oral Rehydration Salt Solution

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, which can lead to dehydration if not managed properly. While most children do not show signs of dehydration, those at increased risk should be given oral rehydration salt solution as supplemental fluid. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children at increased risk include infants younger than one year, those who have passed more than five loose stools or vomited more than twice in the previous 24 hours, and those with signs of malnutrition.

      It is important to note that feeding with formula or breast milk should continue if the child can tolerate it. Solid food should not be given, and fruit juices or carbonated drinks should be avoided due to their high osmolarity. While extra fluid intake should generally be encouraged, it may not be enough for children with multiple risk factors for dehydration. Therefore, oral rehydration salt solution should be given as recommended by healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 48-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-week history of intermittent rectal bleeding. She says she doesn't usually look but has noticed blood within her stools on several occasions over the past few weeks. She is a non-smoker and is normally fit and well, with no significant family history or past medical history. A diagnosis of colonic carcinoma is suspected.
      Which of the following presenting symptoms would most support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alternating diarrhoea and constipation

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Possible Underlying Pathologies: A Case Study

      Abdominal pain, abdominal bloating, alternating diarrhea and constipation, macrocytic anemia, and mucous per rectum are all symptoms that can indicate different underlying pathologies. In the case of a patient under 50 years old presenting with rectal bleeding, abdominal pain may suggest a more serious underlying pathology, such as colorectal cancer. According to NICE guidance, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered in such cases. Abdominal bloating, on the other hand, is more likely to be a symptom of irritable bowel disease. Alternating diarrhea and constipation, as well as mucous per rectum, are indicators of functional bowel disorders, such as irritable bowel syndrome. Finally, macrocytic anemia, while not associated with colorectal cancer, may warrant further investigation if found. Understanding the different symptoms and their possible underlying pathologies is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      80.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old man wakes up on a Monday morning unable to extend his...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man wakes up on a Monday morning unable to extend his wrist. He had consumed a large amount of alcohol the night before. What could be the probable reason for his weakness?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The cause of this man’s condition, known as ‘Saturday night palsy’, is the compression of the radial nerve against the humeral shaft. It is likely that this was caused by sleeping on a hard chair with his arm hanging over the back.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old woman complains of persistent fatigue.

    She has no other symptoms and physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman complains of persistent fatigue.

      She has no other symptoms and physical examination is normal. She works as a teacher.

      You send blood samples for tests. Her full blood count, urea, electrolytes, and thyroid function tests are normal but her liver functions tests are abnormal. Because of this you send some blood to the laboratory to test for hepatitis. You explain first to your patient what the tests are for.

      The results are:

      Anti-HAV IgG Negative

      HBsAg Negative

      Anti-HBs Positive

      Anti-HBc Negative

      HBeAg Negative

      Anti-HBe Negative

      Anti-HCV Positive

      What is the patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Current hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B infection

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C Infection and Vaccination Recommendations

      Abnormal liver function tests and anti-hepatitis C virus antibodies suggest that a patient has hepatitis C infection. If a patient has been vaccinated against hepatitis B, it may indicate that they work in a healthcare setting. The risk of seroconversion to hepatitis C after a needlestick injury from a patient positive for hepatitis C virus is low, but still present. Patients may not experience symptoms during seroconversion, and many with hepatitis C have normal liver function tests.

      It is important to vaccinate patients against hepatitis B if they have not already been vaccinated, as co-existent hepatitis B infection can worsen liver injury. Patients with hepatitis C who do not have detectable immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis A virus (HAV) antibodies are at risk of acquiring hepatitis A infection, which can be severe and associated with increased mortality. Therefore, hepatitis A vaccination is recommended.

      In summary, patients with abnormal liver function tests and anti-hepatitis C virus antibodies should be checked for hepatitis C infection, even if their liver function tests are normal. Healthcare workers may have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. Vaccination against hepatitis B and A is recommended for patients with hepatitis C infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      107.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.

      The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.

      The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      76.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A three-year-old boy is brought to you by his mother due to concerns...

    Correct

    • A three-year-old boy is brought to you by his mother due to concerns about his walking pattern. During examination, you observe an in-toeing gait. Further examination of his limbs reveals bilateral femoral anteversion as the only abnormality. The child is otherwise developing normally.

