00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and a calculated QRISK-3 score of 13.8%. He has no significant past medical history and is of Pakistani background. What initial pharmacological management should be offered, in addition to lifestyle advice?

      Your Answer: A statin and a calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is...

    Correct

    • A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is found to have consistent blood pressure readings >170/95 mmHg. She is admitted under Gynaecology.
      Which of the following antihypertensives would you initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Treatment Options for Gestational Hypertension

      Gestational hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. According to NICE guidelines, labetalol is the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension. However, if the patient has asthma, labetalol is contraindicated. In such cases, nifedipine is listed as the second-line treatment, followed by methyldopa if necessary.

      Diltiazem is not usually used in gestational hypertension, and the role of this medication in pregnancy is unclear. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated due to their potential adverse effects on fetal blood pressure and renal function.

      In cases of gestational hypertension, it is crucial to rule out pre-eclampsia. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 160/110, NICE guidelines recommend admission until the blood pressure is below this level.

      Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, are safe and effective in pregnancy, while the role of diltiazem is uncertain. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated. It is essential to choose the appropriate medication based on the patient’s medical history and individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of facial and...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of facial and eye pain. She has been experiencing a severe upper respiratory tract infection for the past two weeks, with purulent nasal discharge and fever. Upon examination, there is noticeable proptosis of the left eye, accompanied by ophthalmoplegia. The palpebra is red and swollen. Her temperature is 39.2 ºC and she appears unwell. She has a medical history of well-controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus. What is the immediate management plan for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Refer for an urgent contrast CT head

      Correct Answer: Admit for intravenous antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with orbital cellulitis should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics due to the potential risk of cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, fever, and eyelid swelling and redness, which are specific to orbital cellulitis and absent in preseptal cellulitis. Oral antibiotics or discharge with oral antibiotics are not appropriate treatment options for orbital cellulitis, as they are reserved for preseptal cellulitis. Referring the patient for an urgent contrast CT head is not the immediate management priority, as empirical IV antibiotics should be initiated promptly to prevent further spread of the infection.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old woman returns to her General Practitioner for the results of a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman returns to her General Practitioner for the results of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test; the result is positive. Which of the following investigations will be most useful in estimating her risk of developing an opportunistic infection (OI)?

      Your Answer: CD4 count

      Explanation:

      The CD4 count is a reliable way to measure the immune system’s response to HIV infection. In HIV-negative individuals, the CD4 count is usually maintained above 600-800 cells/µl. However, without antiretroviral therapy, HIV-positive individuals will experience a gradual decline in CD4 count over time. A CD4 count of less than 350 cells/µl increases the risk of opportunistic infections, while a count of less than 200 cells/µl indicates an 80% risk of developing an OI within three years. Some patients may remain well despite having a low CD4 count, depending on viral load and host immunity factors. Different OIs are more likely at different CD4 counts. The World Health Organization now recommends starting ART in every HIV-positive individual, regardless of CD4 count.

      A CXR is usually normal in HIV-positive individuals without chronic respiratory disorders. Blood cultures may help diagnose an OI, but do not estimate the risk of developing OIs. HIV-positive individuals often have an abnormal FBC, but this does not help with risk assessment for OIs. TST is used to check for immunity to TB and diagnose LTBI. HIV-positive individuals are at higher risk of TB disease, but may have a muted response to TST due to their compromised immunity. TST can be useful in assessing eligibility for isoniazid preventive therapy, but not in assessing disease stage and risk of OIs in general.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and...

    Incorrect

    • An 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. He has a medical history of COPD and is currently being treated for pneumonia with antibiotics. Upon examination, his heart rate is 170/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, blood pressure is 140/92 mmHg, and temperature is 36.3 ºC. An electrocardiogram reveals a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with oscillatory changes in amplitude of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Azithromycin is the macrolide antibiotic that can cause torsades de pointes, which is evident in this patient presenting with dizziness, shortness of breath, palpitations, and polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with oscillatory changes. Macrolides can lead to a long QT interval, which can be fatal if not treated promptly with intravenous magnesium to stabilize the cardiac myocytes. Amoxicillin, doxycycline, and flucloxacillin are other antibiotics used to treat pneumonia but have not been associated with long QT intervals and torsades de pointes. However, they can cause other side effects such as diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, skin reactions, and thrombocytopenia.

      Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      87.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 44 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrazinamide) for a confirmed diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. During a respiratory follow up, the patient reports a decline in vision, particularly a decrease in the vibrancy of colors. What modification would you suggest for the medication?

      Your Answer: Stop isoniazid

      Correct Answer: Stop ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - ACE inhibitors can cause cough as a side effect. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • ACE inhibitors can cause cough as a side effect. Which of the following statements is true about the cause of this cough? Please select one option.

