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  • Question 1 - Which statement accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation procedure? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation procedure?

      Your Answer: 35% of children tested would be expected to show anxious-resistant attachment

      Correct Answer: It is done on children aged 12 to 18 months

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      68
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is a true statement about the CAGE questionnaire? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the CAGE questionnaire?

      Your Answer: It is a 4-item scale

      Explanation:

      Although CAGE is commonly used for screening, it should not be used as a diagnostic tool. Additionally, it is not recommended to use CAGE as an outcome measure. AUDIT has been found to be more effective than CAGE and is the preferred screening tool according to the NICE Guidelines (CG115).

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      92.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What declaration outlines the specific factors necessary for the optimal development and wellbeing...

    Incorrect

    • What declaration outlines the specific factors necessary for the optimal development and wellbeing of children?

      Your Answer: Declaration of Helsinki

      Correct Answer: Declaration of Ottawa

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated? ...

    Correct

    • How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated?

      Your Answer: Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-maleficence and Justice

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What substance can be safely consumed along with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)? ...

    Correct

    • What substance can be safely consumed along with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Taking paracetamol with MAOIs is safe, but other medications and certain foods and drinks should be avoided to prevent the cheese reaction. The list of high-tyramine foods is provided in the drug’s leaflet. MAOIs are not commonly prescribed in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which statement accurately describes neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?

      Your Answer: Serum creatine kinase is raised

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of QTc prolongation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Correct Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Some additional risk factors for QTc prolongation include being female and having a slow heart rate (bradycardia).

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      84.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What percentage of children would be classified as 'slow to warm up' based...

    Correct

    • What percentage of children would be classified as 'slow to warm up' based on Thomas and Chess's research?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is the most probable outcome of muscarinic receptor antagonism?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most probable outcome of muscarinic receptor antagonism?

      Your Answer: Memory impairment

      Explanation:

      The sole anticholinergic side effect is memory impairment, while the remaining choices are instances of cholinergic side effects.

      Receptors and Side-Effects

      Histamine H1 Blockade:
      – Weight gain
      – Sedation

      Alpha 1 Blockade:
      – Orthostatic hypotension
      – Sedation
      – Sexual dysfunction
      – Priapism

      Muscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
      – Agitation
      – Delirium
      – Memory impairment
      – Confusion
      – Seizures

      Muscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
      – Dry mouth
      – Ataxia
      – Blurred vision
      – Narrow angle glaucoma
      – Constipation
      – Urinary retention
      – Tachycardia

      Each receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      97.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a true statement about extrapyramidal side-effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about extrapyramidal side-effects?

      Your Answer: They generally develop months to years after starting treatment

      Correct Answer: They can be caused by the withdrawal of antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which study utilized the Heinz dilemma to explore the development of children? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which study utilized the Heinz dilemma to explore the development of children?

      Your Answer: Mahler

      Correct Answer: Kohlberg

      Explanation:

      The Heinz dilemma was a scenario used by Kohlberg to explore moral development. It goes as follows: A woman is dying from a rare cancer, and a druggist in the same town has discovered a drug that could save her. However, the druggist is charging ten times the cost of production for the drug. The women’s husband, Heinz, cannot afford the price and asks the druggist to sell it cheaper of let him pay later, but the druggist refuses. In desperation, Heinz breaks into the store to steal the drug for his wife.

      The question is whether Heinz should have broken into the store to steal the drug. This dilemma raises ethical questions about the value of human life versus the right to property and profit. Some argue that Heinz was justified in stealing the drug because he was trying to save his wife’s life, and the druggist’s greed was preventing him from doing so. Others argue that stealing is always wrong, regardless of the circumstances, and that Heinz should have found another way to obtain the drug.

      Kohlberg used this dilemma to study moral reasoning and development. He believed that people’s responses to moral dilemmas reveal their level of moral reasoning, which progresses through stages of increasing complexity and sophistication. According to Kohlberg, Heinz’s decision to steal the drug would be considered morally justifiable at the higher stages of moral reasoning, where individuals prioritize universal ethical principles over personal gain of social norms.

      Overall, the Heinz dilemma highlights the complex nature of moral decision-making and the importance of considering multiple perspectives and ethical principles.