      What would be the appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      It is normal for toddlers and young children to walk with their feet facing inwards, a condition known as in-toeing. This should resolve on its own by the age of 8-10 years, and parents should not be overly concerned. In-toeing is often caused by femoral anteversion, which typically corrects itself as the child grows. Orthotics and physiotherapy are not necessary for this condition, except in cases where it is associated with metatarsus adductus. However, if in-toeing persists beyond the age of 8 with symptoms such as frequent tripping or pain, referral to an orthopaedic specialist may be necessary. It is not necessary to refer children with in-toeing to paediatrics, as it is considered a normal variation.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?

      Your Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      153
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min and regular and her blood pressure is 130/80. A full blood count, liver function tests and urea and electrolytes are normal. Her serum albumin is 23 g/l (35 - 50 g/l).
      Select the single most appropriate NEXT investigation that should be performed.

      Your Answer: 24 hour urine collection

      Correct Answer: Dipstick

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Nephrotic Syndrome: The Importance of Proteinuria and Renal Biopsy

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (>3g/24 hours), hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/l), and oedema. To quantify proteinuria, a urine ACR or PCR or 24-hour urine collection is required. However, heavy proteinuria on urine dipstick is sufficient to confirm the need for a renal biopsy. Before a renal biopsy, a renal ultrasound is necessary to ensure the presence of two kidneys and confirm kidney size and position. Autoantibodies aid in diagnosis, but the initial confirmatory investigation is the dipstick. In children and young adults, minimal change glomerulonephritis is the most likely renal biopsy finding, which may be steroid responsive and has a good prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      713.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent 3.2 kg (7 lb) weight loss. His urine contains a small amount of ketones.
      Which of the following features would suggest this patient is most likely to have type II rather than type I diabetes?

      Your Answer: High circulating insulin level

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Diabetes Mellitus: Clarifying the Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. However, there are still misconceptions about the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of this disease. In particular, there are several incorrect statements that need to be clarified.

      Firstly, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance and high insulin levels, not low insulin levels as in type I diabetes. Insulin resistance is a precursor to type II diabetes and is linked to a higher risk of developing heart disease. The causes of insulin resistance are both genetic and lifestyle-related.

      Secondly, HLA DR-3 is not associated with type I diabetes mellitus. Instead, this disease is linked to HLA DR-3 or DR-4.

      Thirdly, patients with type II diabetes typically have a high BMI (>25 kg/m2), not a BMI of 23 kg/m2.

      Fourthly, a plasma bicarbonate level of 8 mmol/l (normal range 24–30 mmol/l) is not commonly seen in patients with type II diabetes. While these patients may have + or ++ ketones in their urine, severe acidosis is more common in type I diabetes, with diabetic ketoacidosis being a potentially fatal complication.

      Finally, positive islet-cell antibodies are not associated with type II diabetes. Instead, type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder characterised by the presence of autoantibodies to the islet cell, insulin or glutamic acid dehydrogenase.

      In conclusion, it is important to clarify the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of diabetes mellitus to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      147.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being evaluated by a...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being evaluated by a surgeon. What are the two most effective questions to ask in order to screen for depression?

      Your Answer: 'feeling down, depressed or hopeless' + 'having little interest or pleasure in doing things'

      Explanation:

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant complains of a foul-smelling vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant complains of a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Apart from this, she has been in good health. Despite washing twice a day, the discharge has persisted and is causing her considerable embarrassment. Her partner is asymptomatic. What course of treatment would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis can still use oral metronidazole as it has been found to be safe during pregnancy. Bacterial vaginosis can increase the risk of premature birth and miscarriage. There is no evidence of any harmful effects on the fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy. The guidelines suggest treating symptomatic patients at any stage of pregnancy. While both metronidazole and oral clindamycin can enter breast milk, breastfeeding women are advised to use clindamycin intravaginal gel.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors....

    Correct

    • A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors. Which of the following descriptions of palpable lymph nodes is most suggestive of the cause being a simple adolescent viral infection?

      Your Answer: Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lymphadenopathy in Children: Characteristics to Look Out For

      Lymphadenopathy is a common condition in children, often caused by viral infections. However, it is important to be aware of certain characteristics that may indicate more serious underlying pathology.

      Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes are typical of hyperplastic lymph nodes in response to viral infections. Generalised lymphadenopathy, on the other hand, should raise concern for significant pathology such as haematological malignancies or HIV.

      While lymph nodes up to 1.5 cm in the inguinal region and 2 cm in the cervical region are often normal in children, lymphadenopathy larger than this increases the risk of malignancy.

      Localised unilateral lymphadenopathy is usually caused by local infections and is associated with painful, tender lymph nodes. In contrast, lymphadenopathy associated with malignancy is typically firm or rubbery, discrete, non-tender, and fixed to the skin or underlying structures.

