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Question 1
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner after discovering a firm lump just under her tongue on the right side. She has been experiencing discomfort and mild swelling in the same area while eating for the past few days. She is stable and not running a fever.
What is the most suitable management option for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral antibiotics and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Correct Answer: Short course of NSAIDs and referral to an ENT surgeon
Explanation:Management of Salivary Gland Stones: Recommended Approaches and Guidelines
Salivary gland stones, or sialolithiasis, can cause pain and swelling of the affected gland, triggered by salivary flow stimulation during eating or chewing. If left untreated, these stones can lead to secondary infections, cellulitis, and airway compromise. Here are some recommended approaches and guidelines for managing salivary gland stones:
Referral to an ENT Surgeon and NSAIDs
If a salivary stone is suspected, a referral to an ENT surgeon should be made, with the urgency guided by clinical judgement. Patients should also be advised to remain well hydrated, and NSAIDs can be used to relieve any pain.Antibiotics and Referral to an ENT Surgeon
Antibiotics should only be used if there is a suspicion of a secondary infection, typically suggested by persistent pain and swelling, sometimes with fever and systemic upset. In this case, a referral to an ENT surgeon is also recommended.Oral Antibiotics and NSAIDs
NSAIDs can be used to relieve any pain, but antibiotics should only be used if there is a suspicion of a secondary infection. This is typically suggested by persistent pain and swelling, sometimes with fever and systemic upset.Oral Steroids
Oral steroids have no role in the management of salivary gland stones.Watchful Waiting
Left untreated, salivary gland stones can cause significant stress and psychological distress to patients. Therefore, it is not recommended to adopt a watchful waiting approach. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presented to his GP with bilateral deafness. Rinneâs test was found to be negative bilaterally. Weber's test was referred to both sides. On examination of his tympanic membrane, Schwartz's sign was visible.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Hearing Loss: A Comparison of Otosclerosis, Cholesteatoma, MĂ©niĂšre’s Disease, Otitis Externa, and Otitis Media
Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including otosclerosis, cholesteatoma, MĂ©niĂšre’s disease, otitis externa, and otitis media. When conducting a differential diagnosis, it is important to consider the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.
Otosclerosis is a common cause of hearing loss in young adults, typically presenting as unilateral conductive hearing loss that progresses bilaterally. A negative Rinne’s test is indicative of conductive deafness, and a pink tinge on the tympanic membrane (Schwartz’s sign) is a diagnostic indicator for otosclerosis.
Cholesteatoma, on the other hand, typically presents with unilateral conductive hearing loss and/or ear discharge. Given the patient’s bilateral symptoms and young age, cholesteatoma is less likely to be the cause of her hearing loss.
MĂ©niĂšre’s disease is characterized by sudden attacks of tinnitus, vertigo, a sensation of fullness in the ear, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. This is not the likely cause of the patient’s conductive hearing loss.
Otitis externa is inflammation of the external ear canal, which can cause hearing loss in rare cases due to occlusion of the ear canal from inflammation. Otitis media, on the other hand, is inflammation of the middle ear and is more commonly seen in children. It may present with unilateral conductive deafness, but is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s bilateral symptoms.
In conclusion, when considering the causes of hearing loss, it is important to take into account the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history. Otosclerosis is the most likely cause of conductive hearing loss in young adults, while cholesteatoma, MĂ©niĂšre’s disease, otitis externa, and otitis media may also be potential causes depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 3
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A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing in his right ear, which feels congested, and he experiences frequent bouts of vertigo lasting up to a few hours at a time. There are no abnormalities found during the neurological examination.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: MĂ©niĂšreâs disease
Explanation:Differentiating Vertigo Conditions: MĂ©niĂšreâs Disease, Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo, Central Vertigo, Labyrinthitis, and Vestibular Neuronitis
Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. MĂ©niĂšreâs disease, for instance, is characterized by fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, and aural fullness. Patients are advised to undergo vestibular rehabilitation and avoid risky activities. Prochlorperazine is recommended for acute attacks, while betahistine is used for preventive treatment. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, on the other hand, presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by movement, without tinnitus, hearing loss, or ear fullness. Central vertigo has a sudden onset, constant symptoms, and possible neurological abnormalities, requiring urgent hospital admission. Labyrinthitis causes acute vertigo and hearing loss, but the presence of ear fullness suggests MĂ©niĂšreâs disease. Vestibular neuronitis, caused by viral infection, results in isolated and prolonged episodes of vertigo without tinnitus or ear fullness. Accurate diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in addressing vertigo and its underlying conditions.
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- ENT
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Question 4
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A 42-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of ear pain. He had visited the emergency department 3 days ago but was only given advice. He has been experiencing ear pain for 5 days now.