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitors cause vasodilatation, which may result in pulmonary congestion

      Correct Answer: They affect the breakdown of bradykinin within the lungs

      Explanation:

      The Effects of ACE Inhibitors on the Lungs

      ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. While they are generally well-tolerated, they can have some effects on the lungs. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – ACE inhibitors can increase the concentration of bradykinin within the lungs, which can lead to a persistent dry cough in some patients.
      – Unlike beta blockers, ACE inhibitors do not cause bronchospasm. In fact, they may be a good choice for patients with asthma or other respiratory conditions.
      – Dysgeusia, or a metallic taste in the mouth, is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors. This is more common with captopril than with other drugs in this class.
      – ACE inhibitors do not increase bronchial mucus secretion.
      – While ACE inhibitors do cause vasodilation, which can lower blood pressure, they are not associated with pulmonary congestion.

      Overall, ACE inhibitors are generally safe and effective medications for treating hypertension and heart failure. However, patients should be aware of these potential effects on the lungs and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old patient presents for follow-up. He underwent aortic valve replacement with a...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old patient presents for follow-up. He underwent aortic valve replacement with a prosthetic valve five years ago and is currently on warfarin therapy. He has been experiencing fatigue for the past three months and a recent full blood count revealed the following results: Hb 10.3 g/dl, MCV 68 fl, Plt 356 * 109/l, and WBC 5.2 * 109/l. The blood film showed hypochromia and his INR was 3.0. An upper GI endoscopy was performed and was reported as normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Lower gastrointestinal tract investigation should be conducted on any patient in this age group who has an unexplained microcytic anaemia to rule out the possibility of colorectal cancer.

      Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past six months.
      On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index body mass index (BMI) of 23 kg/m2. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Binge eating disorder

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa tend to have normal BMI despite purging behavior. Symptoms include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is a condition where an individual experiences a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social or medical transition, such as hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is characterized by decreased dietary intake with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. Symptoms include early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who wishes to have friends and social outlets but is so shy that they are unable to form relationships out of fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating without purging behavior. Symptoms include distress and weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue, fever and muscle aches. A new murmur was detected in the mitral area.
      Which of the following is the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP)

      Correct Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Infective Endocarditis: Choosing the Most Appropriate Initial Test

      When a patient presents with fever and a new murmur, infective endocarditis is a likely diagnosis until proven otherwise. The most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture, with three samples taken from different sites before starting antibiotics. Positive blood cultures are a major criterion for diagnosing infective endocarditis.

      While other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, they are not as specific as blood cultures. An ECG may show evidence of an aortic root abscess and its possible sequelae, such as AV block. A 24-hour ECG is helpful in diagnosing paroxysmal arrhythmias.

      C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are non-specific markers that may be raised in infective endocarditis, but also in other conditions such as infection, malignancy, and pregnancy.

      In summary, when suspecting infective endocarditis, the most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture. Other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, but are not as specific as blood cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women. What is true about...

    Correct

    • Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women. What is true about breast cancer? Choose one statement from the options provided.

      Your Answer: The cumulative risk of dying of breast cancer between 5 and 14 years after first diagnosis is improved 10-15% by tamoxifen with oestrogen-receptor-positive tumours.

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer is the second most common cancer in women and the leading cause of cancer death among women worldwide. Tamoxifen is a drug that can be used to treat breast cancer that requires estrogen to grow. It works by either blocking estrogen receptors or blocking the production of estrogen. For women with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, continuing tamoxifen for 10 years instead of stopping at 5 years can further reduce the risk of recurrence and mortality. However, tamoxifen does not affect the risk of breast cancer recurrence. The risk of endometrial cancer is slightly increased with tamoxifen treatment. Screening modalities include breast self-examination, clinical breast examination, mammography, ultrasonography, and magnetic resonance imaging. Early detection is crucial in preventing breast cancer, and screening intervals may need to be shortened to prevent more deaths. Physical examination and biopsy are also important diagnostic approaches. Treatment for breast cancer typically involves surgery, radiation therapy, and adjuvant hormone or chemotherapy when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following statements regarding the NHS Breast Cancer Screening Programme...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the NHS Breast Cancer Screening Programme is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is targeted at women aged 40-70 years

      Correct Answer: Women are screened every 3 years

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.

      For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old female who is typically healthy presents with flu-like symptoms that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female who is typically healthy presents with flu-like symptoms that have persisted for several days. She has recently observed a rash of spots in her genital region and is experiencing discomfort and pain while urinating. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection (UTI)

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex

      Explanation:

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Virus

      Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that affects humans. There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital herpes, respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The primary infection may present with severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are common features.