      By understanding these characteristics, healthcare professionals can better identify and manage lymphadenopathy in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A researcher is designing a study to investigate the impact of diet on...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is designing a study to investigate the impact of diet on the development of coronary artery disease in elderly individuals. They are aware that, depending on the type of study they choose, recall bias may affect the results. In which of the following types of study is this bias most likely to affect their results?

      Your Answer: Randomised controlled trials

      Correct Answer: Case-control studies

      Explanation:

      Types of Studies and the Risk of Recall Bias

      Recall bias is a common issue in research studies that rely on self-reported information from participants. Here, we will discuss different types of studies and their risk of recall bias.

      Case-Control Studies: In this type of study, groups of people with an illness are compared to control subjects to identify a causal factor. However, as participants are asked to self-report on their experiences, biases may creep in, leading to inaccurate reporting.

      Cohort Studies: Unlike case-control studies, cohort studies follow subjects through time, making them less susceptible to recall bias.

      Ecological Studies: These studies focus on populations rather than individuals, reducing the risk of recall bias as they do not rely on self-reported information.

      Randomized Controlled Trials: In this type of study, participants are randomly assigned to receive either the intervention being tested or an alternative treatment. As there is no reliance on retrospective self-reporting, the risk of recall bias is lower.

      Systematic Reviews: Systematic reviews summarize all available primary research on a topic. However, they may be confounded by the author’s own bias in selecting and interpreting evidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her father. For the...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her father. For the past 4 days she has been experiencing a sticky discharge from both eyes upon waking up. Upon examination, there is some crusting around the eyelid margins and the sclera are slightly pink. The father inquires if his daughter should stay home from preschool. What is the best answer to give?

      Response:

      Your Answer: He can return to nursery if he has been using antibiotic eye drops for the past 48 hours

      Correct Answer: He doesn't need to be kept off nursery

      Explanation:

      Although nurseries and schools may provide contradictory advice, the guidelines from the Health Protection Agency are unambiguous in stating that children do not require exclusion. Providing parents with a copy of these guidelines to present to their childcare provider can be beneficial in certain situations.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma?

      Your Answer: Avoid high heels + metatarsal pads

      Explanation:

      Understanding Morton’s Neuroma

      Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.

      To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.

      Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An older man had been a patient of yours for many years. You...

    Incorrect

    • An older man had been a patient of yours for many years. You saw him regularly during his last illness and he passed away from cancer a few weeks ago. He frequently commented on your tie on several occasions and you had joked with him about it.

      This afternoon, you received a letter from a firm of solicitors, telling you that the man left you £10,000 in his will to buy a new tie. You know that he was a widower who was quite well off, and that he had a son Michael, who is also a patient at your practice.

      What is the appropriate course of action to take regarding this generous bequest?

      Your Answer: Decline the offer, as doctors are not allowed to accept large presents from patients

      Correct Answer: Speak to Judith when she next comes into the clinic, inform your partners and primary care trust, and if no one objects, accept the bequest

      Explanation:

      Accepting Gifts from Patients: Guidelines for Doctors

      Patients may choose to give gifts to their doctors as a gesture of appreciation. While there is no legal or professional prohibition against accepting such gifts, doctors must be mindful of the guidelines set forth by the General Medical Council (GMC) in the UK. According to the GMC, doctors must not encourage patients to give gifts that would directly or indirectly benefit them, nor should they accept any inducements that could affect their treatment or referral decisions. Additionally, doctors must not offer such inducements to their colleagues.

      In the case of an unsolicited gift from a patient, such as an old lady’s bequest, it is generally acceptable to accept it as long as the doctor did not ask for it and it will not affect their relationship with the patient. However, it is important for doctors to be transparent and above board with anyone who may raise objections. It is also worth noting that these guidelines apply specifically to doctors practicing in the UK, and doctors working outside of the UK should consult their own regulatory guidance. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they maintain the trust and confidence of their patients and colleagues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      124.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her husband to the Middle East and South America for his job. She wants to know which vaccinations are safe to receive during pregnancy.

