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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man reports to you that a mole on his left forearm has recently become darker, although he believes the size has not changed. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped pigmented lesion measuring 8 mm × 6 mm. The lesion appears mildly inflamed, with some areas darker than others, but there is no discharge. Sensation over the lesion and surrounding skin is normal.
Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE), what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?Your Answer: 8
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The 7-Point Checklist for Detecting Skin Cancer
The 7-point weighted checklist is a tool used by clinicians to identify suspicious skin lesions that may be cancerous. It comprises three major features, including a change in size, irregular shape, and irregular colour, as well as four minor features, such as inflammation and oozing. Major features score 2 points each, while minor features score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation, even if the score is less than 3.
The incidence of malignant melanoma is increasing rapidly, particularly among young people, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. High-risk patients include those with fair skin, freckling or light hair, users of sunbeds, atypical or dysplastic naevi, a family history of melanoma, and a history of blistering sunburn. Clinicians should also offer safe sun advice and encourage patients to seek medical attention if they have any concerns.
The 7-point checklist can be found in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer and is an important tool for detecting skin cancer early. By being aware of the risk factors and using this checklist, clinicians can help to improve outcomes for patients with skin cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man is concerned about the appearance of both his great toe nails. He has noticed separation of the nail plate from the nail bed distally. The other toenails appear normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Eczema
Correct Answer: Trauma
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of onycholysis
Onycholysis is a condition where the nail separates from the nail bed, often starting at the distal edge and progressing proximally. It can have various causes, including infections, skin diseases, and mechanical trauma. Here we consider some possible diagnoses for a patient with onycholysis of the great toenails without other significant findings.
Trauma: Onycholysis can result from repeated or acute trauma to the nail, which is common in sports or due to ill-fitting shoes. This is a likely cause in this case, given the location and absence of other features.
Psoriasis: Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect the skin and nails, causing red, scaly patches and pitting of the nails. However, the patient would typically have other skin lesions and a history of psoriasis, which is not evident here.
Chronic paronychia: Paronychia is an infection of the skin around the nail, which can cause pain, swelling, and pus. However, this doesn’t involve the nail itself and is not consistent with the presentation.
Eczema: Eczema is a common skin condition that can cause itching, redness, and scaling of the skin. If it affects the nail matrix, it can lead to transverse ridging of the nail, but not onycholysis.
Tinea unguium: Tinea unguium, also known as onychomycosis, is a fungal infection of the nail that can cause thickening, discoloration, and onycholysis. However, the nail would typically be yellow or white and show other signs of fungal infection.
In summary, trauma is the most likely cause of onycholysis in this case, but other possibilities should be considered based on the clinical context and additional findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic dandruff that worsens during the winter months and has not responded to over-the-counter treatments. She reports a rash on her elbows and knees. On examination, she has silvery scale on her scalp, elbows, and knees that can be removed but causes pinpoint bleeding. The thickness of the scalp scale is not significant. What is the most suitable initial management option?
Your Answer: Calcipotriol betamethasone combination
Correct Answer: Betamethasone lotion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scalp Psoriasis: NICE Guidelines and Beyond
Scalp psoriasis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment. One telltale sign is Auspitz’s sign, where pinpoint bleeding occurs when a scale is removed due to thinning of the epidermal layer overlying the dermal papillae. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a potent corticosteroid as initial treatment for up to four weeks, followed by a different formulation or calcipotriol if necessary. Topical agents containing salicylic acid, emollients, or oils can also be used to remove scale before resuming corticosteroid treatment. However, tar-based shampoos are not recommended as a sole treatment option. A combined product containing calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate may be used as a first-line treatment, as it has been shown to be more effective than using the drugs separately. Overall, there are various treatment options available for scalp psoriasis, and it is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of impetigo on his chin. He has a history of heart disease and recently underwent a cardiac procedure. After seven days of treatment, there has been no improvement in his symptoms. On examination, a persistent small, crusted area is noted on the right side of his chin. While waiting for swab results, what is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Topical metronidazole
Correct Answer: Topical mupirocin
Explanation:In light of the recent hospitalization and the ineffectiveness of fusidic acid, it is important to consider the possibility of MRSA. The most suitable treatment option in this case would be topical mupirocin.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.
The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.
Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.
Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive hair growth on her arms. She has a slim build and olive skin with dark brown hair. The patient shaves the hair to remove it. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 33 days, and she reports no heavy bleeding or pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Correct Answer: Genetic phenotype
Explanation:Excessive hair growth on the arms may be noticeable in this woman due to her genetic makeup, as she has olive skin and dark hair. However, hirsutism, which is characterized by excessive hair growth on the face and body, is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. Although her menstrual cycle is regular at 33 days, it is important to note that a normal cycle can range from 24 to 35 days. A cycle variation of 8 days or more is considered moderately irregular, while a variation of 21 days or more is considered very irregular. Additionally, this patient has light periods and a slim physique.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both hands and feet. The lesions started 2 days ago and she now has some lesions on the arms and legs. Individual lesions are well-demarcated red macules or small urticarial plaques. Some lesions have a small blister or crusting in the centre, which seems darker than the periphery.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that typically begins with lesions on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and the palms and soles may also be involved. The initial lesions are red or pink macules that become raised papules and gradually enlarge to form plaques up to 2-3 cm in diameter. The center of a lesion darkens in color and may develop blistering or crusting. The typical target lesion of erythema multiforme has a sharp margin, regular round shape, and three concentric color zones. Atypical targets may show just two zones and/or an indistinct border. The rash is polymorphous, meaning it can take many forms, and lesions may be at various stages of development. The rash usually fades over 2-4 weeks, but recurrences are common. In more severe cases, there may be blistering of mucous membranes, which can be life-threatening. Some consider erythema multiforme to be part of a spectrum of disease that includes Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, while others argue that it should be classified separately as it is associated with infections rather than certain drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his face that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved and the patient is becoming more self-conscious about them. He is seeking treatment. During examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, but no nodules.
What is the best initial approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: A 1-month course of oral lymecycline
Correct Answer: Trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:The recommended first-line management for acne is non-antibiotic topical treatment. For mild to moderate acne, a trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide, topical azelaic acid, or topical antibacterial is appropriate. Referral to dermatology is not necessary for mild to moderate acne. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if topical management options have failed. It is important to reassure the patient that treatment is available and necessary, and to review their progress in 2 months.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother, who has observed an atypical rash on her son's abdomen. On the upper abdomen, there is a group of approximately 12 pearly white papules with a central depression, with each lesion measuring around 3-5 mm in size. There is no discomfort or itching. What self-care recommendations should be provided, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Spontaneous resolution usually occurs within 6 months
Correct Answer: Avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people
Explanation:Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular eruption affecting upper and lower limbs bilaterally also affecting trunk back and face. She had marked oral cavity ulceration, micturition was painful. She had recently been commenced on a new drug (Methotrexate) for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Granuloma annulare
Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Severe Drug Reaction
Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), also known as erythema multiforme major, is a severe and extensive drug reaction that always involves mucous membranes. This condition is characterized by the presence of blisters that tend to become confluent and bullous. One of the diagnostic signs of SJS is Nikolsky’s sign, which is the extension of blisters with gentle sliding pressure.
In addition to skin lesions, patients with SJS may experience systemic symptoms such as fever, prostration, cheilitis, stomatitis, vulvovaginitis, and balanitis. These symptoms can lead to difficulties with micturition. Moreover, SJS can affect the eyes, causing conjunctivitis and keratitis, which carry a risk of scarring and permanent visual impairment.
If there are lesions in the pharynx and larynx, it is important to seek an ENT opinion. SJS is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having scabies. His partner has disclosed that he was treated for scabies recently, and the physician observes the typical burrows in the man's finger webs. The man has no other skin ailments or allergies to drugs/foods.
What is the most suitable initial treatment option?Your Answer: Topical mupirocin cream applied to all skin, with re-treatment after 1 week
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream applied to all skin, rinsed after 12 hours with re-treatment after 1 week
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for scabies is the application of permethrin cream to all skin, including the scalp, which should be left on for 12 hours before rinsing off. This treatment should be repeated after 7 days. Malathion is a second-line treatment that should be rinsed off after 24 hours. Steroids may be used by dermatologists in cases of resistant scabies or scabies pruritus, but only under specialist guidance. Salt water bathing is not recommended as a treatment for scabies. Mupirocin cream is used to eliminate MRSA in asymptomatic hospital inpatients.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male patient comes in for a follow-up after being on lymecycline and topical adapalene for three months to treat moderate acne vulgaris. He reports a positive response to the treatment with only occasional breakouts on his forehead. He has no allergies and is not on any other medications.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Stop adapalene and continue lymecycline
Correct Answer: Stop lymecycline and continue adapalene
Explanation:When treating acne vulgaris, it is important to limit the use of a single oral antibiotic to a maximum of three months. Additionally, it is recommended to review the treatment plan every 8-12 weeks. If topical treatments are not effective for moderate acne, an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline can be added for a maximum of three months to prevent antibiotic resistance. Once the acne has cleared or improved significantly, maintenance therapy with topical retinoids or azelaic acid should be considered as first-line options, unless contraindicated.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with a rash on his penis. He reports having the rash on his glans penis for approximately 6 months, with no growth and no associated itching, pain, or discharge. He is in good health otherwise.
During the examination, a well-defined, shiny, moist, orange-red plaque is observed on the glans penis. Pin-point red lesions are present within and surrounding the lesion. The patient is uncircumcised.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Correct Answer: Zoon's balanitis
Explanation:Zoon’s balanitis is a benign condition affecting uncircumcised men, presenting with orange-red lesions with pinpoint redder spots on the glans and adjacent areas of the foreskin. It may be secondary to other conditions such as lichen sclerosus or erythroplasia of Queyrat. Differential diagnoses include lichen sclerosus, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and psoriasis.
Understanding Zoon’s Balanitis
Zoon’s balanitis, also known as plasma cell balanitis, is a chronic condition that affects the head of the penis. It is commonly seen in middle-aged or elderly men who are not circumcised. The condition is characterized by erythematous, well-defined, and shiny patches that appear on the head of the penis.
Although Zoon’s balanitis is generally benign, a biopsy may be necessary to rule out other possible diagnoses. Circumcision is often the most effective treatment for this condition. However, carbon dioxide laser therapy and topical corticosteroids may also be used to manage the symptoms.
In summary, Zoon’s balanitis is a chronic condition that affects the head of the penis. It is typically seen in older men who are not circumcised. While circumcision is the most effective treatment, other options such as laser therapy and topical corticosteroids may also be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis and an abnormality in her nails. Although it is not causing her any discomfort, she wants to know if any treatment is necessary. Upon examination, you diagnose her with mild nail psoriasis. What is your plan for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Prescribe topical tar to use
Correct Answer: No treatment required
Explanation:If nail psoriasis is mild and not causing any distress or cosmetic concerns for the patient, NICE recommends that treatment is not necessary. Topical treatments such as tar, emollients, or low dose steroids are not effective for nail disease. Urgent referral to dermatology is not needed for mild cases that do not cause distress. The best course of action is to monitor the condition and offer the patient the option to return if it worsens. Therefore, no treatment is required in this case.
Psoriasis can cause changes in the nails of both fingers and toes. These changes do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy experience nail changes. Some of the nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and even loss of the nail. It is important to note that these changes can be distressing for patients and may require medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Correct
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Linda is a 29-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a rash around her mouth that has been present for 2 weeks. She reports that she recently switched to a different brand of foundation make-up.
Upon examination, you observe clustered reddish papules, vesicles, and pustules on an erythematous base around her mouth and cheeks. The lip margins are unaffected. Your diagnosis is perioral dermatitis.
What is the best course of action for treatment?Your Answer: Prescribe 6 week course of an oral lymecycline
Explanation:Perioral dermatitis can be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. However, before starting treatment, it is important to evaluate any underlying factors and advise the patient to avoid using cosmetics, cleansers, and moisturizers on the affected area.
For milder cases, a topical antibiotic such as clindamycin, erythromycin, or metronidazole can be used. However, for more severe cases, a systemic antibiotic such as oxytetracycline, lymecycline, doxycycline, or erythromycin should be used for a period of 4-6 weeks.
It is important to note that the use of topical steroids should be avoided as they can cause or exacerbate perioral dermatitis. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it can be associated with the use of topical steroids for minor skin problems.
Referral to a dermatologist is not necessary at this stage, as perioral dermatitis can be effectively treated in primary care. However, if the condition doesn’t respond to treatment or alternative diagnoses are being considered, referral to a dermatologist may be appropriate.
Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis
Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.
When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags in both axillae.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Hyperpigmented Skin: Acanthosis Nigricans, Erythrasma, Melasma, Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum, and Post-Inflammatory Hyperpigmentation
Hyperpigmented skin can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is acanthosis nigricans, which presents with thick, velvety skin in the neck and flexures, often accompanied by skin tags. This condition is commonly associated with obesity and hereditary factors. However, it can also be a sign of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Another possible cause of hyperpigmented skin is erythrasma, a bacterial infection that causes pink-red macules that turn brown, typically in the groin and axilla. However, the bilateral distribution of the pigmentation in this case makes erythrasma less likely.
Melasma is another condition that can cause hyperpigmentation, but it typically presents with symmetrical blotchy brown pigmentation on the face. The distribution described in the scenario makes melasma less likely.
Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a rare condition that affects the shins of people with diabetes. However, the distribution of the pigmentation in this case rules out this condition as a cause.
Finally, post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after trauma such as burns, causing flat macules. However, it doesn’t cause skin thickening, as described in this case.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for hyperpigmented skin includes acanthosis nigricans, erythrasma, melasma, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to you with acne. Upon examination, you observe several whiteheads and blackheads, but no facial scarring. The patient expresses interest in treatment. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: A topical antibiotic
Correct Answer: Topical retinoid
Explanation:For the treatment of mild acne, the NICE guidance recommends starting with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide. This is particularly appropriate for boys. However, if the patient is female, a combined oral contraceptive may be prescribed instead of a retinoid due to the teratogenic effects of retinoids. Mild acne is characterized by the presence of blackheads, whiteheads, papules, and pustules. While scarring is unlikely, the condition can have a significant psychosocial impact. If topical retinoids and benzoyl peroxide are poorly tolerated, azelaic acid may be prescribed. Combined treatment is rarely necessary. Follow-up should be arranged after 6-8 weeks to assess the effectiveness and tolerability of treatment and the patient’s compliance.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to the extent that nearly the whole of the skin surface is involved.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atopic eczema
Correct Answer: Erythroderma
Explanation:Erythroderma is a condition where the skin becomes red all over the body, affecting at least 90% of the skin surface. It can occur suddenly or gradually and is often accompanied by skin peeling. The cause can be related to various skin disorders, including eczema, drug reactions, and cancer. Psoriasis is the most common cause in adults. Patients with erythroderma should be hospitalized as it can lead to fever, heart failure, and dehydration. Asteatotic eczema is a type of eczema that causes dry, itchy, and cracked skin, usually on the shins of elderly patients. Atopic eczema is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that often starts in infancy and is associated with high levels of immunoglobulin E. Ichthyosis is a condition where the skin is persistently scaly and can be congenital or acquired. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by drug reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You saw a 9-year-old girl accompanied by her dad at the GP surgery with a one-day history of itchy rash on her ears. She is normally healthy and doesn't take any regular medication. On examination, you notice small blisters on the outer rims of her ear which causes mild discomfort on palpation. The rest of the skin appears normal. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Topical antibiotic
Correct Answer: Emollient
Explanation:Emollients, potent topical steroids, and avoiding strong direct sunlight are effective treatments for juvenile spring eruption. Antihistamines can also be used to alleviate itching. Infection is not a known factor in this condition, which is associated with UV light exposure. In more severe cases or when there is widespread polymorphic light eruption, oral steroids and phototherapy may be necessary.
Understanding Juvenile Spring Eruption
Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition that occurs as a result of sun exposure. It is a type of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) that causes itchy red bumps on the light-exposed parts of the ears, which can turn into blisters and crusts. This condition is more common in boys aged between 5-14 years, and it is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears.
The main cause of juvenile spring eruption is sun-induced allergy rash, which is more likely to occur in the springtime. Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body, and there is an increased incidence in cold weather. The diagnosis of this condition is usually made based on clinical presentation, and no clinical tests are required in most cases. However, in aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests.
The management of juvenile spring eruption involves providing patient education on sun exposure and the use of sunscreen and hats. Topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion can be used to provide relief, and antihistamines can help with itch relief at night-time. In more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used, as well as immune-system suppressants.