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the defence mechanism that the man is using when he goes...

    Correct

    • What is the defence mechanism that the man is using when he goes for a 10 mile run after being shouted at by his boss at work and still feeling angry about it when he gets home?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following emotions was not included in Ekman's list of six...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following emotions was not included in Ekman's list of six basic emotions?

      Your Answer: Surprise

      Correct Answer: Relief

      Explanation:

      Primary Emotions

      Paul Ekman, a renowned psychologist, identified six basic emotions that he believed were universally present in all humans. These primary emotions are happiness, fear, disgust, sadness, anger, and surprise. Ekman suggested that these emotions were biologically innate and could be recognized across different cultures and languages. Although he later added more emotions to this list, the original six remain the most commonly referenced. Understanding these primary emotions can help individuals better recognize and manage their own emotions, as well as empathize with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      77.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Who first introduced the idea of the 'schizophrenogenic parent'? ...

    Correct

    • Who first introduced the idea of the 'schizophrenogenic parent'?

      Your Answer: Fromm-Reichmann

      Explanation:

      The term ‘schizophrenogenic mother’ was proposed by Fromm-Reichmann, a contemporary of Freud, who believed that defective parenting caused the disorder. However, this concept has since been proven to be unfounded. Lidz later examined the impact of parents’ socialization on a child’s psychological health, further exploring this concept. Bleuler is credited with coining the term ‘schizophrenia’, while Kraepelin had previously described ‘dementia praecox’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What stage of sleep do most adults spend the majority of their time...

    Incorrect

    • What stage of sleep do most adults spend the majority of their time in during the night?

      Your Answer: Stage 3

      Correct Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      – Dement and Kleitman (1957) classified sleep into five stages.
      – Normal adults spend the majority of their sleep in Stage 2 (55%).
      – Non-REM sleep is divided into four stages: Stage 1 (5%), Stage 2 (55%), Stage 3 (5%), and Stage 4 (10%).
      – REM sleep is Stage 5 and normal adults spend 25% of their sleep in this stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status? ...

    Correct

    • What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Status and Psychiatric Disorders

      Research has shown that certain psychiatric disorders are more prevalent in lower social classes. These disorders include schizophrenia, personality disorder, alcohol dependence, and major depression. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa has been found to be more common in higher social classes. These findings suggest a relationship between social status and mental health, with individuals from lower social classes being at a higher risk for certain psychiatric disorders. This information can be useful in developing targeted interventions and support for individuals from lower social classes who may be struggling with mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      67.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - As a teenager, Sarah struggled with her relationship with her mother who was...

    Incorrect

    • As a teenager, Sarah struggled with her relationship with her mother who was emotionally and verbally abusive. Now, as a young adult, she finds herself constantly quitting relationships within a few weeks of starting, claiming that her partner is controlling and manipulative. What underlying psychodynamic mechanism could be contributing to this pattern of behavior?

      Your Answer: Projective identification

      Correct Answer: Transference

      Explanation:

      Transference: Attributing Characteristics to People in Similar Roles

      Transference is a psychological phenomenon where individuals attribute characteristics of important figures from their early life to people who resemble them of have roles echoing theirs. For instance, doctors, teachers, and bosses may be imbued with the characteristics of parents. This can lead to individuals projecting their feelings, attitudes, and expectations onto others, which can impact their relationships and interactions. Understanding transference can help individuals recognize and manage their emotions and reactions towards others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
      54.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the term used to describe a reduction in a conditioned response...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a reduction in a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus with which it has been previously paired in classical conditioning?

      Your Answer: Negative reinforcement

      Correct Answer: Extinction

      Explanation:

      The term ‘extinction’ has different meanings in classical and operant conditioning. In classical conditioning, it refers to a decrease in a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus. In operant conditioning, it refers to the decrease in an operant response when it is no longer reinforced. The options of negative reinforcement, negative punishment, and positive punishment are not relevant to classical conditioning.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor...

    Incorrect

    • What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor who wants to assess a patient for a personality disorder?