      Which of the following vaccinations can be given without significant risk to the woman and her developing fetus?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations for Travelers

      Hepatitis A and B vaccinations are made from viral antigens and do not contain any living hepatitis virus component. For individuals traveling to countries with a high risk of hepatitis A, vaccination may be recommended. However, it is important to note that the other vaccines listed, such as polio, are live vaccinations. The polio vaccine can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection, depending on the preparation used. It is crucial for travelers to consult with a healthcare professional to determine which vaccinations are necessary for their specific travel plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he consumes over 60 units of alcohol per week. The GP conducts an assessment to ascertain if the patient has alcohol dependence syndrome.
      If the diagnosis is accurate, what is the most probable indication?
      Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Withdrawal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: Symptoms and Behaviors

      Alcohol dependence syndrome is a serious condition that can have a significant impact on an individual’s life. Withdrawal symptoms are a common occurrence when someone tries to stop drinking, including feeling sick, trembling, sweating, and craving for alcohol. In some cases, convulsions and delirium tremens may occur. It is not uncommon for an individual to find it difficult to stop drinking due to these symptoms.

      Alcohol dependence syndrome can also have a negative impact on an individual’s family and career. The individual may find it difficult to function in both roles due to exhaustion and decreased sleep quality. Additionally, tolerance to alcohol tends to increase rather than decrease, requiring larger quantities to achieve the same effect.

      Reinstatement after a period of abstinence, commonly referred to as falling off the wagon, is a significant and common problem in addictive behavior. However, preferential drinking of spirits over beer is not necessarily an indication of alcohol dependence syndrome. It is important to understand the symptoms and behaviors associated with alcohol dependence syndrome to seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats and subside abruptly after he finishes eating. They are not accompanied by chest pain, but, on occasion, he also feels lightheaded. He has no reflux symptoms or dyspepsia. He is otherwise well and on presentation his blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, his pulse is in sinus rhythm, and examination of his heart and abdomen are normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
      What is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: 24 hour portable electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      The Most Appropriate Investigation for Palpitations and Dizziness: A Cardiac Investigation

      When a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac cause is often suspected. While the association with food may be a red herring, the combination of symptoms suggests a need for further investigation. An ECG or examination of the pulse may not reveal an underlying cause unless the patient is experiencing symptoms at that exact moment. Therefore, a 24 hour portable ECG is often recommended to assess the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

      A chest X-ray is unlikely to be helpful in the absence of chest pain or respiratory symptoms. Similarly, an endoscopy may be indicated for dyspeptic symptoms, but the history of palpitations and dizziness suggests a cardiac cause. H. pylori testing is only relevant for dyspeptic symptoms, and thyroid function tests are important for anyone experiencing palpitations, as hyperthyroidism can be a cause.

      In summary, when a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac investigation is the most appropriate first step. A 24 hour portable ECG can provide valuable information about the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You see a 30-year-old man who reports an acute onset of reduced hearing...

    Correct

    • You see a 30-year-old man who reports an acute onset of reduced hearing in his left ear. This started suddenly yesterday. He is otherwise well with no ear pain, fevers or systemic upset. Examination of ears and cranial nerves were unremarkable.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer to on-call ENT team

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Sudden Hearing Loss in Adults

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in June 2018 to provide recommendations on managing sudden or rapid onset hearing loss in adults. This type of hearing loss is not explained by external or middle ear causes.

      According to the guidelines, an immediate referral is recommended if the hearing loss developed suddenly within the past 30 days. If the hearing loss developed suddenly but it has been over 30 days or if it worsened rapidly, a two-week wait referral is advised. The guidelines also provide further recommendations if there are additional symptoms or signs such as facial droop.

      It is important to note that NICE defines sudden hearing loss as within 3 days and rapid worsening as 4-90 days. These guidelines aim to improve the management and treatment of sudden hearing loss in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old male undergoes an endoscopy after being referred by his GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male undergoes an endoscopy after being referred by his GP with recurrent indigestion.

      The endoscopy reveals a small duodenal ulcer and Helicobacter pylori is demonstrated to be present. He has not been given eradication treatment before and is allergic to penicillin.

      You consider a seven day, twice daily course of eradication therapy.

      How would you treat this patient?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole 20 mg, Metronidazole and Clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Esomeprazole 10 mg, Metronidazole, Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter Infection and Treatment

      Helicobacter infection is common in patients with duodenal and peptic ulceration. The recommended therapy includes acid suppression and eradication of Helicobacter. Triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole, along with two antibiotics (amoxicillin/clarithromycin plus metronidazole), has been found to be highly effective.

      It is important to note that patients who are allergic to penicillin require a different treatment regimen. The lowest cost treatment option should be chosen, taking into account previous exposure to clarithromycin or metronidazole. In cases where the patient is allergic to penicillin and has had previous exposure to clarithromycin, bismuth and tetracycline should be added to the treatment regimen.