In conclusion, understanding juvenile spring eruption is important for proper diagnosis and management. By taking preventative measures and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with complaints of persistent dandruff and greasy skin. He has observed a pink skin lesion with scaling along his hairline and has previously experienced similar symptoms under his eyebrows. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tinea capitis
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Identifying Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: A Comparison with Other Skin Conditions
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition that produces a scaled rash. However, it can be difficult to distinguish from other skin conditions that also produce scaling lesions. Here, we compare seborrhoeic dermatitis with psoriasis, atopic eczema, folliculitis, and tinea capitis to help identify the key features of each condition.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is characterized by a poorly defined rash, greasy skin, and a specific distribution pattern. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces well-defined plaques and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Atopic eczema produces dry, scaling skin and often affects flexural sites, whereas folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Tinea capitis, which causes hair loss and scaling of the skin, is less likely in this case as there is no hair loss present.
By comparing the key features of each condition, it becomes clear that the greasy skin and distribution pattern make seborrhoeic dermatitis the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling constantly fatigued. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she reports having stiff joints, there is no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:
Hb 12.5 g/dl
Platelets 135 * 109/l
WBC 3.5 * 109/l
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 3.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 80 µmol/l
Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
TSH 1.30 mu/l
CRP 8 mg/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.
Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: A Multisystem Autoimmune Disorder
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It typically develops in early adulthood and is more common in women and individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.
SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, as well as a discoid rash that is scaly, erythematous, and well-demarcated in sun-exposed areas. Other skin symptoms may include photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia.
Musculoskeletal symptoms of SLE may include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis, while cardiovascular symptoms may include pericarditis and myocarditis. Respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis, and renal symptoms may include proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.
Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, psychosis, and seizures. Overall, SLE is a complex and challenging condition that requires careful management and ongoing support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Acne vulgaris is a common presentation to GP. One treatment option is an oral antibiotic, and tetracyclines are the first line. From the options below which patient would be suitable to receive oral tetracycline if they are 16 years old or above?
Your Answer: An 11-year-old girl
Correct Answer: A 16-year-old female
Explanation:When treating acne with oral antibiotics, tetracyclines are typically the first choice. All tetracyclines are effective for treating acne, so the decision on which one to use should be based on personal preference and cost. Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are taken twice a day on an empty stomach, while doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once a day and can be taken with food. However, pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 should avoid oral tetracyclines due to the risk of them being deposited in the developing child’s teeth and bones. Women of childbearing age who are taking a topical retinoid should use effective contraception. If tetracyclines are not an option, erythromycin can be used instead at a dose of 500 mg twice a day. In this case, a 16-year-old female would be a suitable candidate for tetracyclines.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman, Sarah, has been taking Microgynon-30 for 8 months as a form of birth control. She recently returned from a vacation in Thailand and has noticed the development of melasma on her face. Despite her busy work schedule, she has made time to visit her GP for advice on preventing further melasma after sun exposure. What recommendations should her GP provide to help Sarah?
Your Answer: Change Microgynon-30 to norethisterone
Correct Answer: Change Microgynon-30 to Cerazette (desogestrel)
Explanation:Switching from the combined contraceptive pill to a progesterone only pill can potentially decrease melasma, as it is believed that elevated levels of estrogen stimulate melanocytes. Given her irregular work schedule, Cerazette, which has a 12-hour usage window, may be a better option for her than norethisterone.
Understanding Melasma: A Common Skin Condition
Melasma is a skin condition that causes the development of dark patches or macules on sun-exposed areas, especially the face. It is more common in women and people with darker skin. The term chloasma is sometimes used to describe melasma during pregnancy. The condition is often associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during pregnancy or with the use of hormonal medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents with severe acne on her face, chest, and shoulders. The inflammation, papules, and pustules are widespread and causing her significant pain, even waking her from sleep. She had been receiving treatment from dermatology but stopped when she began trying to conceive. Her next appointment is not for another 6 weeks. To improve her quality of life, you decide to initiate oral antibiotic therapy. Which antibiotic would be the most appropriate for her?
Your Answer: Oxytetracycline
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Acne vulgaris is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, and in this case, the patient has moderate to severe acne. Treatment with an oral antibiotic is recommended, and a referral to a dermatologist has already been scheduled.
Tetracyclines are typically the first-line treatment for acne vulgaris, but they are contraindicated in pregnant women. This patient is pregnant, so an alternative antibiotic is needed. Oral tetracyclines should also be avoided in breastfeeding women and children under 12 years old due to the risk of deposition in developing teeth and bones.
Erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines for the treatment of acne vulgaris in pregnancy. The usual dose is 500 mg twice a day. Some specialists may use trimethoprim, but it is unlicensed for this indication. Women of childbearing age should use effective contraception, especially if using a topical retinoid concomitantly.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman in the third trimester of her first pregnancy presents with pruritus and a few blisters on her abdomen, including around her umbilicus and upper thighs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pruritus (cholestatic) of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions During Pregnancy
Pregnancy can bring about various changes in a woman’s body, including changes in the skin. Here are some common skin conditions that may occur during pregnancy:
1. Pemphigoid Gestationis (Herpes Gestationis)
This rare bullous disorder is caused by circulating immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies similar to those found in bullous pemphigoid. It usually appears in the second trimester but can occur at any stage and may even worsen postpartum. Symptoms include extremely itchy urticarial papules and blisters on the abdomen and trunk, which may become generalized.2. Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy (Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy)
This benign dermatosis typically arises late in the third trimester of a first pregnancy or in multiple pregnancies. Itchy erythematous papules and plaques first appear on abdominal striae and then spread to the trunk and proximal limbs. The umbilicus is usually spared.3. Pregnancy Prurigo
Prurigo of pregnancy presents as scattered, itchy/scratched papules at any stage of pregnancy. It is often mistaken for scabies but doesn’t respond to antiscabetic agents. Emollients and topical corticosteroids may help.4. Pruritus (Cholestatic) of Pregnancy
Cholestatic pruritis appears as unexplained pruritus during the second and third trimesters, with raised blood levels of bile acids and/or liver enzymes. It typically starts in the soles of the feet and palms of the hands and progresses to the trunk and face.5. Scabies
Although rare, bullous lesions have been reported in scabies. However, this is not the most common cause of this presentation.It is important to consult a healthcare provider if any skin changes or symptoms occur during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 28-year-old woman who has chronic plaque psoriasis. Despite trying various combinations of potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, coal tar and dithranol over the past two years, she has seen limited improvement. Light therapy was attempted last year but the psoriasis returned within a month. The patient is feeling increasingly discouraged, especially after a recent relationship breakdown. As per NICE guidelines, what is a necessary requirement before considering systemic therapy for this patient?
Your Answer: The patient is <= 40 years or has had psoriasis for <= 20 years
Correct Answer: It has a significant impact on physical, psychological or social wellbeing
Explanation:Referral Criteria for Psoriasis Patients
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects a significant number of people. According to NICE guidelines, around 60% of psoriasis patients will require referral to secondary care at some point. The guidance provides some general criteria for referral, including diagnostic uncertainty, severe or extensive psoriasis, inability to control psoriasis with topical therapy, and major functional or cosmetic impact on nail disease. Additionally, any type of psoriasis that has a significant impact on a person’s physical, psychological, or social wellbeing should also be referred to a specialist. Children and young people with any type of psoriasis should be referred to a specialist at presentation.
For patients with erythroderma or generalised pustular psoriasis, same-day referral is recommended. erythroderma is characterized by a generalised erythematous rash, while generalised pustular psoriasis is marked by extensive exfoliation. These conditions require immediate attention due to their severity. Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the referral criteria for psoriasis patients to ensure that they receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 28-year-old man has a red lesion that has grown rapidly on the pulp of the left first finger and bleeds easily. There was a history of trauma to that digit 2 weeks previously. Examination showed a pedunculated vascular lesion measuring 10 mm in diameter.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Explanation:Rapidly Growing Tumor Following Trauma: Pyogenic Granuloma
A rapidly growing tumor following trauma is most likely a pyogenic granuloma. While amelanotic melanoma can occur on the digits, the rate of growth would not be as rapid. The other lesions in the options are not vascular in appearance. Treatment for pyogenic granuloma would be a shave biopsy and cautery to the base, as excision biopsy may be difficult. A specimen can be sent for histology to ensure it is not an amelanotic melanoma. Recurrence is common and lesions will eventually atrophy, but only a minority will spontaneously involute within six months. A GP minor surgeon can deal with pyogenic granuloma.
Another condition that may occur at the base of the nail is a myxoid cyst. This small cyst contains a gelatinous clear material that may be extruded from time to time. Pressure on the growing nail plate may produce nail deformity. These cysts may communicate with an osteoarthritic distal interphalangeal joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and nodules in both axillae. She frequently goes to the gym and initially attributed her symptoms to deodorant use, although there have been no signs of improvement since stopping these.
She doesn't take any regular medication and is allergic to macrolides.
Upon examination, there are numerous lesions in both axillae consisting of pustules and nodules, as well as sinus tract formation. Mild scarring is also evident.
What is the most suitable course of treatment?Your Answer: 2 week course of topical clindamycin
Correct Answer: 3-6 month course of lymecycline
Explanation:To manage her hidradenitis suppurativa, which is a chronic follicular occlusive disorder affecting intertriginous areas, such as the axillae, groin, perineal and infra-mammary areas, long-term topical or oral antibiotics may be used. As she is experiencing severe symptoms with nodules, sinuses, and scarring, it would be appropriate to offer her long-term systemic antibiotics. Tetracycline is the first-line antibiotic, making lymecycline the correct answer. Macrolides, such as clarithromycin, can be offered as a second-line option, but she is allergic to this antibiotic. Oral fluconazole and ketoconazole shampoo are used to treat various fungal skin conditions, but hidradenitis suppurativa is not related to a fungal infection. Topical clindamycin can be effective in mild localised hidradenitis suppurativa, but this woman requires systemic treatment due to her severe bilateral symptoms.
Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa
Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.
The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.
Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.
HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.
Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented skin lesion on her back. She is uncertain how long it has been there due to its location. Her husband noticed it last week and urged her to get it checked as he could not recall seeing it before.
Upon examination, there is a firm nodular pigmented lesion measuring 5 mm in diameter. It is symmetrical and an evenly pigmented dark brown colour. The border is smooth and regular. When viewed in the context of the rest of the patient's back, it does appear to stand out and look different from the small number of clearly benign naevii that are also present.
You are uncertain about the diagnosis. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Photograph the lesion and review the patient in 4 weeks time
Explanation:The ABCDEF Checklist for Assessing Suspicious Pigmented Lesions
The ABCDE checklist is a useful tool for assessing suspicious pigmented lesions, but it is important to also consider the additional ‘F’ criterion. The ABCDE criteria include asymmetry, irregular border, irregular colour, diameter greater than 6mm, and evolutionary change. However, even if a lesion doesn’t meet these criteria, it should still be considered suspicious if it looks different from the rest, the so-called ‘ugly duckling’ sign.
It is important to note that some dangerous melanomas may not be detected using the ABCDE criteria, as they can be symmetrical and evenly pigmented or non-pigmented. Therefore, the ‘F’ criterion should always be kept in mind and any suspicious lesions should be urgently referred to a dermatologist. It is also important to note that referral criteria may differ in different countries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48 hours ago and is localized to the T4 dermatome on her right trunk. It is accompanied by pain and blistering. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on metformin, canagliflozin, and atorvastatin. After confirming the diagnosis of shingles through photo review, the doctor prescribes aciclovir. What measures can be taken to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia in this patient?
Your Answer: Patient age
Correct Answer: Antiviral treatment
Explanation:Antiviral therapy, such as aciclovir, can effectively reduce the severity and duration of shingles. It can also lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, especially in older patients. However, for antivirals to be effective, they must be administered within 72 hours of rash onset.
Individuals with chronic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, inflammatory bowel disease, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune diseases, and immunosuppressive conditions like HIV are at a higher risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia.
Older patients, particularly those over 50 years old, are also at an increased risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia. However, the relationship between gender and post-herpetic neuralgia is still unclear, with some studies suggesting that females are at a higher risk, while others indicate the opposite or no association.
Unfortunately, having a shingles rash on either the trunk or face is associated with an increased risk of post-herpetic neuralgia, not a reduced risk.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl comes to her General Practitioner with her mother, complaining of a plantar wart on the sole of her foot. It has been there for a few months, is increasing in size, and is causing discomfort while walking.
What is the most suitable initial treatment choice for this situation?
Your Answer: Cryotherapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Plantar Warts
Plantar warts can be a painful and persistent problem, and while they may eventually resolve on their own, treatment is often necessary. Cryotherapy and salicylic acid treatments are commonly used, but may require multiple courses and can cause local pain and irritation. Laser therapy may be used for resistant cases, while surgical excision may be necessary if other treatments fail. However, topical terbinafine is not indicated for plantar wart treatment. It is important to seek medical advice for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man has an ulcer on his right foot. He has had type 1 diabetes for 20 years.
There is a small ulcer of 2 cm diameter on the outer aspect of his right big toe.
His peripheral pulses are all palpable. He has a peripheral neuropathy to the mid shins. The ulcer has an erythematous margin and is covered by slough.
Which is the most likely infective organism?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Diabetic Foot Ulcers and Infections
Diabetic foot ulcers can be categorized into two types: those in neuropathic feet and those in feet with ischemia. The former is warm and well-perfused with decreased sweating and dry skin, while the latter is cool and pulseless with thin, shiny skin and atrophy of subcutaneous tissues. Diabetic foot infections are serious and range from superficial paronychia to gangrene. Diabetics are more susceptible to foot ulceration due to neuropathy, vascular insufficiency, and reduced neutrophil function. Once skin ulceration occurs, pathogenic organisms can colonize the underlying tissues, and early signs of infection may be subtle. Local signs of wound infection include friable granulation tissue, yellow or grey moist tissue, purulent discharge, and an unpleasant odor. The most common pathogens are aerobic Gram-positive bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus and beta-hemolytic Streptococci. If infection is suspected, deep swab and tissue samples should be sent for culture, and broad-spectrum antibiotics started. Urgent surgical intervention is necessary for a large area of infected sloughy tissue, localised fluctuance and expression of pus, crepitus in the soft tissues on radiological examination, and purplish discoloration of the skin. Antibiotic treatment should be tailored according to the clinical response, culture results, and sensitivity. If osteomyelitis is present, surgical resection should be considered, and antibiotics continued for four to six weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a 40-year-old male. You note he was seen one week ago by a colleague who made a diagnosis of psoriasis on account of scaly, red patches on the scalp and elbows.
He presents today to tell you that 'the rash has spread to the nails'. On examination, you note pitting and discoloration of the nails. He complains of pain and tenderness in the affected nails.
What is the most appropriate option from the below to manage his symptoms?Your Answer: Sodium lauryl sulphate (SLS) toothpastes
Correct Answer: Benzydamine mouthwash
Explanation:For managing the symptoms of oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash can be used as a locally-acting non-steroidal anti-inflammatory. In severe cases, systemic steroids or topical steroids can also be considered. It is important to note that sodium lauryl sulphate, a common ingredient in healthcare products, may be associated with aphthous ulceration in certain patients. Chlorhexidine and hydrogen peroxide mouthwashes are primarily used for oral hygiene and not for addressing oral discomfort.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her left cheek. She reports that the lesion has been present for a while but has recently increased in size. Upon examination, it is evident that she has significant sun damage on her face, legs, and arms due to living in South Africa. The lesion appears flat, pigmented, and has an irregular border.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Lentigo maligna
Explanation:Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics
Lentigo Maligna: This pre-invasive lesion has the potential to develop into malignant melanoma. It appears as a pigmented, flat lesion against sun-damaged skin. Surgical excision is the ideal intervention, but cryotherapy and topical immunotherapy are possible alternatives.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma: This common type of skin cancer presents as enlarging scaly or crusted nodules, often associated with ulceration. It may arise in areas of actinic keratoses or Bowen’s disease.
Basal Cell Carcinoma: This skin cancer usually occurs in photo-exposed areas of fair-skinned individuals. It looks like pearly nodules with surface telangiectasia.
Pityriasis Versicolor: This is a common yeast infection of the skin that results in an annular, erythematous scaling rash on the trunk.
Actinic Keratosis: These scaly lesions occur in sun-damaged skin in fair-skinned individuals and are considered to be a pre-cancerous form of SCC.
Understanding Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination, red linear lesions are observed on the wrists and elbows, while red papules are present on the penis. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Topical betnovate
Correct Answer: Topical permethrin
Explanation:Although lichen planus can have similar symptoms, scabies is more likely to cause intense itching. Additionally, lichen planus is less frequently seen in older individuals, as it typically affects those between the ages of 30 and 60.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.
Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.
What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?Your Answer: Unusually high sun exposure
Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size
Explanation:Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.
It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and comedones. Her weight and periods are both normal. Identify the probable cause from the options provided.
Your Answer: Diet
Correct Answer: Bacteria
Explanation:Understanding Acne in Women: Causes and Treatments
Acne is not just a teenage problem, especially for women. There are several factors that contribute to its development, including genetics, seborrhoea, sensitivity to androgen, P. acnes bacteria, blocked hair follicles, and immune system response. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a less common cause of acne. Treatment options target these underlying causes, with combined oral contraceptives being a popular choice. Contrary to popular belief, diet and hygiene do not play a significant role in acne. The black color of blackheads is due to pigment in the hair follicle material. Understanding the causes and treatments of acne can help women manage this common skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) to the surgery, the Practice Manager has asked you to identify which age group should be offered the vaccine.
Your Answer: All adults aged 70-79 years who've never had Chickenpox
Correct Answer: All adults aged 70-79 years
Explanation:Serologic studies reveal that adults aged 60 years and above have been exposed to Chickenpox to a great extent. Hence, it is recommended that individuals within the age range of 70-79 years should receive the vaccine, irrespective of their memory of having had Chickenpox. However, the vaccine may not be as efficacious in individuals above 80 years of age.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is concerned about a darkly pigmented lesion on her right temple. The lesion is approximately 1 cm in size and she believes it has gradually increased in size over the past 2 years. The pigment appears mostly uniform, the lesion is flat, and the border is slightly irregular.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Seborrhoeic keratosis
Correct Answer: Lentigo maligna
Explanation:Understanding Lentigo Maligna: A Guide to Identifying and Differentiating from Other Skin Lesions
Lentigo maligna is a type of malignant melanoma in situ that is commonly found on sun-damaged skin, particularly on the face and neck. It is characterized by a pigmented lesion that is growing and has a slightly irregular border, with a diameter of over 0.6 cm. Lentigo maligna grows slowly over a period of 5 to 20 years or longer, and can be recognized using the ABCDE rule: Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving.
It is important to differentiate lentigo maligna from other skin lesions, such as melanocytic naevus, lentigo, seborrhoeic keratosis, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. Melanocytic naevus is typically flesh-colored and protruding, while lentigo is benign and has lighter pigmentation. Seborrhoeic keratosis has a warty surface and can be dark-colored, leading to concern that it may be a malignant melanoma. Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can follow any inflammatory condition, but there is no history to suggest this in the case of lentigo maligna.
It may be difficult to determine whether invasive change has occurred in lentigo maligna just from appearance, but suspicious changes include thickening of part of the lesion, more variation in color, ulceration or bleeding, or itching. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these changes occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small spots on her shoulder. She reports seeing small lesions with several tiny blood vessels emanating from the center. During the examination, you can press on them, causing them to turn white and then refill from the middle.
What is the condition associated with this type of lesion?Your Answer: Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
Correct Answer: Liver failure
Explanation:When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be found on the upper part of the body and blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are more common in childhood, with around 10-15% of people having one or more of these lesions.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge.
Spider naevi can also be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. It is important to understand the characteristics and associations of spider naevi for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 40
Correct
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You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.
He was first seen almost two weeks ago by a colleague and diagnosed with a viral upper respiratory tract infection and given simple advice. His parents have brought him back today as his fever doesn't seem to be settling and they have noticed that his eyes have become irritated and his lips are very red and have cracked.
On examination, the child has a temperature of 38.1°C and has dry fissured lips. There is an obvious widespread polymorphous skin rash present. Examination of the mouth reveals pharyngeal injection and a prominent red tongue. Significant cervical lymphadenopathy and conjunctival inflammation is noted. There is palmar erythema bilaterally and his hands and feet appear puffy with peeling of the skin of the fingers and toes.
Which of the following is a complication of this condition?Your Answer: Coronary artery aneurysms
Explanation:Kawasaki’s Disease: A Rare but Serious Condition in Children
Kawasaki’s disease (KD) is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children between 6 months to 4 years old. The exact cause of KD is unknown, but it is believed to be caused by a bacterial toxin acting as a superantigen similar to staphylococcal and streptococcal toxic shock syndromes.
The hallmark symptom of KD is a sustained fever lasting more than five days, accompanied by cervical lymphadenopathy, conjunctival infection, rash, mucous membrane signs (such as dry fissured lips, red ‘strawberry’ tongue, and pharyngeal injection), and erythematous and oedematous hands and feet with subsequent peeling of the fingers and toes.
It is crucial to make a clinical diagnosis of KD as about a third of those affected may develop coronary artery involvement, which can lead to the formation of coronary artery aneurysms. Early treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin within the first 10 days can help reduce the risk of this complication. Aspirin is also an important treatment in this condition, used to reduce the risk of thrombosis.
In conclusion, KD is a rare but serious condition that can have severe consequences if not diagnosed and treated promptly. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the symptoms and to consider KD in children presenting with a prolonged fever and other associated symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. Which of the following conditions is the least probable cause?
Your Answer: Alopecia areata
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Hypertrichosis can be caused by Porphyria cutanea tarda.
Types of Alopecia and Their Causes
Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.
Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.
It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a rash that came on about two weeks ago.
She tells you that it started with some 'itchy red lumps around the belly-button' and has progressed. She has an itchy blistering rash that is most prominent around her umbilicus, but over the last few days has spread to the surrounding trunk, back and proximal limbs.
You note a few tense, fluid-filled blisters. The rash appears slightly raised and plaque-like. Her head, face, hands and feet are spared; her mouth and mucous membranes are also unaffected. She is systemically well.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are specific dermatological conditions that should be considered when assessing a skin complaint. However, it is important to note that pregnancy doesn’t exclude the usual causes of rashes, and infectious causes must also be considered as they may pose a risk to the developing fetus.
One such condition is pemphigoid gestationis (PG), an autoimmune blistering condition that causes fluid-filled blisters on an itchy rash, typically starting around the umbilicus. Topical steroids and oral antihistamines are used for milder cases, while oral steroids may be necessary for more severe disease.
Cholestasis of pregnancy causes generalised pruritus, particularly affecting the palms and soles, and is typically seen in the latter half of pregnancy. Symptoms resolve after delivery, but recurrence occurs in up to 40% of pregnancies. Abnormal liver function tests are also seen.
Parvovirus, although uncommon in pregnancy, can cause serious fetal complications, including hydrops, growth retardation, anaemia, and hepatomegaly. It typically causes a slapped cheek rash followed by a lace-pattern rash on the limbs and trunk. Approximately 1 in 10 of those affected in the first half of pregnancy will miscarry, and in the remainder, there is a 1% risk of congenital abnormality.
Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, also known as pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP), is characterised by an itchy rash of pink papules that occurs in the stretch marks of the abdomen in the third trimester. It clears with delivery and is thought to be related to an allergy to the stretch marks.
Varicella can cause a vesicular rash, but the description of tense blisters in combination with the rash distribution and other features are typical of PG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for an urgent appointment with the duty doctor. He reports experiencing severe chest pain on the right side, along with fever and malaise for the past three days. Upon examination, there are red papules and vesicles closely grouped on the affected area. No abnormalities are noted in his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological assessments.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Prescribe a course of antibiotics and advise the patient he will likely be infections for 14 days
Correct Answer: Advise the patient that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over and prescribe a course of antivirals
Explanation:The patient should be informed that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, which usually takes 5-7 days following onset of shingles. Therefore, a course of antiviral therapy should be prescribed to reduce the risk of postherpetic neuralgia. Analgesia should also be given to alleviate severe pain. Prescribing antibiotics or emollients would not be useful in this case.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 28 year-old woman comes to you with a recent skin lesion. She is in good health but is currently 16 weeks pregnant. She reports that the lesion appeared four weeks ago and has grown quickly. Upon examination, you observe a bright red, nodular lesion that is 14mm in diameter and shows signs of recent bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Explanation:Pyogenic Granuloma: A Common Benign Skin Lesion
Pyogenic granuloma is a benign skin lesion that is relatively common. Despite its name, it is not a true granuloma nor is it pyogenic in nature. It is also known as an eruptive haemangioma. The cause of pyogenic granuloma is unknown, but it is often linked to trauma and is more common in women and young adults. The most common sites for these lesions are the head/neck, upper trunk, and hands. Lesions in the oral mucosa are common during pregnancy.
Pyogenic granulomas initially appear as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress within days to weeks, forming raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed profusely or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously postpartum, while other lesions usually persist. Removal methods include curettage and cauterisation, cryotherapy, and excision.
In summary, pyogenic granuloma is a common benign skin lesion that can be caused by trauma and is more common in women and young adults. It appears as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress into raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously, while other lesions usually persist and can be removed through various methods.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old diabetic woman comes to the clinic with a fungal infection on her left big toenail. She is bothered by the appearance of the nail when wearing sandals, as the entire nail seems to be affected.
What is the best course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Oral terbinafine
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole
Explanation:Effective Treatments for Fungal Nail Infections
According to clinical evidence, the most effective treatments for fungal nail infections are oral terbinafine and oral itraconazole. Topical treatments such as amorolfine and terbinafine have no good quality evidence to support their use, although topical ciclopirox may be effective. While various topical agents may be recommended for mild disease, oral treatment is usually required for a cure.
It is important to note that topical treatments should only be considered if less than eighty percent of the nail is involved, or there are two or less nails affected. In diabetics or those with vascular disease, fungal nail infections can be a portal for bacterial infection and subsequent cellulitis, making effective treatment crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 46
Correct
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A 48-year-old male with a history of dermatomyositis secondary to small cell lung cancer presents with roughened red papules on the extensor surfaces of his fingers. What is the medical term for these lesions?
Your Answer: Gottron's papules
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is characterized by the presence of roughened red papules, known as Gottron’s papules, on the extensor surfaces. Osteoarthritis is associated with the development of Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. Aschoff nodules are a definitive sign of rheumatic fever.
Understanding Dermatomyositis
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying malignancies. Patients with dermatomyositis may experience symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, and photosensitive skin rashes. The skin lesions may include a macular rash over the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash in the periorbital region, Gottron’s papules, and mechanic’s hands. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, and dysphonia.
To diagnose dermatomyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including screening for underlying malignancies. The majority of patients with dermatomyositis are ANA positive, and around 30% have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, such as anti-synthetase antibodies, antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
In summary, dermatomyositis is a condition that affects both the muscles and skin. It can be associated with other disorders or malignancies, and patients may experience a range of symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management are essential for improving outcomes and quality of life for those with dermatomyositis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash that started as circular lesions on his trunk and limbs and has now spread to his face, lips, and mouth. He also reports flu-like symptoms and headache. On examination, he has marked facial and lip swelling with crusty sores, blistering, and ulceration in the oral cavity, as well as an erythematous rash on the trunk with small vesicles and bullae. What medication is linked to this condition?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but known negative effect of lamotrigine treatment. This skin condition typically manifests within a few days of starting the medication and can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia. Painful erythema with blisters or ulcers is a hallmark of the syndrome, which can progress to areas of confluent erythema with skin loss. Mucosal involvement is also common, affecting the eyes, lips, mouth, oesophagus, upper respiratory tract (causing cough and respiratory distress), genitalia, and gastrointestinal tract (resulting in diarrhoea).
Other drugs, such as aspirin, macrolides, opiates, and cyclosporin, can also cause drug rashes. Exanthematous eruptions are a common type of drug rash, characterised by pink-to-red macules that blanch on pressure.
Urticaria and erythema multiforme are other types of drug-related rashes. Aspirin and anticonvulsants are associated with erythema multiforme, which typically presents as spot or target lesions and doesn’t involve mucosal tissues.
Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.
Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with eczema comes in with a bumpy, gooseflesh-like texture on her upper arms. She denies any itching or redness. What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Reassure
Correct Answer: Routine bloods
Explanation:Understanding Keratosis Pilaris
Keratosis pilaris is a prevalent skin condition that is characterised by small bumps on the skin. These bumps are caused by the buildup of keratin in the hair follicles, resulting in a rough, bumpy texture. While the condition can resolve on its own over time, there is no specific treatment that has been proven to be effective.
It is important to note that referral, blood tests, and topical antibacterials are not recommended for the treatment of keratosis pilaris. Instead, individuals with this condition may benefit from taking tepid showers instead of hot baths. This can help to prevent further irritation of the skin. With proper care and attention, individuals with keratosis pilaris can manage their symptoms and enjoy healthy, smooth skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, presents with a pruritic rash. She is currently pregnant with twins at 32/40 gestation and this is her first pregnancy. The rash initially appeared on her abdomen and has predominantly affected her stretch marks. Upon examination, she displays urticarial papules with some plaques concentrated on the abdomen, while the umbilical area remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Obstetric cholestasis
Correct Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Explanation:The cause of itch during pregnancy can be identified by observing the timing of symptoms and the appearance of the rash. Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy is a common condition that usually occurs in the third trimester and is more likely to affect first-time pregnant women with excessive weight gain or multiple pregnancies. The rash is characterized by itchy urticarial papules that merge into plaques and typically starts on the abdomen, particularly on the striae, but not on the umbilicus region. The rash may remain localized, spread to the buttocks and thighs, or become widespread and generalized. It may later progress to non-urticated erythema, eczematous lesions, and vesicles, but not bullae.
Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy
During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common skin disorder found in pregnancy is atopic eruption, which presents as an itchy red rash. However, no specific treatment is needed for this condition. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption, which is a pruritic condition associated with the last trimester. Lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on severity. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that presents as pruritic blistering lesions. It often develops in the peri-umbilical region, later spreading to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This disorder usually presents in the second or third trimester and is rarely seen in the first pregnancy. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly develops a painful red rash on her trunk that spreads to her face and limbs. The rash consists of macules, some of which resemble target lesions, and numerous flaccid bullae. Skin erosion is present in areas where the bullae have ruptured. She has conjunctivitis, crusted red lips, mouth ulcers, and dysuria. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus
Correct Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Serious Skin Reaction
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious skin reaction that can be fatal. It is considered to be part of a disease spectrum that includes erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, some experts believe that erythema multiforme should not be classified as part of the same spectrum as it is associated with infections while SJS and TEN are reactions to certain drugs.
The most common drugs implicated in SJS are sulphonamides, but other medications such as penicillins, antifungals, and anticonvulsants can also cause the reaction. Less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in SJS, compared to over 30% in TEN.
Management involves stopping the suspected causative drugs as soon as possible and immediate admission to an intensive care or burns unit. The prognosis is better if the drugs are stopped within 24 hours of bullae appearing.
Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome is a differential diagnosis that can be mistaken for SJS. It is caused by a bacterial infection and tends to occur in young children.
Herpes simplex virus can cause erythema multiforme, but this rash is not the same as SJS. Shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is another condition with a painful blistering rash that is confined to a dermatome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a severely itchy rash that has been present for the past 3 weeks. She had been prescribed quinine for night cramps prior to the onset of the rash. The rash initially appeared on her wrists but has since spread to her left leg after she accidentally hit it.
During the examination, you observe raised erythematous/violaceous plaques of varying shapes and sizes on the flexor side of her wrists and left leg near the site of injury.
Which of the following treatment options would be the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer: Calcipotriol/betamethasone dipropionate ointment
Correct Answer: 0.1% betamethasone valerate cream
Explanation:Betamethasone valerate cream may not be the most suitable option as it is a lower potency steroid cream.
While calcipotriol/betamethasone dipropionate ointment is commonly used to treat psoriasis, it may not be the most likely diagnosis in this case as psoriasis typically affects the extensor surfaces and doesn’t usually cause severe itching.
Although fexofenadine can provide relief for itching, it is not typically the first choice of treatment.
Permethrin is not used to treat lichen planus, as it is primarily used to treat scabies.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a three week history of painful, red, raised lesions on the front of her shins. A chest x ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. She also reports experiencing polyarthralgia and a slight dry cough.
What is the association with her presentation?Your Answer: Raised serum angiotensin converting enzyme levels
Correct Answer: Use of the combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Understanding Sarcoidosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous disease that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in Afro-Caribbean patients and typically affects adults aged 20-40. The disease can present with erythema nodosum (EN), polyarthralgia, and a slight dry cough. A chest x-ray is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which is characterized by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL).
Acute sarcoidosis can resolve spontaneously, but in some cases, the disease becomes chronic and progressive. Blood investigations may show raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), lymphopenia, elevated serum ACE, and elevated calcium. Hypercalciuria is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.