      Your Answer: IPDE

      Correct Answer: BPRS

      Explanation:

      The BPRS is a tool used to assess symptoms in individuals with functional mental illness. There are also various screening tools available for personality disorders, which you should have a basic knowledge of for the exam. These include the SAPAS, which is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete. It is scored between 0 and 8 based on yes/no answers to 8 statements, and a score of 3 of more warrants further assessment. The FFMRF is a self-reported tool consisting of 30 items rated 1-5 for each item, based on symptoms rather than diagnosis. The IPDE is a semistructured clinical interview compatible with the ICD and DSM, which includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is considered a voluntary action? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is considered a voluntary action?

      Your Answer: Mannerism

      Explanation:

      Mannerisms are deliberate movements that convey a specific meaning, while tics are involuntary muscle contractions that disrupt normal activities and are often preceded by a strong urge. Hemiballismus refers to uncontrolled flinging movements of one arm and leg, while chorea involves irregular, jerky, and unpredictable movements that can occur anywhere in the body. Athetosis describes writhing movements, particularly in the arms and hands, and is often associated with cerebral palsy resulting from perinatal anoxia of kernicterus. Infants with athetosis may exhibit delayed motor milestones and floppy movements before developing athetoid movements before the age of 5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man who suffered a head injury is unable to retrieve previously...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man who suffered a head injury is unable to retrieve previously learned information from his memory. What specific aspect of memory function is impaired?

      Your Answer: Recall

      Correct Answer: Retrieval

      Explanation:

      Long term memory can be categorized into five functions: Registration, Retention, Retrieval, Recall, and Recognition. Memory issues can arise in any of these areas. Retrieval refers to the ability to retrieve stored information from memory, and its loss indicates an organic cause. Registration involves the ability to add new information to the memory store, which can occur through repeated exposure of a single presentation. Retention refers to the ability to store information that can be retrieved later. Recall is the act of bringing stored information back into consciousness at a specific time. Recognition is the feeling of familiarity that accompanies the retrieval of stored information, and while it is related to memory, it is not strictly a part of the memory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You are on call for a general medical ward and are asked to...

    Incorrect

    • You are on call for a general medical ward and are asked to evaluate a 45-year-old woman who has been experiencing intermittent confusion and aggression for the past three days. She recently recovered from a severe respiratory infection but has been experiencing 20-minute periods of lucidity and confusion, preceded by abdominal discomfort. There is no history of substance abuse of alcohol dependence, and all blood and urine tests have come back negative. A CT scan of her brain is normal, and she has not been taking her prescribed medication during her hospital stay. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute confusional state

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Temporal Lobe Epilepsy

      Temporal lobe epilepsy, also known as complex partial seizures, is characterized by an aura of abdominal symptoms followed by altered consciousness and behavior. This episodic condition can occur rapidly. The presenting symptoms of this patient suggest an acute confusional state, ruling out antibiotic-induced psychosis, which is associated with ongoing antibiotic treatment. Delirium tremens, a severe form of alcohol withdrawal, is also unlikely. Early onset dementia cannot be associated with this presentation due to insufficient information. A differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      234.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - According to Kohlberg, which of the following corresponds to the 3rd stage of...

    Correct

    • According to Kohlberg, which of the following corresponds to the 3rd stage of moral development?

      Your Answer: Interpersonal accord and conformity

      Explanation:

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where new events appear...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where new events appear to be familiar?

      Your Answer: Jamais vu

      Correct Answer: Déjà vu

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Who established Kingsley Hall as a therapeutic community based on the principles of...

    Incorrect

    • Who established Kingsley Hall as a therapeutic community based on the principles of the antipsychiatry movement?

      Your Answer: David Cooper

      Correct Answer: RD Laing

      Explanation:

      RD Laing, a Scottish anti psychiatrist, established Kingsley Hall in response to a letter from Mary Barnes seeking therapy. Barnes, who later wrote a book about her experiences, is the most well-known patient. Laing encouraged her to embrace her madness and regress to infancy, leading to behaviors such as abandoning continence, fixating on her feces, and demanding to be fed milk, even from a male doctor’s breast. She also used her feces to decorate her surroundings and create babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is a known factor that can cause hypospadias when taken during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • What is a known factor that can cause hypospadias when taken during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the relationship between depression and the HPA axis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the relationship between depression and the HPA axis?