      Management of HSV includes oral aciclovir for gingivostomatitis and genital herpes, and topical aciclovir for cold sores, although the evidence base for the latter is modest. Patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir. In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes during pregnancy at greater than 28 weeks gestation may require elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low.

      The cytopathic effect of HSV can be seen in Pap smears, which show multinucleated giant cells representing infection by the virus. The 3 M’s – multinucleation, margination of the chromatin, and molding of the nuclei – are characteristic features of HSV infection. Understanding the features and management of HSV is important for effective treatment and prevention of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman was urgently referred for investigation (2-week wait) via the cancer...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman was urgently referred for investigation (2-week wait) via the cancer referral pathway by her General Practitioner after presenting with a 2-month history of weight loss and fatigue. Blood tests reveal a carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level of 300 μg/l (Normal range: 2.5–5.0 μg/l).
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Overview of Common Cancers and Tumor Markers

      Colorectal Cancer, Hepatocellular Cancer, Lung Cancer, Prostate Cancer, and Testicular Cancer are some of the most common types of cancer. Each type presents with different symptoms and may require different diagnostic tests. Tumor markers, such as carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer, alpha-fetoprotein for hepatocellular and testicular cancer, and bombesin for lung cancer, can be used to screen high-risk groups, assess prognosis, detect recurrence, and monitor treatment. Digital rectal examination (DRE) is often used in conjunction with prostate-specific antigen (PSA) as a screening test for prostate cancer. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for patients with cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 38-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner with a lump in...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner with a lump in her right breast. She has no significant medical or family history. During the examination, a small, firm, non-painful lump is found in the upper left quadrant of her right breast. The rest of the breast examination is normal. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to breast clinic

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral to a breast clinic is necessary for women over the age of 30 who have an unexplained breast lump, using a suspected cancer pathway referral. This is in accordance with NICE guidelines, as the lump may represent cancerous pathology and should be investigated promptly. Conservative management or routine referral to breast clinic is not appropriate in this case, as the potential for cancerous pathology requires urgent attention.

      In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain that started two hours ago. He has a history of lung cancer with bony metastases and has recently started treatment with erlotinib.

      His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2ºC; oxygen saturation 92% on room air; respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute; heart rate 98 beats per minute; blood pressure 140/86 mmHg.

      A chest X-ray is performed, which shows no abnormalities. He is started on supplemental oxygen therapy, and a CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered.

      While waiting for the CTPA results, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Commence prophylactic dose low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

      Correct Answer: Commence rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial management for patients with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is to ensure they are haemodynamically stable before starting anticoagulation. According to the latest NICE Guidelines (2020), a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban or rivaroxaban should be started unless there are contraindications. In this case, the patient is stable and can be started on rivaroxaban. It is important to note that starting prophylactic dose LMWH is not appropriate for suspected PE, and commencing warfarin at loading dose is also not recommended due to its delayed anticoagulant effects. Thrombolytic agents such as alteplase are only appropriate for haemodynamically unstable patients. Dabigatran is an alternative option for patients who cannot take apixaban or rivaroxaban, but it too requires a bridging dose of LMWH.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      78.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
      On examination, visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 97% on air
      Temperature 38.2 °C
      Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
      What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?

      Your Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis

      Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.

      While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.

      In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      73.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing symptoms suggestive of a chest infection. He is currently taking amiodarone, warfarin, and simvastatin. Which antibiotic should be avoided, if possible?

      Your Answer: Cefaclor

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.

      Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you examine a two hour...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you examine a two hour old baby delivered via cesarean section. The baby presents with intercostal recession and a respiratory rate of 55/min. However, they have good tone and color and are apyrexial. You suspect transient tachypnoea of the newborn and order a chest x-ray as part of your assessment. What is the probable result of the chest x-ray?

      Your Answer: Hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn may be indicated by hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure on a chest x-ray. However, it is important to note that even if this condition is suspected, the baby should still be screened and treated for sepsis. This is because transient tachypnoea of the newborn is the most common cause of respiratory distress in neonates, but it typically resolves within 24-48 hours. Other conditions may present with different x-ray findings, such as ground glass appearance and low volume lungs in respiratory distress syndrome, or asymmetric patchy opacities in meconium aspiration syndrome. Additionally, a pneumothorax may be associated with mechanical ventilation but should be carefully evaluated in all chest x-rays.

      Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

      The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a physiological third stage of labor. She subsequently loses 700ml of blood and medical assistance is requested. An ABCDE assessment is conducted, and the patient is given warmed IV crystalloid fluids after obtaining IV access. The uterus is compressed to stimulate contractions, and a catheter is inserted, but the bleeding persists. The patient has a history of asthma but no known coagulopathy. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: IV oxytocin

      Explanation:

      The appropriate medical treatments for postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony are oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. In this scenario, the patient has experienced a blood loss of over 500 ml after delivery, indicating PPH as the likely cause, with uterine atony being the most probable reason. The first steps in managing PPH involve an ABCDE approach, including IV access, warm crystalloid administration, uterine fundus palpation, and catheterisation to prevent bladder distention. If these measures fail, medical therapy is initiated, starting with IV oxytocin. IM carboprost is not the correct choice as it requires senior approval and can worsen bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma. IV carboprost is also not recommended as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, and fever, and requires senior approval. IV tocolytics are not appropriate as they suppress uterine contractions, which would exacerbate the problem in this case. Therefore, agents that stimulate uterine contraction are given to manage PPH caused by uterine atony.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for the last month without any apparent cause. During examination, she experiences pain when resisting wrist extension while the elbow is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at the emergency department with dysarthria and left-sided weakness that she noticed earlier today. During the examination, left-sided hemiparesis is observed, and her blood glucose level is 6.5 mmol/L. What is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Non-contrast CT head

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Investigations for Stroke

      Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.

      When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man presents with weakness of his right upper limb. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with weakness of his right upper limb. On examination, there is weakness of the right triceps muscle, brachioradialis and extensor digitorum. Sensation is normal. The right triceps jerk is absent. There is some wasting of the dorsum of the forearm.
      Where is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: C7 radiculopathy

      Correct Answer: Right radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient has multiple nerve-related issues, including a right radial nerve palsy, a possible brachial plexus injury, and weakness of the brachioradialis muscle. The right radial nerve palsy is likely due to a humeral or proximal radial fracture or compression, resulting in weak wrist, elbow, and MCP extension and wrist drop. The brachial plexus injury may be affecting a specific nerve rather than the whole plexus, with symptoms consistent with an upper or lower trunk lesion. The weakness of the brachioradialis muscle suggests a possible C5-6 nerve root involvement. The patient does not have any sensory deficits, which is unusual for these types of nerve injuries. Testing of dermatomes, motor function, and reflexes can help identify the specific nerve root or nerve affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old female patient visits the ophthalmologist complaining of painful red eyes. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female patient visits the ophthalmologist complaining of painful red eyes. Upon examination, the ophthalmologist diagnoses her with bilateral anterior uveitis. During the medical history, the patient reveals that she has been experiencing a persistent dry cough and has visited her GP several times. The ophthalmologist orders blood tests and a chest x-ray, which reveal elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the underlying cause of uveitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis may present as bilateral anterior uveitis in young adults, making it an important early consideration. Recurrent uveitis in both eyes, along with a history of pulmonary issues, should prompt investigation for sarcoidosis. The other options, which do not involve a dry cough, are not relevant. Rheumatoid arthritis affects small joints in the hands, feet, and wrists, while ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine with symptoms of back pain and stiffness, neither of which are mentioned in this scenario.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most appropriate statement regarding GI bleeding caused by NSAID therapy?...

    Correct

    • What is the most appropriate statement regarding GI bleeding caused by NSAID therapy? Choose only one option from the list.

      Your Answer: It is due to depletion of mucosal prostaglandin E (PGE) levels

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation. However, there are several misconceptions about their side effects. Here are some clarifications:

      Clarifying Misconceptions about NSAIDs

      Misconception 1: NSAIDs cause gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding by depleting mucosal prostaglandin E (PGE) levels.

      Clarification: While it is true that NSAIDs can irritate the GI tract and reduce the levels of protective prostaglandins, not all NSAIDs have the same risk of causing GI bleeding. High-risk NSAIDs such as piroxicam have a higher prevalence of gastric side effects, while ibuprofen and diclofenac have lower rates. Additionally, GI bleeding can occur in patients without pre-existing peptic ulcers. Therefore, NSAIDs should be used at the lowest effective dose and for the shortest period possible.

      Misconception 2: NSAIDs cause GI bleeding only in patients with pre-existing gastric and/or duodenal ulcers.

      Clarification: While patients with pre-existing peptic ulcer disease are at higher risk of GI bleeding, NSAIDs can also cause GI bleeding in patients without ulcers. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing NSAIDs to all patients.

      Misconception 3: Severe dyspepsia is the only symptom of GI bleeding caused by NSAIDs.