It is important to differentiate sarcoidosis from lymphoma, which can also cause BHL. Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with EBV, while sarcoidosis is not associated with HLA-B27. Hypercalcaemia, rather than hypocalcaemia, is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.
The combined oral contraceptive is known to be associated with developing EN, but it would not cause the other symptoms and signs. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the disease from becoming chronic and progressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from the list the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of discoid eczema rather than psoriasis.
Your Answer: Thick scale
Correct Answer: Marked pruritus
Explanation:Comparison of Discoid Eczema and Psoriasis
Discoid eczema is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped plaques that are well-defined and often occur on the extremities, especially the legs. Lesions may also appear on the arms, trunk, hands, or feet, but not on the face or scalp. The plaques are intensely itchy and may clear in the center, resembling tinea corporis. An exudative form of the condition also exists, which is vesiculated.
On the other hand, psoriasis is a skin condition that often affects the extensor surfaces, particularly at the elbows and knees. The scalp is also commonly involved. The scale is thick and silvery, and there may be nail changes, such as pitting. Itching may occur, but it is less severe than in discoid eczema.
In summary, while both conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as itching and skin lesions, they have distinct differences in terms of their location, appearance, and severity of itching. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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As a teacher, you are educating a parent on the application of topical steroids for their adolescent with atopic eczema. The parent has come across the concept of fingertip Units (FTU) for measuring the amount of steroid to use. Can you explain what 1 FTU represents?
Your Answer: Sufficient to treat a skin area about that of the flat of an adult hand
Correct Answer: Sufficient to treat a skin area about twice that of the flat of an adult hand
Explanation:The measurement for steroids using the fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to twice the area of an adult hand’s flat surface.
Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment
Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.
To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.
The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.
In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents with tender, erythematous nodules over her thighs. Blood tests reveal:
Calcium 2.78 mmol/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lupus pernio
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum
Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body, such as the forearms and thighs. Fortunately, erythema nodosum usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.
There are several potential causes of erythema nodosum. Infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis can trigger the condition. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s syndrome may also be responsible. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be linked to malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs, including penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also cause erythema nodosum.
Overall, understanding the potential causes of erythema nodosum can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment. While the condition can be uncomfortable, it typically resolves on its own within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has severe athlete's foot. His toenail is also infected. He is taking griseofulvin. He tells you that he has read something about fathering children when taking this drug.
Which of the following is correct?Your Answer: Griseofulvin may render him sterile
Correct Answer: He should not father a child within six months of finishing griseofulvin
Explanation:Medications to Avoid for Prospective Fathers
When prescribing medication, it is crucial to consider the potential effects on both men and women who may be trying to conceive. While women are often advised to avoid certain drugs during pregnancy, it is easy to overlook the impact on prospective fathers. For instance, men taking griseofulvin should not father a child during treatment and for six months afterward.
It is important to be aware of other medications that may present problems for men who are trying to conceive. While not an exhaustive list, some examples include chemotherapy drugs, certain antibiotics, and medications for autoimmune disorders. It is essential to discuss these risks with male patients and encourage them to inform their healthcare provider if they are trying to conceive. By taking these precautions, we can help ensure the health and well-being of both parents and their future children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 57
Correct
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on his genitals and palms. He has also observed the rash around the area of a recent scar on his forearm. Upon examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash. During the examination, the doctor observes multiple distinct purple papules on the patient's forearms. The papules have thin white lines visible on them. The patient reports that the lesions are extremely itchy but not painful and wants to know if there is any treatment available to alleviate the symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Topical retinoids
Correct Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:The first-line treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids.
This statement accurately reflects the recommended treatment for lichen planus, which is a rash characterized by itchy purple polygonal papules with white lines known as Wickham’s striae. While the condition can persist for up to 18 months, topical steroids are typically effective in relieving symptoms. Oral steroids may be necessary in severe cases, but are not typically used as a first-line treatment. No treatment is not recommended, as the symptoms can be distressing for patients. Topical retinoids are not indicated for lichen planus, as they are used for acne vulgaris.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man with psoriasis is seeking a review of his skin and topical treatments. He has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed warfarin. Which of the following topical treatments, as per the British National Formulary, is most likely to interfere with his anticoagulation and should be excluded?
Your Answer: Hydromol (isopropyl myritate and liquid paraffin light)
Correct Answer: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate)
Explanation:Resources for Further Reading on Miconazole and Warfarin Interaction
The following links offer valuable resources for those seeking more information on the interaction between miconazole and warfarin. It is important to note that even non-oral preparations of miconazole can greatly affect the International Normalized Ratio (INR) in individuals taking warfarin. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these medications together. To learn more about this topic, please refer to the following resources.
– Link 1: [insert link]
– Link 2: [insert link]
– Link 3: [insert link] -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with some yellowish-brown tender oval patches that have developed slowly on her shins over the past few months. The patches are shiny, pale and atrophic with telangiectasia.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum: A rare skin condition that is more prevalent in diabetic patients. It is characterized by the development of yellowish-brown patches that slowly grow over several months. The center of the patch becomes pale and thin with telangiectasia. Lesions can occur on various parts of the body, but the most common site is pretibial. Trauma can cause ulceration, and no treatment has proven to be completely effective.
Lichen Sclerosus: Usually found in the anogenital area of women and on the prepuce, glans, and coronal sulcus in men. Patches are white and thickened or crinkled like cigarette paper.
Erythema Nodosum: Presents as red, tender nodules on the anterior aspect of the lower leg. The nodules last for 3-6 weeks.
Granuloma Annulare: Typically found on the dorsa of the hands or feet, but can be more widespread. The disseminated form is characterized by skin-colored, pink, or mauve non-scaly papules arranged in rings 10 cm or more in diameter.
Venous Eczema: Itchy erythematous scaly or crusted patches on the lower legs. The patches may be confluent and circumferential, and there may be pigmentary changes due to haemosiderin deposition.
Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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You assess a 26-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with chronic plaque psoriasis. He has responded positively to a 4-week course of a potent corticosteroid + vitamin D analogue topical treatment. The patient inquires if he can obtain more of the medication in case of future flare-ups. What is the most suitable answer regarding the use of topical corticosteroids?
Your Answer: He can use topical corticosteroids indefinitely as long as less than 10% of the body area is affected
Correct Answer: He should aim for a 4 week break in between courses of topical corticosteroids
Explanation:It is recommended to have a 4 week interval between courses of topical corticosteroids for patients with psoriasis.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of bullae on her forearms after returning from a trip to Spain. She also reports that her hands have delicate skin that tears easily. The patient has a history of hypertrichosis and has previously been referred to a dermatologist. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epidermolysis bullosa
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Understanding Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
Porphyria cutanea tarda is a type of hepatic porphyria that is commonly inherited due to a defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. However, it can also be caused by liver damage from factors such as alcohol, hepatitis C, or estrogen. The condition is characterized by a rash that is sensitive to sunlight, with blistering and skin fragility on the face and hands being the most common features. Other symptoms include hypertrichosis and hyperpigmentation.
To diagnose porphyria cutanea tarda, doctors typically look for elevated levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine, as well as pink fluorescence under a Wood’s lamp. Additionally, serum iron ferritin levels are used to guide therapy.
Treatment for porphyria cutanea tarda typically involves the use of chloroquine or venesection. Venesection is preferred if the iron ferritin level is above 600 ng/ml. With proper management, individuals with porphyria cutanea tarda can lead normal lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has appeared over the past few weeks in both axillae. The rash is itchy but not painful, and Sophie is otherwise healthy.
During the examination, you observe a lesion in both axillae that appears slightly red and glazed. Upon further examination, you discover another smaller lesion at the gluteal cleft. There are no joint abnormalities or nail changes.
Based on your observations, you suspect that Sophie has flexural psoriasis. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Refer to a dermatologist
Correct Answer: Commence a moderately potent topical steroid for 2 weeks
Explanation:Flexural psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes itchy lesions in areas such as the groin, genital area, axillae, and other folds of the body. In this case, the erythema is mild and the lesions are not extensive, indicating a mild case of flexural psoriasis. According to NICE guidelines, a short-term application of a mild- or moderately-potent topical corticosteroid preparation (once or twice daily) for up to two weeks is recommended. Therefore, starting a potent topical steroid or using a mildly potent topical steroid for four weeks is not appropriate.
To reduce scale and relieve itch, an emollient can be used. However, vitamin D analogues are not prescribed for flexural psoriasis in primary care. After four weeks, the patient should be reviewed. If there is a good initial response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids can be used to maintain disease control.
If treatment fails or the psoriasis is at least moderately severe, referral to a dermatologist should be arranged.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
Which of the following statements about treatment of verrucas is correct?Your Answer: Glutaraldehyde causes a white discoloration of the skin
Correct Answer: Untreated verrucas often resolve spontaneously
Explanation:Effective Treatments for Plantar Warts: A Guide
Plantar warts, also known as verrucas, are notoriously difficult to treat due to their thick cornified layer. This layer makes it harder for treatments to penetrate to the lower epidermis, resulting in lower cure rates compared to other skin warts. However, there are several effective treatments available.
First-line treatment for plantar warts is over-the-counter salicylic acid. While this treatment can turn the affected area white and cause soreness, it is often effective. Paring the wart before treatment may also help. Glutaraldehyde is another effective option, but it may turn the skin brown and cause sensitization.
Cryotherapy is a second-line treatment that involves freezing the wart with liquid nitrogen. However, multiple cycles may be needed for it to be effective. Reported cure rates vary widely.
For more aggressive treatment, salicylic acid and/or cryotherapy can be used with more intensive regimens. However, caution is needed as these treatments can have worse side effects.
Surgery and bleomycin are not typically used for plantar warts. Instead, the British Association of Dermatologists recommends several other treatments with some evidence base, including dithranol, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), formaldehyde, laser, photodynamic therapy, topical immunotherapy, and podophyllotoxin.
In conclusion, while plantar warts can be challenging to treat, there are several effective options available. Consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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You diagnosed a 12-year-old patient with scabies recently. She reports finishing the treatment course of permethrin 5% cream 1 week ago but is still itching. She has not noticed new burrows. On further questioning, she appears to have followed the full two-week course as prescribed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: No intervention, watchful waiting
Correct Answer: Oral ivermectin 20 mg
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies
The itch of scabies can persist for up to 4 weeks after treatment. If no new burrows appear, monitoring the symptoms is reasonable. Malathion aqueous 0.5% is an alternative treatment for patients who cannot use permethrin or if the permethrin treatment fails. Oral ivermectin is a potential option for crusted scabies that doesn’t respond to topical treatment alone. It is important to note that there is no need to repeat permethrin treatment in this case, and there is no 10% formulation available. Remember to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate?
Your Answer: Thickened, rough, opaque nails are typical
Correct Answer: Treatment is successful in around 90-95% of people
Explanation:Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a painful rash on his lower back that has been bothering him for the past 7 days. He had visited the doctor 4 days ago and was prescribed aciclovir for shingles, but the pain persists despite taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, codeine, and amitriptyline. The pain is described as a severe burning sensation with a mild itch, which is affecting his daily functioning and sleep.
During the examination, the man's temperature is recorded at 37ºC. The rash is located on the left lower back and is characterized by closely grouped red papules and vesicles with surrounding erythema.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this man's condition?Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:If simple analgesia and neuropathic analgesia are not effective in treating refractory pain in shingles, corticosteroids such as prednisolone can be used, but only for acute shingles. This is according to the NICE CKS guideline, which recommends considering oral corticosteroids in the first 2 weeks following rash onset in immunocompetent adults with localized shingles if the pain is severe, but only in combination with antiviral treatment. In the case of a patient who has been on antiviral treatment for seven days and has tried several analgesics without relief, a course of prednisolone would be an appropriate treatment option. Chlorphenamine, an antihistamine medication, may help alleviate itching symptoms but is not the most appropriate treatment option for severe pain. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic, is not necessary unless there is evidence of co-existing cellulitis. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has no role in shingles management. Morphine, an opioid medication, may be considered if the pain doesn’t respond to corticosteroids.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least commonly associated with acanthosis nigricans?
Your Answer: Acromegaly
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.
The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During a thorough skin examination, a darkly pigmented macule is observed on the palmar side of his left index finger. The lesion measures approximately 4 mm in size and displays poorly defined, irregular borders with an irregular pigment network on dermoscopy. No other pigmented lesions are detected on the patient. He has never noticed it before and is uncertain if it is evolving.
What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer: Congenital naevus
Correct Answer: Acral lentiginous melanoma
Explanation:The patient’s atypical lesion, with three of the five following characteristics, suggests a diagnosis of melanoma. The most common subtype in this patient population is acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur in areas not exposed to the sun, such as the soles of the feet and palms.
It is unlikely that the lesion is an acquired or congenital naevus. New-onset pigmented lesions in patients over 50 should always be referred to a dermatologist for assessment. Congenital naevi are present at birth and the patient would have a long history with them.
Nodular melanoma is less likely in this case, as it typically presents as dark papules on sun-exposed areas of skin in the Caucasian population.
While superficial spreading melanoma is a possibility, a dark-skinned patient with a lesion on the palmar hand or soles of the feet is more likely to have acral lentiginous melanoma.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient with psoriasis presents with thick adherent scale on their torso.
You decide to treat with topical therapy.
Which of the following formulations would be most appropriate for treating this?Your Answer: Cream
Correct Answer: Ointment
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Topical Treatment in Psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects millions of people worldwide. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on topical treatment for psoriasis. These guidelines take into account the patient’s preference and recommend the following:
– For widespread psoriasis, use cream, lotion, or gel.
– For scalp or hair-bearing areas, use a solution, lotion, or gel.
– For thick adherent scale, use an ointment.It is important to note that these recommendations are not set in stone and may vary depending on the severity of the condition and the patient’s individual needs. Therefore, it is essential to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any treatment. By following these guidelines, patients can effectively manage their psoriasis symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a 6-week history of an itchy rash. The rash appeared on the medial and anterior aspects of the thigh and the trunk. It consisted of numerous small fluid-filled vesicles and a number of larger lesions measuring 2-3 cm, filled with serous fluid. Many of the lesions have burst, leaving erosions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Vesicular insect bite eruption
Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation:Common Blistering Skin Conditions: Causes and Symptoms
Blisters on the skin can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique symptoms. Here are some common blistering skin conditions and their characteristics:
1. Bullous pemphigoid: This autoimmune disorder results in blisters that are tense and do not rupture easily. They are usually symmetrical and appear on the trunk and limbs, with the mouth being affected in some cases.
2. Dermatitis herpetiformis: This condition causes intensely itchy vesicles on the elbows, knees, and buttocks. It is associated with gluten intolerance and coeliac disease, and can be controlled by excluding gluten from the diet.
3. Bullous impetigo: This superficial infection is caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus spp. and results in a golden-crusted eruption on a red base. Occasionally, a toxin produced by the organism can cause a blister.
4. Scabies: This condition causes itchy papules and burrows of the scabies mite on the finger webs, elbows, ankles, axillae, and genitalia. In rare cases, it can cause blistering. Norwegian (crusted) scabies is a severe form that occurs in immunosuppressed individuals.
5. Vesicular insect bite eruption: Insect bites can occasionally result in tense blisters on a wheal at the site of the bite. They are usually short-lived and accompanied by itching.
If you experience blistering skin, it is important to seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with a large scaly erythematous eruption on the left side of his chest with a few smaller patches nearby. He believes it started about a year ago. The edge of the lesion looks a bit more inflamed than the central parts. It is itchy. Your colleague gave him topical steroids, and he thinks there may have been some improvement, but it never went away and worsened on stopping the treatment.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Tinea corporis
Explanation:Understanding Different Epidermal Conditions: Distinguishing Features and Diagnosis
When it comes to epidermal conditions, eczema and psoriasis are often the first to come to mind. However, there are other conditions that produce scale and have distinct features that set them apart. One such condition is ringworm, which is characterized by asymmetrical lesions with an active scaly edge and central clearing. To diagnose ringworm, skin scrapings should be taken and sent for fungal analysis, as it is often caused by the dermatophyte Trichophyton rubrum.
It is important to note that treating a potential tinea infection with potent steroids can alter the appearance of the lesion and even produce pustules. Therefore, it is crucial to have a negative skin scraping before using strong steroids. Additionally, tinea infections may also be present on the feet with nail involvement.
Other epidermal conditions, such as pityriasis rosea and pityriasis versicolor, have their own distinct features. Pityriasis rosea begins with a herald patch followed by smaller oval red scaly patches mainly on the chest and back. Pityriasis versicolor, on the other hand, affects the trunk, neck, and/or arms and is caused by a yeast infection rather than a dermatophyte infection.