During the examination, his temperature is 38.5ÂșC and his right ear drum is red and bulging. What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Start amoxicillin
Explanation:To improve treatment of tonsillitis and otitis media without relying on antibiotics, medical guidelines suggest waiting 2-3 days before considering treatment if symptoms do not improve. This approach is especially important when a patient has a fever, indicating systemic involvement. Therefore, recommending regular paracetamol is not appropriate in this case. While erythromycin can be a useful alternative for patients with a penicillin allergy, it should not be the first choice for those who can take penicillin. Penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for tonsillitis, as amoxicillin can cause a rash in cases of glandular fever. However, it is not typically used for otitis media. For otitis media, amoxicillin is the recommended first-line medication at a dosage of 500mg TDS for 7 days. Co-amoxiclav is only used as a second-line option if amoxicillin is ineffective, and is not recommended as a first-line treatment according to current medical guidelines. These recommendations are based on NICE Guidelines and Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
Acute Otitis Media: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, with around 50% experiencing three or more episodes by the age of 3 years. While viral upper respiratory tract infections often precede otitis media, bacterial infections, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, are the primary cause. Viral infections disrupt the normal nasopharyngeal microbiome, allowing bacteria to infect the middle ear through the Eustachian tube.
Symptoms of acute otitis media include ear pain, fever, hearing loss, and recent viral upper respiratory tract infection symptoms. Otoscopy may reveal a bulging tympanic membrane, opacification or erythema of the tympanic membrane, perforation with purulent otorrhoea, or decreased mobility when using a pneumatic otoscope. Diagnosis is typically based on the acute onset of symptoms, otalgia or ear tugging, the presence of a middle ear effusion, bulging of the tympanic membrane, otorrhoea, decreased mobility on pneumatic otoscopy, or inflammation of the tympanic membrane.
Acute otitis media is generally self-limiting and does not require antibiotic treatment. However, antibiotics should be prescribed if symptoms last more than four days or do not improve, if the patient is systemically unwell but not requiring admission, if the patient is immunocompromised or at high risk of complications, if the patient is younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media, or if there is otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canal. Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic, but erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given to patients with penicillin allergy.
Common sequelae of acute otitis media include perforation of the tympanic membrane, unresolved acute otitis media with perforation leading to chronic suppurative otitis media, hearing loss, and labyrinthitis. Complications may include mastoiditis, meningitis, brain abscess, and facial nerve paralysis. Parents should seek medical help if symptoms worsen or do not improve after three days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a concern that he has been experiencing hearing loss in his right ear. He occasionally hears a buzzing sound in this ear, but it is not bothersome and does not affect his daily life. He is worried about the hearing loss as his mother had to use hearing aids at a young age. Otoscopy of his right ear is performed and is normal except for a slightly pinkish tympanic membrane. The GP decides to conduct some tuning fork tests. What is the most likely set of findings that will be observed?
Your Answer: Right ear Rinneâs test bone conduction > air conduction; Weberâs test lateralises to the right
Correct Answer: Webers test lateralises to the left ear. Rinnes test would shows bone conduction > air conduction on the left
Explanation:Tuning Fork Tests for Different Types of Hearing Loss
When conducting a hearing assessment, tuning fork tests can provide valuable information about the type and location of hearing loss. Here are some examples of tuning fork test results and what they may indicate:
Weber’s and Rinne’s Tests for Different Types of Hearing Loss
Example 1:
– Weber’s test lateralizes to the left ear
– Rinne’s test shows bone conduction > air conduction on the leftThese results suggest conductive hearing loss, which is typical of otosclerosis. This condition affects young adults and involves the replacement of normal bone with spongy bone, leading to stapes fixation and progressive hearing loss.
Example 2:
– Weber’s test lateralizes to the right ear
– Rinne’s test shows air conduction > bone conduction on the leftThese results also suggest conductive hearing loss, but in this case, it is likely due to a different cause than otosclerosis. Unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, a positive family history, and a pinkish tympanic membrane on examination are all typical features of otosclerosis, which is not present in this patient.
Example 3:
– Weber’s test lateralizes to the right ear
– Rinne’s test shows bone conduction > air conduction on the rightThese results suggest conductive hearing loss on the right side, which could be due to a variety of causes. However, the clinical features reported in this patient suggest a possible diagnosis of otosclerosis, which would give a conductive hearing loss on the left side rather than the right.
Example 4:
– Weber’s test lateralizes to the left ear
– Rinne’s test shows air conduction > bone conduction on the rightThese results suggest sensorineural hearing loss on the right side, which could be due to conditions such as vestibular schwannoma or viral labyrinthitis. However, this does not match the reported hearing loss on the left side in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a headache and thick nasal discharge that has persisted for six days. He reports the headache as a frontal pressure pain that worsens when he bends forward. He denies experiencing cough or general malaise. His vital signs are heart rate 62/min, respiratory rate 13/min, blood pressure 127/63 mmHg, and temperature 36.2 ÂșC. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with his salbutamol inhaler. What is the appropriate management plan for the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Correct Answer: Analgesia and abundant fluids
Explanation:For uncomplicated acute sinusitis, antibiotics are not necessary. Instead, the recommended treatment is pain relief and staying hydrated. The patient in this scenario has typical symptoms of acute sinusitis, such as facial pain, nasal discharge, and difficulty breathing. Antibiotics are only prescribed in severe cases or when the patient is at high risk of complications. Co-amoxiclav is an example of an antibiotic that may be used in these situations. Intranasal corticosteroids may be prescribed if the condition lasts longer than ten days. Intranasal decongestants and oral corticosteroids are not effective treatments for acute sinusitis and should not be used.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be prescribed for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man presents to his GP with vertigo and earache. He reports feeling that the room is spinning over the past 2 days. On examination, there is a left facial droop, the patient is unable to lift his left eyebrow, along with a vesicular rash around the left ear, the tympanic membrane looks healthy with a preserved cone of light. His heart rate is 78 bpm, blood pressure is 134/84 mmHg and temperature is 37.2ÂșC. He has a past medical history of type II diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin.