      Clarification: While dyspepsia is a common symptom of NSAID use, endoscopic evidence of peptic ulceration can be seen in up to 20% of asymptomatic patients taking NSAIDs. Therefore, regular monitoring and endoscopic evaluation may be necessary in patients taking NSAIDs.

      Misconception 4: NSAIDs increase platelet adhesiveness.

      Clarification: NSAIDs actually reduce platelet aggregation and adhesiveness, except for aspirin, which irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and is indicated for inhibition of platelet aggregation. However, aspirin use increases the risk of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old man is experiencing excessive breast tissue growth and is worried about...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is experiencing excessive breast tissue growth and is worried about it. He has a medical history of dyspepsia, hypertension, and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, and has recently undergone treatment for prostate cancer. Which medication from his prescription list is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Goserelin

      Explanation:

      The use of GnRH agonists (such as goserelin) for treating prostate cancer can lead to the development of gynaecomastia. This medication can also cause loss of libido and erectile dysfunction due to its mode of action. Bisoprolol does not have any known association with gynaecomastia. While metoclopramide can cause nipple discharge and hyperprolactinaemia, it is not linked to gynaecomastia. On the other hand, cimetidine (not omeprazole) is known to cause gynaecomastia.

      Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers

      Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.

      There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.

      It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast Asia. He and his colleagues frequently ate at street food stalls during their trip, often consuming seafood. He complains of feeling unwell, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin and dark urine. He had a fever initially, but it disappeared once the jaundice appeared. During the examination, he has an enlarged liver and tenderness in the upper right quadrant. His ALT and AST levels are ten times the upper limit of normal, while his bilirubin level is six times the upper limit of normal, but his ALP is only slightly elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history of foreign travel suggests that the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. This virus is typically contracted through ingestion of contaminated food, particularly undercooked shellfish. While rare, outbreaks of Hepatitis A can occur worldwide, especially in resource-poor regions. Symptoms usually appear 2-6 weeks after exposure and can be more severe in older patients. Liver function tests often show elevated levels of ALT and AST. Diagnosis is confirmed through serologic testing for IgM antibody to HAV. Treatment involves supportive care and management of complications. Salmonella infection, Hepatitis B, gallstones, and pancreatic carcinoma are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man presented to the GP surgery multiple times with a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presented to the GP surgery multiple times with a persistent conjunctivitis in one eye. Despite being treated with chloramphenicol and steroid eye drops, the symptoms did not improve. After three weeks, he visited the eye casualty with a constantly teary, painless, and red right eye. Upon examination, it was found that he had decreased visual acuity and mild proptosis in the affected eye. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Orbital lymphoma

      Explanation:

      If a patient has chronic unilateral conjunctivitis that is not responding to treatment, it could be a sign of orbital lymphoma.

      Orbital lymphoma typically has a slow onset of symptoms, which is why it is the most appropriate answer in this situation. If the red eye persists despite treatment, it is important to investigate further to rule out any serious underlying conditions. The other options listed are not applicable as they are associated with a painful red eye.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old female who is being investigated for secondary amenorrhoea comes in with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female who is being investigated for secondary amenorrhoea comes in with yellowing of the eyes. During the examination, spider naevi are observed, and the liver is tender and enlarged. The blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 11.6 g/dl, Plt 145 * 109/l, WCC 6.4 * 109/l, Albumin 33 g/l, Bilirubin 78 µmol/l, and ALT 245 iu/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis

      Explanation:

      When a young female experiences both abnormal liver function tests and a lack of menstrual periods, it is highly indicative of autoimmune hepatitis.

      Understanding Autoimmune Hepatitis

      Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition that affects mostly young females and has an unknown cause. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, hypergammaglobulinaemia, and HLA B8, DR3. There are three types of autoimmune hepatitis, which are classified based on the types of circulating antibodies present. Type I affects both adults and children and is characterized by the presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA). Type II affects children only and is characterized by the presence of anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1). Type III affects adults in middle-age and is characterized by the presence of soluble liver-kidney antigen.

      Autoimmune hepatitis may present with signs of chronic liver disease, and only 25% of cases present with acute hepatitis symptoms such as fever and jaundice. Amenorrhea is a common symptom. Diagnosis is made through the presence of ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels, and liver biopsy showing inflammation extending beyond the limiting plate, piecemeal necrosis, and bridging necrosis.

      Management of autoimmune hepatitis involves the use of steroids and other immunosuppressants such as azathioprine. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after a clinic reading of 154/100 mmHg. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and COPD, which are managed with inhalers. His home blood pressure readings over the past week have averaged at 140/96 mmHg. What is the initial intervention that should be considered?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      54.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (3/4) 75%
Ophthalmology (2/4) 50%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/6) 33%
Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/2) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Passmed