In summary, understanding the distinguishing features and proper diagnosis of different epidermal conditions is crucial in providing effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on her shins. Upon examination, there are multiple tender nodules that appear purple in color. She has no significant medical history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Insect bites
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Erythema Nodosum, Insect Bites, Discoid Eczema, Erysipelas, and Post-Traumatic Ecchymoses
Erythema nodosum is a painful skin condition characterized by tender, red nodules caused by inflammation of subcutaneous fat. It is more common in women aged 25-40 and can be associated with underlying conditions or occur in isolation.
Insect bites from non-venomous insects like mosquitoes, fleas, lice, and bed bugs can result in itchy papules or blisters grouped in the exposed body site. Bites often appear in clusters.
Discoid eczema is a type of eczema with unknown causes. It is characterized by round-to-oval, itchy, red, scaly plaques that may contain vesicles with serous exudate.
Erysipelas is a tender, red, indurated plaque with a well-defined border caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.
Post-traumatic ecchymosis or bruises are large blood extravasations under the skin that may be caused by coagulation or vascular disorders. However, there is no history of trauma to support this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She has observed a well-defined, lobulated, and bright red lesion appearing on his left cheek. The lesion was not present at birth but has now grown to 6 mm in diameter. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Topical hydrocortisone + regular emollient
Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress
Explanation:If the strawberry naevus on this baby is not causing any mechanical issues or bleeding, treatment is typically unnecessary.
Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.
Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 75
Correct
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A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal illness and a sore throat last week, which has now improved. The rash has spread extensively, but it is not itchy. On examination, you observe erythematous 'tear drop' shape, scaly plaques covering his whole torso and upper legs. You estimate that guttate psoriasis covers 25 percent of the patient's total body surface area. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this case?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology for phototherapy
Explanation:Referral is the most appropriate option if the psoriatic lesions are widespread and affecting a large area of the patient’s body. However, if the lesions are not widespread, reassurance may be a reasonable management option as they may self-resolve in 3-4 months. In cases where the psoriatic lesions are not widespread, treatment similar to that used for trunk and limb psoriasis can be applied, including the use of topical steroids, emollients, and vitamin D analogues.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and toes, along with scaling of the skin between her toes. Despite completing a 4-week course of topical imidazole, her symptoms have not improved since her initial presentation 4 weeks ago, which confirmed athlete's foot through a positive culture of skin scrapings. What is the recommended treatment at this point?
Your Answer: Prescribe a course of topical flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Prescribe a course of oral terbinafine
Explanation:If the initial topical treatment for athlete’s foot is unsuccessful, it is recommended to use oral antifungal treatment. Continuing with topical treatment is not the best approach, and referring the patient to a dermatologist is another option. Topical corticosteroids should only be used in cases of severe inflammation and irritation to alleviate symptoms. Flucloxacillin, being an antibiotic, is not appropriate for this condition.
Understanding Athlete’s Foot
Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.
To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on her face.
Which of the following factors is most important in determining her prognosis?
Your Answer: Colour of the lesion
Correct Answer: Thickness of the lesion
Explanation:Understanding Lentigo Maligna: Early Stage Melanoma
Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma that is in its early stages and is confined to the epidermis. It is often referred to as ‘in situ’ melanoma. This type of melanoma typically appears as a flat, slowly growing, freckle-like lesion on the facial or sun-exposed skin of patients in their 60s or older. Over time, it can extend to several centimetres and eventually change into an invasive malignant melanoma.
To identify lentigo maligna, the ABCDE rule can be used. This rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving. If there is a change in size, outline, colour, surface, contour, or elevation of the lesion, malignant change should be suspected. Lentigo maligna spreads via the lymphatics, and satellite lesions are commonly seen.
The prognosis of lentigo maligna is directly related to the thickness of the tumour assessed at histological examination. The thickness is measured using the Breslow thickness or Clark level of invasion. The site of the lesion also affects the prognosis. Patients with lesions on the trunk fare better than those with facial lesions but worse than those with lesions on the limbs.
In conclusion, understanding lentigo maligna is crucial in identifying and treating early-stage melanoma. Regular skin checks and following the ABCDE rule can help detect any changes in the skin and prevent the progression of lentigo maligna into invasive malignant melanoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 78
Correct
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A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on her upper limbs that have been getting larger since she first noticed them 3 weeks ago. You suspect vitiligo and want to start medication while she waits for her dermatology appointment. Which of the following medications should you consider?
Your Answer: Potent topical corticosteroids
Explanation:In the early stages of vitiligo, the use of potent topical corticosteroids may be beneficial in reversing the changes. However, it is important to note that medications such as topical tacrolimus or oral steroids should only be prescribed by a dermatologist. Oral tacrolimus and topical miconazole are not effective in managing vitiligo, unless a fungal infection is suspected.
Understanding Vitiligo
Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has vulval lichen sclerosus. You are asked by the gynaecologist to prescribe a very potent topical corticosteroid for her.
Select from the list the single suitable preparation.Your Answer: Clobetasone butyrate 0.05% (Eumovate®)
Correct Answer: Clobetasol propionate 0.05% (Dermovate®)
Explanation:Treatment of Lichen Sclerosus with Topical Corticosteroids
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the genital and anal areas. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of topical corticosteroids. The potency of the corticosteroid used is determined by the formulation and the type of corticosteroid. Mild, moderate, potent, and very potent corticosteroids are available for use.
The most effective treatment for lichen sclerosus is the very potent topical corticosteroid clobetasol propionate. The recommended regimen for a newly diagnosed case is to apply clobetasol propionate once a night for 4 weeks, then on alternate nights for 4 weeks, and finally twice weekly for the third month. If symptoms return during the reduction of treatment, the frequency that was effective should be resumed.
Other topical corticosteroids such as mometasone furoate and pimecrolimus have also been shown to be effective in treating genital lichen sclerosus. However, clobetasol propionate has been demonstrated to be more effective than pimecrolimus.
It is important to note that while treatment with topical corticosteroids can resolve hyperkeratosis, ecchymoses, fissuring, and erosions, atrophy and color change may remain. Maintenance with less frequent use of a very potent corticosteroid or a weaker steroid may be necessary.
Topical Corticosteroids for Lichen Sclerosus Treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 5-year-old girl who has been brought to your clinic by her father. He reports that she developed a rash with small spots on her upper lip 3 days ago. The spots have now burst and formed a yellowish crust. Sophie has no medical history and no known allergies.
During the examination, Sophie appears to be in good health. She has a red rash on the left side of her upper lip with a few visible blisters and an area of yellow crust. There are no other affected areas.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Advise good hygiene measures to aid healing
Correct Answer: Prescribe hydrogen peroxide cream
Explanation:If fusidic acid resistance is suspected or confirmed, mupirocin is the appropriate treatment for impetigo. Advising the person and their carers about good hygiene measures is important to aid healing and reduce the spread of impetigo, but it is not a treatment for the condition itself. Oral flucloxacillin is typically used for widespread non-bullous impetigo or in cases of bullous impetigo, systemic illness, or high risk of complications, none of which apply to Timothy’s localized impetigo.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.
The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.
Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.
Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient is seeking your guidance on vulval itching.
What is the primary reason behind pruritus vulvae?Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Correct Answer: Contact dermatitis
Explanation:Contact dermatitis is the leading reason for pruritus vulvae, which can be attributed to a delayed allergic reaction to substances such as medication, contraceptive creams/gel, and latex, or an irritant reaction to chemical or physical triggers like humidity, detergents, solvents, or friction/scratching.
Pruritus vulvae, or vaginal itching, is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 10 women who may seek medical assistance at some point. Unlike pruritus ani, pruritus vulvae typically has an underlying cause. The most common cause is irritant contact dermatitis, which can be triggered by latex condoms or lubricants. Other potential causes include atopic dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and psoriasis, which is seen in around one-third of patients with psoriasis.
To manage pruritus vulvae, women should be advised to take showers instead of baths and clean the vulval area with an emollient such as Epaderm or Diprobase. It is recommended to clean only once a day as repeated cleaning can worsen the symptoms. Most of the underlying conditions can be treated with topical steroids. If seborrhoeic dermatitis is suspected, a combined steroid-antifungal treatment may be attempted. Overall, seeking medical advice is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment of pruritus vulvae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of her left great toe for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seeking treatment as it is causing her significant embarrassment. Upon examination, there is a yellowish discoloration on the medial left great toe with nail thickening and mild onycholysis.
What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Start topical corticosteroid
Correct Answer: Take nail sample for laboratory testing
Explanation:Before prescribing any treatment, laboratory testing should confirm the presence of a fungal nail infection. Although it is likely that the patient’s symptoms are due to onychomycosis, other conditions such as psoriasis should be ruled out. Oral terbinafine would be a suitable treatment option if the test confirms a fungal infection. However, topical antifungal treatments are generally not ideal for nail infections. A topical corticosteroid is not appropriate for treating a fungal nail infection, but may be considered if the test reveals no fungal involvement and there are signs of an inflammatory dermatosis like psoriasis. While taking a nail sample is necessary, antifungal treatment should not be initiated until the fungal cause is confirmed. This is because different nail conditions can have similar appearances, and starting treatment without confirmation would not be beneficial.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A teenager presents with rash which clinically looks like Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP).
Which statement is true?Your Answer: The platelet count is decreased
Correct Answer: The condition normally lasts six months
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: Symptoms and Duration
Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) is a condition characterized by a rash on the back and thighs that is palpable and non-blanching, but is a non-thrombocytopenic purpura. Children with HSP may experience abdominal pain and bloody stools, which are cardinal symptoms of the disease. The kidneys are also often involved, and patients may have frank haematuria. The disease typically lasts about four weeks and resolves spontaneously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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In what year was the shingles vaccination added to the routine immunisation schedule, and at what age is it typically administered?
Your Answer: Age 80
Correct Answer: Age 70
Explanation:The recommended age for receiving the shingles vaccine is 70, with only one dose required. Shingles is more prevalent and can have severe consequences for individuals over the age of 70, with a mortality rate of 1 in 1000.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man who is a recent immigrant from Tanzania complains about an ulcer on his penis. This is painless and has been present for some months, but is slowly enlarging. On examination he has an ulcer at the base of his glans and an offensive exudate. He also has bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Select the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Cutaneous tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Penile cancer
Explanation:Penile Cancer, Chancroid, and Syphilis: A Comparison
Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but is more commonly seen in patients from Asia and Africa. It is often associated with poor hygiene and herpes infections, and can cause difficulty in retracting the foreskin. The 5-year survival rate with lymph-node involvement is around 50%.
Chancroid, on the other hand, is characterized by a painful ulcer. Lymphadenitis is also painful, and may progress to a suppurative bubo. Multiple ulcers may be present.
In syphilis, the primary chancre typically heals within 4-8 weeks, with or without treatment.
While these conditions may have some similarities, they are distinct and require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have any of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 86
Correct
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A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on his forearms for the past 2 weeks. Loratadine has provided some relief for the itch, and occasionally the rash disappears within a few hours. However, in the last day, the rash has spread to his back and loratadine is no longer effective. The patient has no known allergies or triggers and is feeling well otherwise. What should be the next course of action for management?
Your Answer: Trial of an oral corticosteroid
Explanation:It is likely that the patient is experiencing a severe urticarial rash, which is a common condition that doesn’t require a dermatology appointment or further investigations at this stage. The patient is stable and not showing signs of anaphylaxis. To investigate further, a symptom diary would be sufficient, especially with exposure to different work environments as an archaeologist. The first-line treatment would be a non-sedating antihistamine such as loratadine or cetirizine. However, if the urticaria is severe, as in this case, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary.
Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue, and skin changes under his arms. During the examination, you notice thickened dark pigmented areas of skin under both arms. What underlying condition is typically linked to this clinical sign?
Your Answer: Lung cancer
Correct Answer: Carcinoma stomach
Explanation:Understanding Acanthosis Nigricans
Acanthosis nigricans (AN) is a skin condition that is characterized by darkening and thickening of the skin in certain areas such as the armpits, groin, and back of the neck. However, it is not a skin disease in itself but rather a sign of an underlying condition or disease. In some cases, AN can be a paraneoplastic syndrome, commonly known as acanthosis nigricans maligna, which is associated with an internal malignancy, particularly adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract or uterus. AN is more commonly seen in individuals over the age of 40 and is often linked to obesity and insulin resistance.
It is important to note that AN of the oral mucosa or tongue is highly suggestive of a neoplasm, particularly of the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health concerns and is not taking any regular medications. During the consultation, he requests a brief examination of his toenail, which has recently changed in appearance without any known cause. Specifically, the nail on his right big toe is thickened and yellowed at the outer edge. Although he experiences no discomfort or other symptoms, he is curious about the cause of this change.
What initial management approach would you recommend in this scenario?Your Answer: Swab skin for microscopy and culture
Correct Answer: No treatment necessary if he is happy to leave it; give self-care advice
Explanation:If a patient has a fungal nail infection that is asymptomatic and doesn’t bother them in terms of appearance, treatment may not be necessary according to NICE CKS guidelines. However, if treatment is desired, topical antifungal treatment for 9-12 months may be appropriate for minor involvement of a single nail. Liver function tests should be checked before prescribing oral antifungal medication such as terbinafine. Self-care advice can be given to the patient, including keeping feet clean and dry, wearing breathable socks and footwear, and avoiding going barefoot in changing rooms. Referral to podiatry is not necessary unless the patient is unable to perform their own foot-care. Swabbing the skin for microscopy and culture may not be useful in cases where the skin is not involved.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 89
Correct
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Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring any treatment?
Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Granuloma Annulare and Actinic Keratoses
Granuloma annulare is a common skin condition that is characterized by palpable annular lesions that can appear anywhere on the body. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it is rarely associated with diabetes. In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the lesions will resolve on their own within a year.
On the other hand, actinic keratoses are rough, scaly lesions that develop on sun-damaged skin. These lesions can also be a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. Treatment options for actinic keratoses include cryotherapy, topical 5-fluorouracil (Efudix), topical diclofenac (Solaraze), excision, and curettage. While spontaneous regression of actinic keratoses is possible, it is not common.
In summary, both granuloma annulare and actinic keratoses are skin conditions that require different approaches to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her hairline and nasolabial folds. She hasn't attempted any treatments yet, aside from using emollients. What is the best choice for topical management?
Your Answer: Tacrolimus ointment
Correct Answer: Clobetasone butyrate (Eumovate ®)
Explanation:Topical Treatments for Facial Psoriasis
When it comes to treating facial psoriasis, it’s important to use the right topical treatments to avoid skin irritation and adverse effects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a mild or moderately potent steroid for two weeks, along with emollients. Calcipotriol can be used intermittently if topical corticosteroids aren’t effective enough. However, betamethasone, a potent steroid, should not be used on the face. Coal-tar solution is also not recommended for facial psoriasis. Tacrolimus ointment can be used intermittently if other treatments aren’t working. By using the appropriate topical treatments, patients can manage their facial psoriasis effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 91
Correct
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A 15-year-old male with a history of asthma is brought in by his worried father due to the sudden appearance of a rash on his leg. The patient reports no new product usage or trauma. His father also expresses concerns about his recent lack of motivation in school.
Upon examination, there are distinct linear lesions forming geometric shapes on the left lower leg and dorsal aspect of the foot. The patient appears healthy, and there are no other notable findings.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of well-defined skin lesions in a linear pattern, accompanied by a lack of concern or emotional response, is indicative of dermatitis artefacta. This condition is often associated with self-inflicted injuries that stem from underlying psychological issues, such as deliberate self-harm or attention-seeking behavior. The lesions are typically geometric in shape and appear in easily accessible areas, such as the limbs or face. Patients with dermatitis artefacta may deny causing the lesions themselves. The patient’s declining grades may be linked to psychological difficulties that have led to this form of self-harm.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she appears to be in good health.
What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?Your Answer: CT venogram
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports a history of abscess in the other axillae which required incision and drainage, and now wants to prevent it from happening again. She also complains of frequently having spots and pustules in the groin area. Upon examination of the affected axillae, there is a small inflamed pustule, along with a few other nodules and scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rosacea
Correct Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa
Explanation:Hidradenitis suppurativa is a skin disorder that is chronic, painful, and inflammatory. It is characterized by the presence of nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in areas where skin folds overlap, such as the armpits, groin, and inner thighs.
This condition is more common in women, smokers, and individuals with a higher body mass index. Over time, the lesions can lead to the development of scars and sinus tracts.