      Your Answer: Major depression is associated with increased levels of corticotropin-releasing factor in the CSF

      Explanation:

      HPA Axis Dysfunction in Mood Disorders

      The HPA axis, which includes regulatory neural inputs and a feedback loop involving the hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands, plays a central role in the stress response. Excessive secretion of cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone, can lead to disruptions in cellular functioning and widespread physiologic dysfunction. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is implicated in mood disorders such as depression and bipolar affective disorder.

      In depressed patients, cortisol levels often do not decrease as expected in response to the administration of dexamethasone, a synthetic corticosteroid. This abnormality in the dexamethasone suppression test is thought to be linked to genetic of acquired defects of glucocorticoid receptors. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to increase expression of glucocorticoid receptors, whereas this is not the case for SSRIs.

      Early adverse experiences can produce long standing changes in HPA axis regulation, indicating a possible neurobiological mechanism whereby childhood trauma could be translated into increased vulnerability to mood disorder. In major depression, there is hypersecretion of cortisol, corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), and ACTH, and associated adrenocortical enlargement. HPA abnormalities have also been found in other psychiatric disorders including Alzheimer’s and PTSD.

      In bipolar disorder, dysregulation of ACTH and cortisol response after CRH stimulation have been reported. Abnormal DST results are found more often during depressive episodes in the course of bipolar disorder than in unipolar disorder. Reduced pituitary volume secondary to LHPA stimulation, resulting in pituitary hypoactivity, has been observed in bipolar patients.

      Overall, HPA axis dysfunction is implicated in mood disorders, and understanding the underlying mechanisms may lead to new opportunities for treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What type of power does a consultant hold over a trainee psychiatrist based...

    Incorrect

    • What type of power does a consultant hold over a trainee psychiatrist based solely on their higher position within the organization?

      Your Answer: Expert power

      Correct Answer: Legitimate power

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to the authority that comes with holding a higher position in a hierarchy. In the medical field, consultants have legitimate power over core trainees. However, a trainee may have more referent power due to their popularity, which can shift the balance of power in their favor. It is commonly assumed that consultants hold expert power over trainees, but this is not always the case. As one progresses to become a senior trainee, they may develop a condition known as consultantitis, which can challenge the notion of expert power.

      Power Theory

      French and Raven (1959) developed the 5 base theory of power, which identifies five types of power. These include legitimate power, which is held by an individual in an organization, referent power, which is held by a person with charisma who people gravitate towards, expert power, which is held by a person with specialist skills of knowledge, reward power, which is held by a person in a position to provide rewards, and coercive power, which is held by a person who has the ability to apply negative influences such as demotion. Other terms to be aware of include outcome power, which is the power of a person to bring about outcomes, social power, which is the power of a person to influence others so that they will bring about outcomes, and counterpower, which is the power of the oppressed to counterbalance the elite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What factor is most likely to worsen a patient's psoriasis? ...

    Correct

    • What factor is most likely to worsen a patient's psoriasis?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is not included in the evaluation of the Edinburgh...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not included in the evaluation of the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale?

      Your Answer: Thoughts to self-harm

      Correct Answer: Thoughts to harm the baby

      Explanation:

      Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)

      The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a 10-item self-report questionnaire designed to screen for postnatal depression in primary care settings. It should only be used to assess a women’s mood over the past seven days and cannot be used to diagnose depression. The EPDS excludes some symptoms common in the perinatal period, such as tiredness and irritability, as they do not differentiate between depressed and non-depressed postnatal women. Women are asked to select one of four responses that most closely represents how they have felt over the past seven days. Scores for the 10 items are added together, with a score of 0-9 indicating a low likelihood of depression, 10-12 indicating a moderate likelihood, and 13 of more indicating a high likelihood. The statements include feelings of happiness, sadness, anxiety, and thoughts of self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychological Development (1/3) 33%
Classification And Assessment (2/5) 40%
Social Psychology (3/6) 50%
Psychopharmacology (5/7) 71%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/1) 100%
Neurosciences (1/2) 50%
Dynamic Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/2) 50%
Diagnosis (0/1) 0%
History Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Dynamic Psychology (0/1) 0%
Passmed