What is the most appropriate treatment to commence?Your Answer: Aciclovir
Correct Answer: Aciclovir and prednisolone
Explanation:The recommended treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome, which this man is presenting with, includes both oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. This syndrome is caused by a herpes zoster infection of the facial nerve and can lead to symptoms such as ear pain, vertigo, facial palsy, and a vesicular rash around the ear. While aciclovir alone would not be sufficient, using prednisolone alone is also not recommended. Instead, NICE guidance suggests using both aciclovir and prednisolone to improve outcomes and increase the chances of recovery. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic used to treat skin infections like cellulitis, would not be appropriate in this case as the presence of a vesicular rash makes cellulitis unlikely.
Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this condition is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.
To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.
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- ENT
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using cotton buds to clean his ears earlier today and experienced a sharp pain during the process. He now has slightly reduced hearing in his left ear. The patient reports no discharge and is in good health otherwise.
All of the patient's vital signs are normal. Upon examination of the left ear, a small perforation in the tympanic membrane is observed. There is no discharge or redness in the ear, and the ear canal is dry. The cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.
What is the next best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Oral amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Reassure patient and review in 4 weeks
Explanation:If a patient has an uncomplicated tympanic membrane perforation that is dry, they can be managed with watchful waiting for a month without needing to see an ENT specialist. These perforations can occur due to various reasons such as blunt trauma, penetrating injuries, or barotrauma. Typically, the perforation will heal on its own within 4-8 weeks. However, patients should schedule a follow-up appointment after 4 weeks to ensure that the perforation is healing properly. If the patient experiences increasing ear pain, discharge, or worsening hearing loss, they should see their GP. During the examination, the patient should undergo a full examination, including otoscopy, cranial nerve examination, and Rinne/Weber tests. If there are any cranial nerve deficits, the patient should discuss them with an ENT specialist. Patients should keep their ears clean and dry, and topical antibiotics are not recommended for clean, dry perforations. If there are any signs of infection or contamination, topical antibiotics may be given. In cases where the patient has more complex issues such as temporal bone fractures or slowly healing perforations, they may need to be reviewed by an ENT specialist in an emergency clinic. If the perforation does not heal, surgical intervention may be necessary.
Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management
A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.
In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of unpleasant breath and gurgling sounds while swallowing. She reports no other symptoms or changes in her health.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pharyngeal pouch
Explanation:Pharyngeal Pouch and Hiatus Hernia: Two Common Causes of Oesophageal Symptoms
Pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are two common conditions that can cause symptoms related to the oesophagus. A pharyngeal pouch is a diverticulum that forms in the posterior aspect of the oesophagus due to herniation between two muscles that constrict the inferior part of the pharynx. This pouch can trap food and cause halitosis, regurgitation of food or gurgling noises, and sometimes a palpable lump on the side of the neck. Treatment involves surgery to correct the herniation or sometimes to close the diverticulum.
Hiatus hernia, on the other hand, occurs when part of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity, leading to a retrosternal burning sensation, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and dysphagia. This condition is more common in older people and those with obesity or a history of smoking. Treatment may involve lifestyle changes, such as weight loss and avoiding trigger foods, as well as medications to reduce acid production or strengthen the lower oesophageal sphincter.
Other possible causes of oesophageal symptoms include gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), oesophageal candidiasis, and oesophageal carcinoma. GORD is a chronic condition that involves reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus, causing symptoms of heartburn and acid regurgitation. Oesophageal candidiasis is a fungal infection that usually affects people with weakened immune systems. Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that can develop in the lining of the oesophagus, often with symptoms such as weight loss, dysphagia, abdominal pain, and dyspepsia. However, based on the history provided, pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are more likely causes of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 10
Correct
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An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hearing loss in his right ear for the past month. During the examination, the doctor observes hard impacted wax in the affected ear. What are the expected outcomes of the Rinne and Weber's tests?
Your Answer: Rinne - bone conduction is greater than air conduction on the right and Weber lateralises to the right
Explanation:When wax builds up in the ear, it can lead to conductive hearing loss in that ear. This means that bone conduction is stronger than air conduction in the affected ear, and when performing the Weber test, the sound will be heard more in the affected ear. Other factors that can cause conductive hearing loss include having a foreign object in the ear, experiencing otitis media or otitis externa, having a perforated eardrum, or developing otosclerosis.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.
On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.
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