Acanthosis nigricans, on the other hand, is a skin condition characterized by thickening and discoloration of the skin in skin folds. It is often a sign of an underlying disease such as diabetes or malignancy.
Acne vulgaris is another skin condition that can present with papules and pustules, but it typically affects the face, upper back, and chest rather than the areas affected by hidradenitis suppurativa.
Rosacea is a skin condition that causes redness and inflammatory papules on the face, particularly on the cheeks and nose.
Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa
Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.
The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.
Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.
HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.
Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes to your clinic with her mother, complaining of persistent dandruff. Her mother also mentions noticing a small area of hair loss at the back of her head. Upon examination, you observe widespread scaling on the scalp and inflamed skin beneath the patch of hair loss. What steps do you take next?
Your Answer: Advise coal tar shampoo
Correct Answer: Send skin scrapings for analysis
Explanation:To effectively manage this fungal infection on the scalp, it is important to identify the specific organism responsible through skin scrapings. Coal tar shampoo may be a suitable treatment for managing dandruff or scalp psoriasis, but it will not address a fungal infection. Topical steroids are not effective against fungal infections. Depending on the type of fungus causing the infection, oral griseofulvin may be an appropriate treatment. Referral to a specialist is not necessary at this stage, as initial investigations can be conducted by primary care providers. This information is sourced from NICE CKS on fungal skin infections of the scalp.
Understanding Tinea: Types, Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Tinea is a term used to describe dermatophyte fungal infections that affect different parts of the body. There are three main types of tinea infections, namely tinea capitis, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis. Tinea capitis affects the scalp and is a common cause of scarring alopecia in children. If left untreated, it can lead to the formation of a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans, while Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs can also cause it. Diagnosis of tinea capitis is done through scalp scrapings, although lesions due to Microsporum canis can be detected through green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp. Management of tinea capitis involves oral antifungals such as terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections and griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. Topical ketoconazole shampoo is also given for the first two weeks to reduce transmission.
Tinea corporis, on the other hand, affects the trunk, legs, or arms and is caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton verrucosum, which can be acquired from contact with cattle. It is characterized by well-defined annular, erythematous lesions with pustules and papules. Oral fluconazole can be used to treat tinea corporis.
Lastly, tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is characterized by itchy, peeling skin between the toes and is common in adolescence. Lesions due to Trichophyton species do not readily fluoresce under Wood’s lamp.
In summary, understanding the types, causes, diagnosis, and management of tinea infections is crucial in preventing their spread and ensuring effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on his scalp. He mentions that they are not causing him any discomfort. Upon examination, you observe numerous rough scaly lesions on his sun-damaged skin, accompanied by extensive erythema and telangiectasia.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer: 1% diclofenac gel
Correct Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream
Explanation:Topical diclofenac can be utilized to treat mild actinic keratoses in this individual.
Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.
To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old army captain has returned to the United Kingdom after a tour of duty overseas and presents to his General Practitioner. He complains of intense itching, mainly affecting his finger webs and the flexural aspect of his wrists. The itching is worse in bed. There was some itching around the groin, but this settled after repeated bathing.
On examination, there appears to be excoriation in the finger webs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pompholyx eczema
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Distinguishing Scabies from Other Itchy Skin Conditions
Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mites. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly in the finger webs, wrists, elbows, perineum, and areolar regions. The rash may appear as erythematous papules, diffuse dermatitis, or urticated erythema. The pathognomonic sign of scabies is the presence of burrows, which are intraepidermal tunnels created by the female mite.
When differentiating scabies from other itchy skin conditions, it is important to consider the location and appearance of the rash. Contact dermatitis, for instance, doesn’t typically present with an eczematous rash on the hands. Lichen planus, on the other hand, is characterized by violaceous papules and tends to affect the wrists more than other areas. Pompholyx eczema is limited to the hands and soles of the feet, while psoriasis is characterized by white, scaly plaques and mild itching. By carefully examining the symptoms and physical presentation, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 97
Correct
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A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice
Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.
On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 µg/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: A 7 day course of oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%
Explanation:Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old alcoholic man presents with a 5-month history of a painless non-healing ulcer on the underside of his penis. On examination, there is a 1 cm × 1 cm deep, ulcerated lesion of the ventral aspect of the glans penis on retraction of the foreskin. There is no associated discharge or lymphadenopathy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Poor hygiene
Correct Answer: Penile cancer
Explanation:Distinguishing Penile Cancer from Other Conditions
Penile cancer is characterized by a non-healing painless ulcer that persists for at least six months. The lesion may present as a lump, ulcer, erythematous lesion, or bleeding or discharge from a concealed lesion. The most common locations for tumors are the glans and prepuce. On the other hand, herpes simplex is recurrent and manifests as painful grouped vesicles that rupture, crust, and heal within ten days. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease caused by certain strains of Chlamydia trachomatis, which presents as a painless penile or anal papule or shallow ulcer/erosion and painful and swollen regional lymph glands. Poor hygiene may contribute to balanitis, which presents with painful sores and discharge. Finally, primary syphilis presents as a small, firm, red, painless papule that ulcerates and heals within 4-8 weeks without treatment, which is not consistent with the 4-month history and deep ulcerated lesion described in this case. Therefore, it is crucial to distinguish penile cancer from other conditions to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you notice numerous umbilicated papules all over his face, neck, trunk, and genitals. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy substance. Your diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What is the most crucial aspect of managing this patient?
Your Answer: Aciclovir orally
Correct Answer: Topical steroid application
Explanation:Molluscum Contagiosum: Symptoms, Treatment, and Underlying Causes
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a DNA pox virus. It is characterized by small, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum that may appear umbilicated. Squeezing the lesions can release a cheesy material. While the infection usually resolves on its own within 12-18 months, patients may opt for treatment if they find the rash unsightly. Squeezing the lesions can speed up resolution.
However, if a patient presents with hundreds of widespread lesions, it is important to investigate any underlying immunodeficiency problems. This may include conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the extensive rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with his daughter, who has noticed an ulcer on his left ankle. He is uncertain about how long it has been there. The patient has a history of ischaemic heart disease and prostatism. He reports experiencing significant pain from the ulcer, especially at night. Upon examination, the doctor observes a punched-out ulcer on his foot with pallor surrounding the area.
What type of ulcer is most probable in this patient?Your Answer: Venous
Correct Answer: Arterial
Explanation:Types of Leg Ulcers and Their Characteristics
Leg ulcers can be caused by various factors, and each type has its own distinct characteristics. Here are some of the common types of leg ulcers and their features:
Arterial Ulcers: These ulcers are usually found on the feet, heels, or toes. They are painful, especially when the legs are at rest and elevated. The borders of the ulcer have a punched-out appearance, and the feet may appear cold, white, or bluish.
Neurotrophic Ulcers: These ulcers have a deep sinus and are often located under calluses or over pressure points. They are painless, and the surrounding area may have diminished or absent sensation.
Malignant Ulcers: Ulcers that do not respond to treatment may be a sign of malignant ulceration, such as squamous cell carcinoma.
Vasculitic Ulcers: Systemic vasculitis can cause multiple leg ulcers that are necrotic and deep. There may be other vasculitic lesions elsewhere, such as nail-fold infarcts and splinter hemorrhages.
Venous Ulcers: These ulcers are located below the knee, often on the inner part of the ankle. They are relatively painless but may be associated with aching, swollen lower legs. They are surrounded by venous eczema and may be associated with lipodermatosclerosis. There may also be atrophie blanche and localised hyperpigmentation.
In conclusion, identifying the type of leg ulcer is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 102
Correct
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A seven-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother, who reports a persistent eczema patch on his right cheek that has worsened despite his regular use of emollient and topical hydrocortisone treatment. The patch has become excruciatingly painful overnight and has spread to his chin. The boy has had eczema since he was a baby but is otherwise healthy.
During the examination, the GP observes a dry, reddish skin patch on the right cheek and a larger, more inflamed patch on the left that extends to the chin. The area is warm and tender to the touch. The patient's vital signs are normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Same-day referral to paediatrics
Explanation:When a child presents with rapidly worsening and painful eczema that is not responding to usual treatment, it may be an early sign of eczema herpeticum. This is a medical emergency that requires urgent assessment and treatment with antivirals to prevent systemic complications. Therefore, the most appropriate action is same-day referral to paediatrics. Oral aciclovir, oral flucloxacillin, and topical clobetasol are not the most appropriate actions in this case. Mild cases may respond to oral antivirals, but a thorough assessment is necessary, and IV antiviral treatment may be required for facial involvement. Definitive treatment for eczema herpeticum is antivirals, not antibiotics or topical steroids.
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children who have atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The affected area usually shows monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions with a diameter of 1-3 mm.
Due to its life-threatening potential, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted for intravenous aciclovir treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful erythematous rash on the right side of her chest. She reports experiencing a sharp burning pain on her chest wall 48 hours ago. Upon examination, vesicles are present and the rash doesn't extend beyond the midline. The patient is given antiviral medication and follow-up is scheduled.
What is the primary benefit of administering antiviral therapy to this patient?Your Answer: It reduces the pain
Correct Answer: It reduces the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia
Explanation:Antivirals can reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia in older people with shingles, but do not prevent the spread or recurrence of the condition. Analgesia should also be prescribed and bacterial superinfection is still possible.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his face. He sustained a cut on his forehead while playing basketball. During the examination, it is observed that the redness is spreading towards his eye, and he has a temperature of 37.9ºC. The patient has no known allergies to any medication.
What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe in this scenario?Your Answer: Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
Explanation:For the treatment of cellulitis around the eyes or nose, the recommended antibiotic is co-amoxiclav, which is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. This is because amoxicillin alone doesn’t provide sufficient coverage against the broad spectrum of bacteria that can cause facial cellulitis, which can lead to serious complications such as orbital involvement. Doxycycline is not the first-line medication for this condition, but may be considered if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Erythromycin is another option for penicillin-allergic patients, but it doesn’t offer the same broad coverage as co-amoxiclav.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.
For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his trunk, arms, and thighs over the past month. He has some mild itching but is otherwise well. He last presented to the surgery two months ago with tonsillitis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Atopic eczema
Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:Distinguishing Guttate Psoriasis from Other Skin Conditions: A Clinical Analysis
Guttate psoriasis is a skin condition that often appears 7-10 days after a streptococcal infection. It is characterized by numerous teardrop-shaped lesions on the trunk and proximal limbs, which are red and covered with a fine scale. While the scale may be less evident in the early stages, the lesions typically resolve on their own after 2-3 months.
When diagnosing guttate psoriasis, it is important to consider other skin conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Atopic eczema, for example, is less well differentiated than psoriasis lesions and may not have a history of a preceding sore throat. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction to amoxicillin would typically result in skin reactions that resolve spontaneously and would not last for a month. Lichen planus, an autoimmune condition, causes shiny papules without scale and is characterized by Whickham’s striae, which are white lines on the surface of the skin. Pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that causes a widespread rash with scale and well-defined edges, may also be considered but is less likely if there is a history of a preceding sore throat.
In summary, a thorough clinical analysis is necessary to distinguish guttate psoriasis from other skin conditions with similar symptoms. A careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and physical examination can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 106
Correct
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Each of the following is linked to hypertrichosis, except for which one?
Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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You see a 54-year old gentleman as an emergency appointment one afternoon.
He suffers with extensive psoriasis and uses a variety of topical agents. He was recently given some potent topical steroid to apply to the most severely affected areas which has not helped. Over the last few days his skin has become inflamed and he has felt generally unwell.
On examination, he has widespread generalised erythema affecting his entire body. He has a mild pyrexia and a pulse rate of 106 bpm.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Advise use of emollients at least four times a day and prescribe a short course of oral steroids
Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as an emergency
Explanation:Erythrodermic Psoriasis: A Dermatological Emergency
Erythrodermic psoriasis is a severe form of psoriasis that requires immediate medical attention. It is characterized by widespread whole body erythema and systemic unwellness, which can lead to complications such as hypothermia and heart failure. This condition can also be caused by other dermatological conditions or medications such as lithium or anti-malarials.
Injudicious use of steroids with rapid withdrawal can also trigger erythroderma. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention as soon as possible to prevent skin failure. The correct course of action is immediate hospital admission for supervised treatment. Dermatologists recommend close monitoring and management of erythrodermic psoriasis to avoid life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female has been referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
Right 0.98
Left 0.98
The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the most suitable approach to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?Your Answer: Intermittent pneumatic compression
Correct Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 109
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents with a lesion on the right side of his nose that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. Upon examination, you notice a raised, circular, flesh-colored lesion with a central depression. The edges of the lesion are rolled and contain some telangiectasia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:A basal cell carcinoma is a commonly observed type of skin cancer.
Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.
If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman comes to you with an itchy rash on both hands, anterior aspects of both elbows, axillae and groins. Other residents in her nursing home have reported experiencing similar symptoms.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Scabies
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Scabies, Henoch-Schönlein Purpura, Psoriasis, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Bullous Pemphigoid
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, resulting in a pruritic eruption with a characteristic distribution pattern. Permethrin-containing lotions are the treatment. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a form of vasculitis, while psoriasis is characterized by plaques over extensor surfaces. Pemphigus vulgaris may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions, and bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication. It is important to consider the specific symptoms and distribution patterns of each condition to accurately diagnose and treat them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy?
Your Answer: 5-6%
Correct Answer: 10-20%
Explanation:Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical steroids. He is aware of the potential side effects of continuous topical steroid use and asked about the recommended duration of break between courses of treatment according to NICE guidelines.
Your Answer: Aim for a break of 1 week
Correct Answer: Aim for a break of 8 weeks
Explanation:Managing Psoriasis with Topical Treatments
Psoriasis patients are advised by NICE to take a break of at least 4 weeks between courses of treatment with potent or very potent corticosteroids. During this period, patients should consider using topical treatments that are not steroid-based, such as vitamin D or vitamin D analogues, or coal tar to maintain psoriasis disease control. These topical treatments can help manage psoriasis symptoms and prevent flare-ups. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs. By incorporating non-steroid topical treatments into their psoriasis management plan, patients can achieve better control of their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 113
Correct
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Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to the onset of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects the skin and mucosa, and is usually caused by a drug reaction. It was previously thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but is now considered a separate entity. The condition can be caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills.
The rash associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome is typically maculopapular, with target lesions being characteristic. It may develop into vesicles or bullae, and the Nikolsky sign is positive in erythematous areas, meaning that blisters and erosions appear when the skin is rubbed gently. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur.
Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment of Stevens-Johnson syndrome. It is important to identify and discontinue the causative drug, and to manage the symptoms of the condition. With prompt and appropriate treatment, the prognosis for Stevens-Johnson syndrome can be good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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You see an elderly patient who complains of facial erythema.
Which of the following is most suggestive of a diagnosis of rosacea?Your Answer: Scaly pink ill-defined plaques in the skin folds both sides of the face
Correct Answer: Facial skin thickening and irregular surface nodularities especially across the nose
Explanation:Clinical Features of Rosacea
A diagnosis of rosacea can be made based on the presence of at least one diagnostic clinical feature or two major clinical features. The two diagnostic clinical features are phymatous changes and persistent erythema. Phymatous changes refer to thickened irregular skin, which can affect the nose and is termed rhinophyma. Persistent erythema is centrofacial redness that can increase with certain triggers. Major clinical features include flushing/transient erythema, inflammatory papules and pustules, telangiectasia, and ocular symptoms. Minor clinical features such as burning sensation, stinging sensation, skin dryness, and oedema are subjective and not individually diagnostic of rosacea.
Facial skin thickening/surface nodularities, especially across the nose, is in keeping with phymatous change, which is a diagnostic clinical feature of rosacea. Itch and red papules can occur with rosacea, but these are usually seen in the centrofacial area. Rosacea can affect the chin area as well, but itchy and tender red papules specifically in a muzzle distribution are more in keeping with perioral dermatitis. Open and closed comedones across the forehead, cheeks, and chin are suggestive of acne vulgaris. Scaly disc-like plaques with scarring are suggestive of discoid lupus, while scaly pink ill-defined plaques in the skin folds on both sides of the face describe seborrheic dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has noticed that the sun causes a rash of very itchy bumps on the exposed areas of her chest and arms. She has purchased a sunscreen and asks if you can prescribe it.
Select the correct statement from the list of options regarding the prescription of sunscreens.Your Answer: A product with a UVB skin protection factor of 28 should be prescribed
Correct Answer: They are regarded as borderline substances and the prescription should be marked ACBS (Advisory Committee on Borderline Substances)
Explanation:Understanding Sunscreens: Protection Against UV Radiation
Sunscreens are essential in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. UVB causes sunburn, while UVA contributes to long-term photodamage, skin cancer, and aging. Sunscreens come in two types: chemical absorbers and physical blockers. Chemical absorbers absorb UVA or UVB, while physical blockers reflect or scatter UV radiation. The ideal sunscreens are those that provide the most effective protection against both UVA and UVB, but they may produce a white appearance when applied to the skin.
The sun protection factor (SPF) indicates the degree of protection against UVB. A higher SPF means longer protection against burning. However, users often do not apply enough sunscreen, resulting in lower protection than what is indicated in experimental studies. The EU Commission recommends that the UVA protection factor should be at least one-third of the SPF, and products that achieve this will be labelled with a UVA logo.
Sunscreens should be applied liberally to all exposed areas and reapplied every 2 hours, especially after swimming, sweating, or rubbing off. Allergic reactions to sunscreen are rare. Sunscreens can be prescribed and marked as ACBS drugs for individuals with genetic disorders, photodermatoses, vitiligo, changes resulting from radiotherapy, and chronic or recurrent herpes simplex labialis precipitated by sunlight. Sunscreens with SPF less than 30 should not normally be prescribed.
In summary, understanding sunscreens and their proper use is crucial in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of UV radiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a history of breast cancer and a right-sided mastectomy with subsequent lymphoedema of the right arm. She reports the development of a new painful rash on her right arm over the past 24 hours. On examination, there is mild chronic lymphoedema to the arm with an area of mild erythema and warmth measuring approximately 3x3cm that is tender to the touch. You suspect erysipelas. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe?
Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:This patient is suffering from erysipelas, a skin infection caused by beta-hemolytic group A streptococcus. It affects the superficial layer of the skin and is different from cellulitis, which affects deeper tissues. Flucloxacillin is the recommended first-line treatment for erysipelas, unless the patient has a penicillin allergy, in which case clarithromycin is used. Co-amoxiclav is preferred if the infection affects the tissues around the nose or eyes, while fusidic acid is used to treat impetigo, a superficial skin infection.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.
For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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You are prescribing oral terbinafine to an elderly patient with a fungal nail infection.
What are the monitoring requirements?Your Answer: Bone profile pre-treatment
Correct Answer: Renal function pre-treatment and then every 3-4 weeks during treatment
Explanation:Monitoring Requirements for Oral Terbinafine Use
Oral terbinafine can lead to liver toxicity, which is why it is important to monitor hepatic function before and during treatment. If symptoms of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, develop, terbinafine should be discontinued immediately. The British National Formulary (BNF) specifies that hepatic function should be monitored before treatment and periodically after 4-6 weeks of treatment. If liver function abnormalities are detected, terbinafine should be discontinued.
There is no need for additional monitoring, but if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2, half the normal dose should be used if there is no suitable alternative. It is important to follow these monitoring requirements to ensure the safe and effective use of oral terbinafine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 118
Correct
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A 26-year-old male attends your morning surgery five days after an insect bite. He has presented today as the area surrounding the bite is becoming increasingly red and itchy.
On examination, you notice a 3-4 cm area of erythema surrounding the bite area and excoriation marks. The is some pus discharging from the bite mark. Observations are all within the normal range. You decide to prescribe antibiotics to cover for infection and arrange a repeat review in 48 hours.
On reviewing his medical records you note he is on isotretinoin for acne and has a penicillin allergy.
Which of the following antibiotics would you consider prescribing?Your Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:Combining oral isotretinoin with tetracyclines is not recommended as it may lead to benign intracranial hypertension. Trimethoprim is not suitable for treating skin or soft tissue infections. Clindamycin, a lincomycin antibiotic, can be used for such infections, especially if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Co-amoxiclav doesn’t interact with isotretinoin, but it cannot be used in patients with penicillin allergy. Doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, should be avoided when a patient is taking isotretinoin due to the risk of benign intracranial hypertension.
Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects
Isotretinoin is a type of oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found to be effective in providing long-term remission or cure for two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of treatment. However, it is important to note that isotretinoin also comes with several adverse effects that patients should be aware of.
One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in fetuses if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, females who are taking isotretinoin should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, low mood, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nosebleeds, and photosensitivity.
It is also worth noting that there is some controversy surrounding the potential link between isotretinoin and depression or other psychiatric problems. While these adverse effects are listed in the British National Formulary (BNF), further research is needed to fully understand the relationship between isotretinoin and mental health.
Overall, while isotretinoin can be an effective treatment for severe acne, patients should be aware of its potential adverse effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old backpacker came to the clinic with a painful blister on an inflamed base on the back of his right hand. He had recently taken some antibiotics while traveling in France for a sore throat, but could not recall the specific medication. Interestingly, he had experienced a similar issue at the same location a few years prior. The patient was in good health and did not have any mucosal lesions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bullous erythema multiforme
Correct Answer: Fixed drug eruption
Explanation:Differentiating Bullous Skin Conditions Caused by Drugs
When a patient presents with a solitary bulla after taking a drug, fixed drug eruption is the most likely diagnosis. The lesion is well-defined, round or oval, and may be accompanied by redness and swelling, sometimes with a blister. The affected area may turn purplish or brown. The rash usually appears within 30 minutes to 8 hours of taking the drug and recurs in the same site/s each time the drug is taken. Antibiotics like tetracyclines or sulphonamides are common culprits.
Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a necrolytic bullous reaction to certain drugs, where less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in Stevens-Johnson syndrome, as compared to >30% in toxic epidermal necrolysis.
Bullous erythema multiforme usually presents with multiple lesions, and mucosal involvement is expected in the other three conditions. Erythema multiforme is an acute eruption of dull red macules or urticarial plaques with a small papule, vesicle, or bulla in the middle. Lesions may enlarge and/or form classical target lesions. The rash starts at the periphery and may extend centrally. Infections, most commonly herpes simplex virus, are the main cause, and drugs are rarely the cause.
Drug-induced pemphigus is an autoimmune bullous disease characterized by blisters and erosions of the skin and mucous membranes. The most common form associated with drug exposure is pemphigus foliaceous, where mucous membranes are not involved, and eroded crusted lesions are the norm.
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe, potentially fatal reaction to certain drugs, where less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off, and there is mucosal involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?
Your Answer: Etanercept
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.
Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.
Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.
Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.
In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male presents with irregular skin discoloration on his upper back after returning from a 2-week vacation in Ibiza. Although he applied sunscreen intermittently, he did experience mild sunburn in the area, which has since healed. He doesn't experience any pain or itching, but he is self-conscious about the appearance of his skin. During the examination, there are scattered pale pink macules covered with fine scales visible over his upper back, despite having a suntan. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Explanation:The patient has pityriasis Versicolor, a fungal infection that affects sebum-rich areas of skin. It presents as multiple round or oval macules that may coalesce, with light pink, red or brown colour and fine scale. Itching is mild. It is not vitiligo, sunburn or pityriasis rosea, nor tinea corporis.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.
In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his right heel. Upon removing the hard skin over the lesion with a scalpel, you notice some black pinpoint marks. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Corn
Correct Answer: Viral wart
Explanation:Common Skin Lesions and Conditions
Verrucae, also known as plantar warts, are thickened lesions found on the feet that can fuse together to form mosaic patterns. Pinpoint petechiae may be present, appearing as small black dots. Heel fissures are another common condition, caused by dry, thickened skin around the rim of the heel that cracks under pressure. Calluses and corns are also responses to friction and pressure, resulting in thickened areas of skin on the hands and feet. However, it is important to differentiate these benign lesions from malignant melanoma, particularly acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur on the soles or palms and presents as an enlarging pigmented patch. The ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving) can help identify potential melanomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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Which of the following side effects is most commonly observed in individuals who are prescribed ciclosporin?
Your Answer: Atrophy of the gums
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Ciclosporin can cause an increase in various bodily functions and conditions, including fluid retention, blood pressure, potassium levels, hair growth, gum swelling, and glucose levels.
Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug
Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.
Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it doesn’t affect the bone marrow.
Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.
In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old girl with a burn from a sparkler on her forearm.
Select from the list the single statement regarding the management of burns that is correct.Your Answer: Burns should be treated immediately with an ice pack
Correct Answer: Full thickness burns are associated with loss of sensation on palpation of the affected area
Explanation:Management of Burn Injuries
Burn injuries can cause thermal damage and inflammation, which can be reduced by cooling the affected area with water at 15oC. However, ice-cold water should be avoided as it can cause vasospasm and further ischaemia. Sensation and capillary refill should be assessed at initial presentation, as full thickness burns are insensitive. Silver sulfadiazine has not been proven to prevent infection. Epidermal burns are characterized by erythema, while larger or awkwardly positioned blisters should be aspirated under aseptic technique to prevent bursting and infection. De-roofing blisters should not be routinely done.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with a history of well-managed asthma presents with a 10-hour history of a pruritic rash. He mentions having recently recuperated from a mild upper respiratory tract infection. The patient has a diffuse urticarial rash on his trunk and limbs. There are no signs of mucosal swelling, he is stable hemodynamically, and his chest is clear upon auscultation.
What is the most effective course of treatment?Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Oral non-sedating antihistamine
Explanation:The first-line treatment for acute urticaria is oral non-sedating antihistamines. These include cetirizine, fexofenadine, or loratadine. Urticarial rash is caused by inflammatory mediators released during mast cell activation, with histamine being the principal mediator. H1 receptor antagonists inhibit this process. Non-sedating antihistamines are preferred over sedating antihistamines as they do not cause significant drowsiness, as they do not cross the blood-brain barrier. Intramuscular adrenaline is not indicated for acute urticaria, as it is only used in suspected anaphylaxis. Oral steroids may be prescribed in addition to a non-sedative oral antihistamine if the symptoms are severe. Topical antihistamines are not recommended by NICE for the management of acute urticaria.
Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of itching, fatigue and malaise for the past six months. She has had no major medical history and is not on any regular medications. There are no visible signs of a skin rash.
What is the most suitable investigation that is likely to result in a diagnosis?Your Answer: Chest X ray
Correct Answer: Liver function tests (LFTs)
Explanation:Diagnosis of Pruritis without a Rash: Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Pruritis without a rash can be a challenging diagnosis. In this case, the symptoms suggest the possibility of primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune disease of the liver that leads to cholestasis and can progress to fibrosis and cirrhosis. To diagnose this condition, a full blood count, serum ferritin, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, urea and electrolytes, thyroid function tests, and liver function tests are necessary. A chest X-ray may be useful to rule out malignancy, but skin biopsy and skin scraping for microscopy are unlikely to be helpful in the absence of a rash. Low serum B12 is not relevant to pruritis. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to diagnose pruritis without a rash, and primary biliary cholangitis should be considered as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis. He has been unable to retract his foreskin for a few years now, and the tip of his penis is quite sore. He also reports a foul odor. Apart from this, he is in good health. He believes that this problem developed gradually over several years.
During the examination, you observe that the man is not circumcised, and there is a tight white ring around the tip of his foreskin. The glans penis is barely visible through the end of the foreskin, and it appears to be inflamed.
What is the specific condition responsible for causing this man's balanitis?Your Answer: Circinate balanitis
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Lichen Sclerosus
Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.
Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.
According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old patient presents with concerns about her acne treatment. She has been using a topical gel containing benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin for the past 3 months but has not seen significant improvement.
Upon examination, she has inflammatory papules and closed comedones on her forehead and chin, as well as some on her upper back. She is interested in a stronger medication and asks if she should continue using the gel alongside it.
What advice should you give regarding her current topical treatment?Your Answer: Continue the combination gel
Correct Answer: Change to topical benzoyl peroxide alone, or topical retinoid
Explanation:To effectively treat acne, it is not recommended to use both topical and oral antibiotics together. Instead, the patient should switch to using either topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid alone. Continuing to use the current combination gel or switching to topical clindamycin or topical lymecycline alone are not recommended as they involve the use of both topical and oral antibiotics, which can lead to antibiotic resistance. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid with oral antibiotics is a more effective treatment option.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes in with plaque psoriasis on his body, elbows, and knees. He has been using a potent corticosteroid ointment and a vitamin D preparation once daily for the past 8 weeks, but there has been no improvement in his skin. What should be the next course of action in managing his plaque psoriasis?
Your Answer: Stop the vitamin D preparation and continue with the corticosteroid ointment
Correct Answer: Stop the corticosteroid and continue with topical vitamin D preparation twice daily for up to 12 weeks
Explanation:The best course of action would be to discontinue the corticosteroid and increase the frequency of vitamin D application to twice daily, as per NICE guidelines. It is necessary to take a 4-week break from the topical steroid, which has already been used for 8 weeks. Therefore, continuing or increasing the steroid usage to twice daily would be inappropriate. Dithranol and referral to Dermatology are not necessary at this point, as the treatment plan has not been finished.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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In your morning clinic, a 25-year-old man presents with a complaint about his penis. He reports noticing some lesions on his glans penis for the past few days and stinging during urination. After taking his sexual history, he reveals that he has had sex with two women in the last 3 months, both times with inconsistent condom use. Additionally, he mentions experiencing sticky, itchy eyes and a painful, swollen left knee.
During the examination, you observe a well-defined erythematous plaque with a ragged white border on his penis.
What is the name of the lesion on his penis?Your Answer: Zoon's balanitis
Correct Answer: Circinate balanitis
Explanation:A man with Reiter’s syndrome and chronic balanitis is likely to have Circinate balanitis, which is characterized by a well-defined erythematous plaque with a white border on the penis. This condition is caused by a sexually transmitted infection and requires evaluation by both a sexual health clinic and a rheumatology clinic. Zoon’s balanitis, on the other hand, is a benign condition that affects uncircumcised men and presents with orange-red lesions on the glans and foreskin. Erythroplasia of Queyrat is an in-situ squamous cell carcinoma that appears as red, velvety plaques and may be asymptomatic. Squamous cell carcinoma can also occur on the penis and may present as papillary or flat lesions, often associated with lichen planus or lichen sclerosus.
Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment
Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.
Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. He mentions that he has noticed a few lesions on her foot. He adds that she is perfectly fine and that he only noticed them while giving her a bath yesterday. You diagnose viral warts. The father inquires about the treatment options.
Your Answer: Prescribe a low dose of topical steroids
Correct Answer: Treatment not required as most will resolve spontaneously
Explanation:As the warts are not causing any issues for the patient, it is highly recommended to provide reassurance and advise against treatment. Prescribing topical antiviral treatments or steroids would not be beneficial in this case. While cryotherapy and topical salicylic acid treatment are possible options, it is best to adopt a wait-and-see approach since the warts are not causing any problems. Therefore, the answer is that treatment is unnecessary as most warts will resolve on their own.
Understanding Viral Warts: When to Seek Treatment
Viral warts are a common skin condition caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). While they are generally harmless, they can be painful and unsightly, leading some patients to seek treatment. However, in most cases, treatment is not necessary as warts will typically resolve on their own within a few months to two years. In fact, it can take up to 10 years for warts to disappear in adults.
It is important to note that while viral warts are not a serious medical concern, they can be contagious and easily spread through skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated surfaces. Therefore, it is important to practice good hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as towels or razors with others to prevent the spread of warts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Candidiasis
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.
Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.
Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 133
Correct
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A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his face, neck, and trunk that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved. The patient is becoming increasingly self-conscious about them and seeks treatment. Upon examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, as well as nodules, pustules, and scarring. The patient is in good health, with normal vital signs.
What is the most appropriate initial approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer to dermatology
Explanation:A patient with severe acne, including scarring, hyperpigmentation, and widespread pustules, should be referred to a dermatologist for specialized treatment. In this case, the patient has nodules, pustules, and scarring, indicating the need for consideration of oral isotretinoin. A trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide would not be appropriate for severe and widespread acne, but may be suitable for mild to moderate cases. Same-day hospital admission is unnecessary for a patient with normal observations and no other health concerns. A review in 2 months is not appropriate for severe acne, which should be managed with topical therapies, oral antibiotics, or referral to a dermatologist. Topical antibiotics are also not recommended for severe and widespread acne, and a dermatology referral is necessary for this patient with lesions on the face, neck, and trunk.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A woman who is 29 years old and 9 weeks pregnant visits her GP complaining of an eczematous rash on the flexures of her arms and neck, which has been present for 3 weeks and shows signs of excoriation.
What could be the probable reason for the rash?Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Correct Answer: Atopic eruption of pregnancy
Explanation:The most commonly occurring skin disorder during pregnancy is atopic eruption of pregnancy. This condition usually starts in the first or second trimester and is characterized by a widespread eczematous eruption on the face, neck, and flexural areas. The eruption can appear as eczematous patches or intact or excoriated papules. Other less common presentations include prurigo of pregnancy or pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy.
Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune skin eruption that is associated with gluten sensitivity and is very itchy and vesicular. The lesions are typically found in the flexures of the elbow, dorsal forearms, knees, and buttocks. Immunofluorescence shows the deposition of IgA within the dermal papillae.
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy doesn’t cause a skin rash, but patients experience severe generalized pruritus mainly on the palms and soles. Excoriations may occur due to scratching.
Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare condition that usually occurs later in pregnancy (second or third trimester) and is characterized by urticarial lesions or papules surrounding the umbilicus. Vesicles may also be present.
Understanding Atopic Eruption of Pregnancy
Atopic eruption of pregnancy (AEP) is a prevalent skin condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a red, itchy rash that resembles eczema. Although it can be uncomfortable, AEP is not harmful to the mother or the baby. Fortunately, no specific treatment is required, and the rash usually disappears after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of tinea capitis presents due to a raised lesion on her scalp. The lesion has been getting gradually bigger over the past two weeks. On examination you find a raised, pustular, spongy mass on the crown of her head. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Id reaction (auto-eczematisation)
Correct Answer: Kerion
Explanation:Understanding Tinea: Types, Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Tinea is a term used to describe dermatophyte fungal infections that affect different parts of the body. There are three main types of tinea infections, namely tinea capitis, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis. Tinea capitis affects the scalp and is a common cause of scarring alopecia in children. If left untreated, it can lead to the formation of a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans, while Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs can also cause it. Diagnosis of tinea capitis is done through scalp scrapings, although lesions due to Microsporum canis can be detected through green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp. Management of tinea capitis involves oral antifungals such as terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections and griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. Topical ketoconazole shampoo is also given for the first two weeks to reduce transmission.
Tinea corporis, on the other hand, affects the trunk, legs, or arms and is caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton verrucosum, which can be acquired from contact with cattle. It is characterized by well-defined annular, erythematous lesions with pustules and papules. Oral fluconazole can be used to treat tinea corporis.
Lastly, tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is characterized by itchy, peeling skin between the toes and is common in adolescence. Lesions due to Trichophyton species do not readily fluoresce under Wood’s lamp.
In summary, understanding the types, causes, diagnosis, and management of tinea infections is crucial in preventing their spread and ensuring effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The child’s mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her son’s skin.
What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?Your Answer: Topical tacrolimus can be used as a first-line treatment
Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears
Explanation:Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations
Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:
1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.
2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.
3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.
4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.
5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.
By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 5-month old baby daughter to your clinic for a birthmark on her arm. Upon examination, you identify a small vascular plaque that doesn't seem to be causing any discomfort to the baby. Your diagnosis is a strawberry naevus. What would be the most suitable initial course of action?
Your Answer: Cautery
Correct Answer: Watch and wait
Explanation:A congenital haemangioma known as a strawberry naevus affects approximately one in 20 infants. These haemangiomas grow quickly during the first few months of life and then gradually disappear over a few years without any intervention. Unless they are causing vision, hearing, breathing, or feeding problems, they typically do not require treatment. However, if they are located on the lower spine, they may indicate spina bifida and require further investigation. Additionally, if they are unusually large or atypical, medical attention may be necessary.
Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.
Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin on the back of the neck. The irregular, smooth pink patch measures around 3 cm in diameter and is not palpable. The parents mention that it becomes more noticeable when the baby cries. What is the probable diagnosis for this skin lesion?
Your Answer: Mongolian spot
Correct Answer: Salmon patch
Explanation:Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns
Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with burns on the extensor aspects of his lower legs. He accidentally spilled hot water on himself while wearing shorts. Upon examination, he has pale, pink skin with small blisters forming. The burns are classified as superficial dermal burns. Using a chart, you calculate the TBSA of the burns. What is the minimum TBSA that would require immediate referral to the plastic surgeons?
Your Answer: 1%
Correct Answer: 3%
Explanation:First Aid and Management of Burns
Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.
Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 140
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on the side of her neck has recently grown. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped lesion with variable pigmentation and a diameter of 7 mm.
What would be the best course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Reassess in two weeks
Explanation:Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion
This patient’s lesion is highly suspicious of a melanoma and requires immediate referral to a dermatologist. Any delay in monitoring in primary care could result in delayed treatment and potentially worse outcomes. The lesion’s recent increase in size, irregular pigmentation, and margin are all factors that raise suspicions. To aid in decision-making, the 7-point weighted checklist can be used, which includes major features such as change in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, as well as minor features like inflammation, oozing, change in sensation, and largest diameter 7 mm or more. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred, even if the score is less than 3. If the lesion were low risk, it would be reasonable to monitor over an eight-week period using the 7-point checklist, photographs, and a marker scale and/or ruler. However, it is not appropriate to excise or biopsy suspicious pigmented lesions in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South America. He complains of a lesion on his lower lip that has been ulcerating for the past 2 months. Upon examination, it is found that his nasal and oral mucosae are also affected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chagas disease
Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis
Explanation:Leishmaniasis is the probable diagnosis for this patient, as the presence of a primary skin lesion accompanied by mucosal involvement is a typical indication of infection with Leishmania brasiliensis.
Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites
Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in the Scottish Highlands ten days ago. He found an insect attached to the skin of her abdomen and removed it but is concerned it may have been a tick. She has now developed a circular erythematous rash that has begun to radiate out from the bite.
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Lyme Disease: Early Manifestations and Treatment Options
Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Its early manifestation is erythema chronicum migrans, which can progress to neurological, cardiovascular, or arthritic symptoms. Different strains of Borrelia spp. cause varying clinical manifestations, leading to differences in symptoms between countries. The disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. or deer ticks. Early use of antibiotics can prevent persistent, recurrent, and refractory Lyme disease. Antibiotics shorten the clinical course and progression.
In patients with erythema migrans alone, oral drug therapies can be started in primary care. Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily or 200 mg once daily for 21 days) is the first choice for patients aged 12 years or older. Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily for 21 days) is the first alternative, while azithromycin (500 mg daily for 17 days) is the second alternative but should be avoided in patients with cardiac abnormalities caused by Lyme disease. If there is any suggestion of cellulitis, co-amoxiclav or amoxicillin and flucloxacillin alone would be more appropriate.
In the USA, a single dose of 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal can prevent Lyme disease from developing. However, the risk in the UK is not high enough to warrant prophylactic antibiotics. Antibody testing in patients with erythema migrans is unhelpful as the rash develops before the antibodies. It is important to discuss management with a microbiologist, especially if there are further manifestations. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 143
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns about recurrent painful lumps and boils in his axilla and groin area for several months. He has previously been diagnosed with hidradenitis suppurativa by a dermatologist.
During the examination, you observe multiple small, painful nodules in the axilla and groin region. The patient's heart rate is 70 beats per minute, and his tympanic temperature is 36.5 oC.
Based on your assessment, you suspect recurrent hidradenitis suppurativa. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this condition?Your Answer: Commence the patient on topical clindamycin for 3 months
Explanation:Hidradenitis suppurativa can be managed with long-term use of topical or oral antibiotics, which can be prescribed by primary care physicians. The British Association of Dermatologists recommends starting with topical clindamycin or oral doxycycline or lymecycline. Another option is a combination of clindamycin and rifampicin. Topical steroids are not effective for this condition, but oral or intra-lesional steroids may be used during severe flares. The effectiveness of topical retinoids is uncertain, and surgery is only considered if medical treatments fail. Emollients are not likely to be helpful in managing this condition.
Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa
Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.
The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.
Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.
HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.
Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old British man with a history of asthma comes to the clinic with a painless lymph node in his groin that has been enlarged for the past three months. He denies any other symptoms except for a generalised itch which he attributes to a recent change in laundry detergent. He has not observed any rash.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Lymphoma
Explanation:If you notice an enlarged lymph node that cannot be explained, it is important to consider the possibility of lymphoma. It is important to ask about other symptoms such as fever, night sweats, shortness of breath, itching, and weight loss. It is rare for alcohol to cause lymph node pain.
There are no significant risk factors or symptoms suggestive of TB in the patient’s history. It is also unlikely that the presentation is due to syphilis, as secondary syphilis typically presents with a non-itchy rash. The rapid deterioration seen in acute lymphocytic leukemia is not consistent with the patient’s presentation.
Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.
The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.
When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.
In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her feet, accompanied by several flat brown lesions. These are scattered on a background of erythema and scaling.
What would be the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Calcipotriol + betamethasone
Correct Answer: Betamethasone ointment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Palmoplantar Pustulosis
Palmoplantar pustulosis is a skin condition that is linked to psoriasis and is more common in women over 50. It is characterized by erythematous skin with yellow pustules that settle to form brown macules on the palms and soles of the hands and feet. Here are some treatment options for this condition:
Betamethasone Ointment: This is a potent topical steroid that is effective in treating palmoplantar pustulosis.
Calcipotriol + Betamethasone: While the steroid component would be beneficial, calcipotriol is not used to treat palmoplantar pustulosis, which is where the management differs from plaque psoriasis.
Barrier Cream: A barrier cream is used to create a barrier between the skin and a potential irritant, so is useful in conditions such as contact dermatitis. Palmoplantar pustulosis is not caused by an irritant, so this would not be helpful.
Flucloxacillin Capsules: There is no indication that this is a bacterial infection, so there would be no role for antibiotics in this patient’s management.
Terbinafine Cream: A fungal infection would not cause pustules, so there is no indication for using an antifungal treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman has a hard, smooth nodule on the right lower leg, measuring 0.5 cm in diameter. She first noticed it several months ago, and since then it has not changed. When the lesion is pinched between the fingers, it dimples inwards. The lesion is light brown, with regular pigmentation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Malignant melanoma
Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma
Explanation:Distinguishing Different Skin Lesions: Dermatofibroma, Malignant Melanoma, Seborrhoeic Keratosis, Cutaneous Metastasis, and Actinic Keratosis
When it comes to skin lesions, it’s important to distinguish between different types to determine the appropriate treatment. One such lesion is a dermatofibroma, which is a benign growth that often appears on the limbs of women. A key feature of a dermatofibroma is the dimpling that occurs when the skin is pinched, due to the fibrous tissue underneath.
On the other hand, malignant melanoma is less likely to be the cause of a skin lesion if it has regular pigmentation, hasn’t changed in several months, and has dimpling – all features of a dermatofibroma. Seborrhoeic keratosis, another type of skin lesion, has a rough, stuck-on appearance that doesn’t match the description of a dermatofibroma.
A cutaneous metastasis, which is a skin lesion that results from cancer spreading from another part of the body, typically presents as a rapidly growing nodule. This is different from a dermatofibroma, which is relatively static. Similarly, an actinic keratosis, a flat lesion with a fine scale, is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a nodular lesion like a dermatofibroma.
In summary, understanding the characteristics of different skin lesions can help in accurately identifying and treating them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows a diffuse itchy dermatitis on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles. An older cousin is reported to have a similar itchy rash and he has been playing with him.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tinea pedis
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions in Infants and Children: A Comparison
Scabies, Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Atopic Eczema, Tinea Pedis, and Viral Warts are some of the common dermatological conditions that affect infants and children. While they may share some similarities in symptoms, each condition has its unique characteristics that distinguish it from the others.
Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is characterized by a widespread, eczematous eruption primarily on the trunk, with the scalp and neck also being affected. In infants, papules and pustules on the palms and soles are common, representing a hypersensitivity reaction to the mite.
Palmoplantar Pustulosis, on the other hand, is a chronic pustular condition that affects the palms and soles. It presents as crops of sterile pustules that later turn brown, occurring on one or both hands and/or feet. Thickened, scaly, red skin that easily becomes fissured is also a characteristic feature. Smoking is strongly associated with this condition.
Atopic Eczema is a chronic, itchy dermatitis that commonly presents with an itchy rash on the face in babies. It may become widespread or confined to the flexures. Papules on the soles are not a feature, and a history of contact with a similarly affected relative would not fit this diagnosis.
Tinea Pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that affects the feet. It is uncommon in infants and doesn’t usually cause dermatitis on the trunk.
Finally, Viral Warts are skin lesions associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). They are not characteristically itchy and would not cause the widespread dermatitis described in this case.
In conclusion, while these dermatological conditions may share some similarities, a careful examination of the symptoms and history can help distinguish one from the other. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect your child has any of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 148
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is shiny with visible telangiectasiae and is gradually increasing in size.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Skin Tumours: Types, Symptoms, and Management
Skin tumours are abnormal growths of skin cells that can be benign or malignant. Basal cell carcinomas are the most common malignant skin tumour, usually caused by excessive sun exposure in early life and previous sunburn. They often present as a slow-growing nodule or papule that forms an ulcer with a raised ‘rolled’ edge. Basal cell carcinomas grow slowly and rarely metastasise.
Low-risk basal cell carcinomas can be managed in primary care if the GP meets the requirements to perform skin surgery. A specialist referral is appropriate for most people with a suspicious skin lesion, and urgent referral is necessary if there is a concern that a delay may have a significant impact.
Squamous cell carcinomas have a crusted or ulcerated surface, while seborrhoeic warts have a warty pigmented surface appearance. Lentigo maligna is a melanoma in situ that progresses slowly and can remain non-invasive for years. In amelanotic melanoma, the colour may be pink, red, purple, or the colour of normal skin, and growth is likely to be rapid with a poor prognosis.
In conclusion, early detection and management of skin tumours are crucial for better outcomes. Regular skin checks and seeking medical advice for any suspicious skin lesion are recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a number of large boil-like lesions that have appeared on her back over the course of a few days. She is awaiting investigations by a gastroenterologist for diarrhoea and has been found to be anaemic. On examination three out of four lesions have broken down, leaving large ulcerated painful areas.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes zoster
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Pyoderma Gangrenosum, Impetigo, Ecthyma, Herpes Zoster, and Insect Bites
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a condition characterized by the sudden appearance of large ulcerating lesions that can progress rapidly. The lower legs are the most common site, and fever and malaise may be present. It can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, monoclonal gammopathy, myeloma, chronic active hepatitis, and rheumatoid arthritis. The lesions are caused by underlying small vessel thrombosis and vasculitis. Treatment involves systemic steroids.
Impetigo is a condition where tiny pustules or vesicles rapidly evolve into honey-colored crusted plaques. Ecthyma is a deeper form of impetigo that causes deeper erosions of the skin.
Herpes zoster is a painful eruption of vesicles on an erythematous base located in a single dermatome.
Insect bites typically present as grouped itchy papules that arise in crops and may blister.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her father, reporting a rash on her ears that has been present for 3 days. They have just returned from a trip to Mexico. The girl complains of itchiness and discomfort. She has not experienced any fever or respiratory symptoms recently. On examination, small blisters are observed on the helix of both ears, while the rest of her skin appears normal. The patient has no prior medical history.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Juvenile spring eruption
Explanation:Juvenile spring eruption (JSE) is a skin condition that typically affects boys aged 5-14 years during the spring season. It is caused by sun exposure and appears as a blistering rash on the ears, causing discomfort and itchiness. The recent holiday to Tenerife suggests a possible risk factor for this condition. Treatment involves using emollients and antihistamines, and symptoms usually resolve within a week.
The rash associated with Chickenpox starts as red macules that become raised, blister, and crust over time. It is often accompanied by cold-like symptoms and fever and tends to be more widespread, affecting the trunk and limbs. This rash typically lasts for 4-10 days. However, since the patient has a 2-day history of a blistering rash isolated to the ears, Chickenpox is an unlikely diagnosis.
Given the patient’s short history, the characteristic rash, and the absence of any relevant medical history, eczema is an unlikely possibility.
Chondrodermatitis nodularis is a skin condition that is commonly seen in middle-aged or elderly patients. It is characterized by small skin-colored nodules that typically appear on the helix of the ear.
Understanding Juvenile Spring Eruption
Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition that occurs as a result of sun exposure. It is a type of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) that causes itchy red bumps on the light-exposed parts of the ears, which can turn into blisters and crusts. This condition is more common in boys aged between 5-14 years, and it is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears.
The main cause of juvenile spring eruption is sun-induced allergy rash, which is more likely to occur in the springtime. Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body, and there is an increased incidence in cold weather. The diagnosis of this condition is usually made based on clinical presentation, and no clinical tests are required in most cases. However, in aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests.
The management of juvenile spring eruption involves providing patient education on sun exposure and the use of sunscreen and hats. Topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion can be used to provide relief, and antihistamines can help with itch relief at night-time. In more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used, as well as immune-system suppressants.
In conclusion, understanding juvenile spring eruption is important for proper diagnosis and management. By taking preventative measures and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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