      The recommended PPI doses for Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy are esomeprazole 20 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg, omeprazole 20-40 mg, pantoprazole 40 mg, and rabeprazole 20 mg. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective treatment of Helicobacter infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is a form of qualitative research that depicts the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a form of qualitative research that depicts the customs of a community?

      Your Answer: Ethnography

      Explanation:

      Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research

      Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.

      Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath over the past few months. He reports no current medication use but mentions experiencing back pain in recent weeks. Upon examination, initial tests show a serum creatinine level of 654 µmol/l (normal range: 60–120 µmol/l). What diagnostic test would be most beneficial in determining a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Bence-Jones proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Laboratory Findings in Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be caused by various underlying conditions, and laboratory findings can help identify the specific cause. Bence-Jones proteinuria, the excretion of immunoglobulin light chains, is indicative of multiple myeloma. Other symptoms such as fatigue, breathlessness, and back pain can further support this diagnosis. Anaemia is a common occurrence in renal failure due to decreased erythropoietin production and marrow suppression. Hyperuricaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with any particular underlying cause. Hypocalcaemia is also common in renal failure, but it is typically secondary to decreased renal synthesis of calcitriol and doesn’t indicate a specific cause. Metabolic acidosis occurs in renal failure due to decreased renal acid excretion, but it alone doesn’t help differentiate between potential causes. Understanding these laboratory findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to a monoamine oxidase...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). You stop the MAOI and wish to prescribe a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).

      How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?

      Your Answer: 3 days

      Explanation:

      Starting SSRI after MAOI

      When switching from a MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. MAOIs can inhibit the enzymes responsible for breaking down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5-hydroxytryptamine (5HT). This can lead to a buildup of these neurotransmitters in the body, which can cause severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. It may take up to two weeks for the enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping a MAOI, so it is important to wait until this wash-out period is over before starting an SSRI. This information is consistent with the guidelines provided by the British National Formulary (BNF) and is commonly tested on the Applied Knowledge Test (AKT) for medical professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 13-year-old boy has been experiencing pain in his left hip and knee,...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy has been experiencing pain in his left hip and knee, causing him to stop playing rugby for the past month. There was no known injury, but his symptoms have worsened in the last 24 hours. Despite having an upper respiratory tract infection the week before, he is currently feeling well with no fever. He took one of his mother's co-codamol 30/500 an hour ago, which provided some relief. However, he is unable to walk without assistance.

      During the examination, his knee appears normal, but his hip tends to externally rotate when flexed. He is in the 95th percentile for weight, but all other observations are normal. He is currently taking 50 mcg of levothyroxine daily for hypothyroidism.

      What would be the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange emergency admission under orthopaedics

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Epiphysis: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Slipped upper epiphyses are more common in overweight boys aged 10-15 and are associated with obesity and hypothyroidism. Patients often present with pain, which may be referred to the knee, and it is important to examine the hips thoroughly. On examination, abduction and internal rotation may both be reduced, and the affected leg may be shortened. The key findings supporting the diagnosis are the presence of risk factors and gait abnormalities.

      Slipped epiphyses can be classified as acute, chronic, or acute on chronic, and as unstable or stable. In the case of unstable slipped epiphysis, urgent surgical repair is necessary to prevent avascular necrosis. Stable slipped epiphysis is usually treated with in situ screw fixation, and prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip may also be considered.

      In the primary care setting, emergency admission under orthopaedics is necessary for patients with acute and unstable slipped epiphysis. For chronic and stable cases, x-ray is the first line investigation, and U&Es, serum TFTs, and serum growth hormone may also be considered.

      In summary, early diagnosis and appropriate treatment are crucial in managing slipped upper epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the outpatient clinic due to declining...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the outpatient clinic due to declining renal function. After diagnosis, it is determined that she has AD polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). Her family history reveals that her mother died of a stroke at the age of 46, and her father is still alive. She is worried about the likelihood of passing on the disorder to her daughter. What is the chance that her daughter will inherit ADPKD?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic condition that usually manifests between the ages of 30-50. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that if one parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their child.

      ADPKD is characterized by the development of cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to deteriorating renal function and hypertension. In addition to renal cysts, patients may also have hepatic and berry aneurysms. A maternal history of these conditions may be highly relevant in determining the risk of developing ADPKD.

      It is important for individuals with a family history of ADPKD to undergo genetic testing and regular monitoring to detect and manage any potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      35.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/4) 25%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Children And Young People (3/4) 75%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/2) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (3/3) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed