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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding Chickenpox in adults is incorrect?
Your Answer: Can be caught from someone with shingles
Correct Answer: Children are infectious once rash begins until all lesions have scabbed over
Explanation:Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.
One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and bony metastases. Apart from mild urinary symptoms, he is otherwise well.
The local urology department has asked you to initiate 'hormone manipulation of your choice'.
What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?Your Answer: Bicalutamide 50 mg daily for three weeks, followed three days after initiation of the oral anti-androgen by goserelin 3.6 mg on a monthly basis
Correct Answer: Any of the below are equally valid
Explanation:Treatment options for metastatic prostate cancer
In the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer, any luteinising hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) analogue can be used, such as goserelin or leuprorelin. However, there is a small risk of tumour flare in patients with metastatic disease, so it is recommended to initiate LHRH analogue therapy with a short-term anti-androgen like bicalutamide or cyproterone acetate. This risk is minimal, but it is considered good practice to take precautions.
Once treatment has been established, three-monthly preparations of LHRH analogues are convenient for both patients and healthcare professionals. Anti-androgen mono-therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is not recommended. It is important to discuss all treatment options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue and weakness:
Hb 110 g/L (130-180)
RBC 3.8 ×1012/L (4.5-5.5)
Haematocrit 0.35 (0.40-0.52)
MCV 92 fL (80-100)
MCH 30 pg (27-32)
Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-450)
WBC 4.5 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 2.5 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
Lymphocytes 1.5 ×109/L (1.0-4.0)
Monocytes 0.3 ×109/L (0.2-1.0)
Eosinophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.4)
Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.1)
He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband has been feeling very tired and weak lately. Examination reveals no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient
This patient is exhibiting signs of a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture, except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. Macrocytosis caused by folate or B12 deficiency would typically result in anemia alongside the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss contradicts this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency of his migraines. He used to experience headaches once or twice a month, but over the past four months, he has had to take sumatriptan around 20 days a month. He occasionally combines it with co-codamol, but this doesn't alleviate the pain.
What is the best guidance you can offer this patient?Your Answer: Prophylaxis is only indicated if there are at least seven days disability per month
Correct Answer: Medication overuse headache must be excluded before starting prophylaxis
Explanation:Understanding Migraine Prophylaxis: Important Considerations
Migraine prophylaxis is a treatment option for individuals who experience frequent and debilitating migraines. However, before starting prophylaxis, it is crucial to rule out medication overuse headache, which can be caused by frequent use of acute drugs. If medication overuse headache is suspected, drug withdrawal is necessary.
It is important to note that prophylaxis is not a substitute for acute treatment. While prophylaxis can reduce the frequency of attacks, acute treatment will still be required when migraines occur. Acute treatment typically involves simple analgesia, triptans, and antiemetics.
When starting prophylaxis, it is essential to titrate the dose slowly to avoid side-effects that may lead to premature discontinuation. This slow dose titration can cause a delay in efficacy, which may trigger discontinuation. Therefore, a careful explanation is necessary.
Prophylaxis is only indicated if migraines are significantly impacting daily function and quality of life, such as occurring more than once per week or being severe despite treatment. Other indications for prophylaxis include the risk of medication overuse headache or if acute treatments are contraindicated or ineffective.
While NICE recommends propranolol, topiramate, or amitriptyline as the first-line approach for prophylaxis, triptans are used to manage acute attacks. Understanding these important considerations can help individuals make informed decisions about their migraine treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient who is participating in a clinical trial comes to your clinic for a flu shot. He is uncertain if it is permitted while he is in the trial, so his trial coordinator is consulted. The coordinator explains that the patient is part of a study involving 150 participants to evaluate the effectiveness and adverse effects of a new allergy medication, and receiving the vaccine should not be an issue.
What phase of the clinical trial is the 28-year-old patient in?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phase II
Explanation:The patient is participating in a phase II trial, which involves testing the efficacy and safety of the drug on several hundred patients. This is different from phase 0 trials, which are exploratory studies on a limited number of people, and phase I trials, which evaluate safety and doses on smaller groups of patients. Phase III trials involve comparing the treatment to a placebo or gold standard on thousands of people, while phase IV trials monitor the effectiveness and adverse effects of drugs and vaccines on the market.
Stages of Drug Development
Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.
Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.
Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.
If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.
In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 6
Incorrect
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In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism.
The risk of demonstrating either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism was therefore 5.77%.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the 1,500 cases of hypothyroidism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:Understanding Prevalence and Incidence
Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in epidemiology that help us understand the occurrence of a disorder in a population. Prevalence refers to the rate of a disorder in a specified population at a specified time. This means that it tells us how many people in a population have the disorder at a given point in time. On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disorder developing over a specific time. This means that it tells us how many new cases of the disorder have developed in a population over a certain period of time. Understanding these two concepts is crucial for healthcare professionals and researchers to identify the burden of a disorder in a population and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female has a history of aggressive, erosive rheumatoid arthritis over three years.
It remains poorly controlled despite good compliance with therapy (NSAIDs and methotrexate). She is now complaining of severe fatigue.
FBC shows:
Haemoglobin 72 g/L (120-160)
White cell count 1.4 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelet count 44 ×109/L (150-400)
What is the most likely cause of her pancytopenia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Pancytopenia in a Patient with Erosive Rheumatoid Arthritis
This patient is presenting with pancytopenia, which can be attributed to her history of erosive rheumatoid arthritis over the past three years. It is likely that she has been on immunosuppressive therapy, which can lead to this type of hematological condition.
There are several medications used in immunosuppressive therapy that can cause pancytopenia, including methotrexate, sulfasalazine, penicillamine, and gold. It is important to monitor patients on these medications for any signs of hematological abnormalities and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with drowsiness. Upon examination, he appears rigid. His concerned friends suspect neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following is not a typical feature of this condition?
Renal failure
16%
Pyrexia
5%
Elevated creatine kinase
6%
Usually occurs after prolonged treatment
68%
Tachycardia
5%
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often observed in patients who have just started treatment, and renal failure may result from rhabdomyolysis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment
Explanation:Patients who have recently started treatment are commonly affected by neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can lead to renal failure due to rhabdomyolysis.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs for Parkinson’s disease. It can also occur with atypical antipsychotics. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion. A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases.
Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. IV fluids are given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene may be useful in selected cases. Dantrolene works by decreasing excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptor and decreasing the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, may also be used. It is important to note that neuroleptic malignant syndrome is different from serotonin syndrome, although both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. He appears to be in good health and there are no signs of infection or fever. He reports a history of gout and suspects that it has returned. He is currently on a regular dose of allopurinol. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine
Explanation:Patients with an acute flare of gout who are already on allopurinol treatment should not discontinue it during the attack, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Colchicine is a suitable option for acute gout treatment, and oral steroids can be used if colchicine or NSAIDs are not tolerated. Hospital review on the same day is not necessary unless there are red flag features or evidence of a septic joint. Aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18) and calls the surgery on the Monday morning after a weekend away with her boyfriend to say that she has missed three of her combined oral contraceptive pills.
Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take pills to the end of her third week, start a new pack and use barrier contraception for a week
Explanation:Missed Birth Control Pills
When a woman misses three or more birth control pills in the third week of her cycle, she should complete the third week but skip the pill-free period and start a new pack immediately. This advice is according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH). It is also recommended to use barrier contraception for seven days. On the other hand, if only one pill is missed, the woman can maintain the pill-free week. It is not usually necessary to extend the pill-free period beyond seven days. However, emergency contraception may be necessary depending on when the pills were missed. It is important to review the latest FSRH guidance before taking any exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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