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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive at meal times, often shouting out incoherent phrases at staff and other residents. A general examination, urine dipstick and baseline blood tests were normal.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Offer non-pharmacological interventions, e.g. aromatherapy, animal-assisted therapy

      Correct Answer: Restrain the patient at meal times in case of violent behaviour

      Explanation:

      Managing Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia

      With Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD), it is crucial to identify and treat any reversible causes. However, in cases where there are no other symptoms and normal examination and investigations, empirical antibiotics should be avoided as they may lead to adverse clinical events such as Clostridium difficile. If conservative measures fail, it is advisable to seek advice from an elderly care physician who may recommend short-term use of medications such as haloperidol or lorazepam. It is important to note that restraining the patient during anticipated bad behaviour is not appropriate. By following these guidelines, we can effectively manage BPSD and improve the quality of life for patients with dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      35.9
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  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man complains of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination,...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man complains of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is observed. His blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      209
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling sensations in his left thumb and first finger. He reports difficulty in gripping objects and unintentionally dropping them. Upon examination, there is noticeable muscle wasting in the thenar eminence. What clinical sign would indicate a diagnosis other than carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Positive Tinnels test

      Correct Answer: Positive Hoffmans sign

      Explanation:

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is often misdiagnosed as carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) in patients who undergo surgery for the former. This highlights the importance of considering DCM as a differential diagnosis in patients suspected to have CTS.

      CTS is a peripheral nervous system disorder that results from compression of the median nerve at the wrist within the carpal tunnel. It affects only the aspects of the hand innervated by the median nerve, including sensation and motor function. Symptoms typically include intermittent pain or parasthesiae, and motor signs are less commonly seen.

      Tests such as Tinels and Phalens can be positive in CTS, but they are not always reliable. In contrast, examination features in focal central nervous system disorders like DCM have low sensitivity but high specificity. DCM affects the sensory, motor, and autonomic nervous systems from the neck downwards, and motor signs are typically upper motor neuron signs such as increased tone, hyper-reflexia, and pyramidal weakness.

      Detecting early DCM can be challenging, as the neurological signs are often subtle initially but likely to worsen over time. Therefore, a high index of suspicion, comprehensive neurological examination, and monitoring for progression are required.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old patient schedules a visit to discuss their yearly flu shot. They...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient schedules a visit to discuss their yearly flu shot. They have come across a research study that compared the vaccine to a placebo. The study found that among those who received the vaccine, 10% tested positive for the flu, while 30% in the placebo group did. The authors of the study conducted a statistical analysis to evaluate the relationship between the vaccine and getting the flu.

      Which statistical test would be appropriate for analyzing these findings?

      Your Answer: Chi-squared test

      Explanation:

      The appropriate statistical test for comparing proportions or percentages is the chi-squared test. For example, it can be used to compare the percentage of patients who improved following two different interventions. The Mann-Whitney U test is not applicable in this case as it is used for non-parametric data and compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data. Similarly, Pearson’s product-moment coefficient is not suitable as it is a parametric test that assesses correlation. The choice of significance test depends on whether the data is parametric or non-parametric.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 5 - A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practitioner, concerned that he is not developing...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practitioner, concerned that he is not developing normally. He is one of the shortest boys in his year group, and feels that his genitals are not the same as others in his year group. He is concerned that his voice has not ‘dropped’ and that he doesn't have pubic or axillary hair.
      On examination, he has no pubic, axillary, or facial hair. He has bilaterally descended testes, with a volume of 3 ml each. His father said he was himself a ‘late developer’.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Constitutional delay in puberty

      Explanation:

      Delayed puberty in boys is when there are no signs of puberty and the testicular volume is less than 4 ml by the age of 14. This occurs in 3% of the population and is often caused by constitutional delay, which is more common in boys and has a family history. In normal puberty, the first stage begins between ten and 12 years with testicular enlargement, followed by other changes such as penile and scrotal enlargement, pubic hair growth, facial hair growth, growth spurt, and voice changes. Kallmann syndrome is a rare inherited condition that causes hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and an impaired sense of smell. Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that causes hypogonadism, sparse facial and body hair, and infertility, but doesn’t fit with the short stature in this case. Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, obesity, hyperphagia, and cryptorchidism or hypogonadism, but there is no mention of obesity or hyperphagia in this case. This boy has started puberty, with testicular growth having started, and can expect normal developmental changes to continue in the usual sequence, though delayed compared with normal puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      52.6
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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South America. He complains of a lesion on his lower lip that has been ulcerating for the past 2 months. Upon examination, it is found that his nasal and oral mucosae are also affected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chagas disease

      Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      Leishmaniasis is the probable diagnosis for this patient, as the presence of a primary skin lesion accompanied by mucosal involvement is a typical indication of infection with Leishmania brasiliensis.

      Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites

      Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      153.8
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  • Question 7 - A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101 mmHg on home monitoring. Baseline bloods show a creatinine (Cr) of 95 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l) and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 80 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min). His urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.8 (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
      He is commenced on ramipril 2.5 mg once daily. He tolerates this well and returns to his General Practice Surgery for blood tests two weeks later, which show a Cr level of 125 µmol/l and an eGFR level of 62 mg/mmol.
      What is the most likely cause for the change in this man’s renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis (RAS)

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of acute kidney injury after starting ACE inhibitors

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure, but they can also cause a decline in renal function, especially in patients with renal artery stenosis (RAS). Therefore, it is important to monitor renal function before and after initiating or adjusting ACE inhibitors, especially in patients with risk factors for RAS. In this case, a patient who started ramipril developed a reduction in estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which was consistent with underlying RAS.

      Other potential causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient include dehydration, progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD), hypertensive nephropathy, and concomitant use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). However, the absence of relevant history or laboratory findings makes these diagnoses less likely. Dehydration can cause AKI, but there is no evidence of volume depletion or electrolyte imbalance. CKD is unlikely given the normal urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) and lack of prior renal dysfunction. Hypertensive nephropathy is a chronic condition that typically manifests as proteinuria and gradual decline in renal function, rather than an acute response to antihypertensive treatment. NSAIDs can exacerbate renal impairment in patients with preexisting renal insufficiency, but there is no indication that the patient was taking any NSAIDs.

      Therefore, the most likely explanation for the AKI in this patient is the use of ACE inhibitors, which can reduce intraglomerular pressure and renal perfusion in patients with RAS. This highlights the importance of considering the differential diagnosis of AKI in patients who start or change antihypertensive medications, especially ACE inhibitors, and monitoring renal function accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - Emma is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up...

    Incorrect

    • Emma is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw her 2 months ago for low mood and referred her for counselling. She states she is still feeling low and her feelings of anxiety are worsening. She is keen to try medication to help.

      Emma has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for Emma to commence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding women can safely take SSRIs such as sertraline or paroxetine as the amount of antidepressant passed on to the infant through breast milk is very low and not considered harmful. Therefore, it is recommended that women with postnatal depression continue to breastfeed while receiving antidepressant treatment.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 9 - In a study comparing a drug aimed at reducing the risk of cardiovascular...

    Incorrect

    • In a study comparing a drug aimed at reducing the risk of cardiovascular events with a placebo, data was collected from two groups of 1000 individuals each. The placebo group had 150 cardiovascular events while the drug treatment group had 100. What is the correct percentage absolute risk reduction based on these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Absolute Risk Reduction

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is a statistical measure used to determine the effectiveness of a drug or treatment. It is calculated by subtracting the percentage of events that occurred in the placebo group from the percentage of events that occurred in the group receiving the drug or treatment. For example, if the event rate in the placebo group is 15% and the event rate in the drug group is 10%, the ARR would be 5%. This measure provides valuable information about the actual benefit of a drug or treatment in reducing the risk of a particular event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      0
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  • Question 10 - A rare disease occurs quite randomly in 1 in 10000 of the population....

    Incorrect

    • A rare disease occurs quite randomly in 1 in 10000 of the population. A test has been developed for this disease that has a sensitivity of 99% and a specificity of 99%. A patient who is 50 years old has the test and the result is positive.
      Given this positive test, which of the following is the approximate likelihood of this patient having the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.01

      Explanation:

      Understanding Positive Predictive Value in Disease Testing

      Positive predictive value (PPV) is the likelihood that a person who tests positive for a disease truly has the disease. PPV depends on the prevalence of the disease in the population. For rare diseases, like the one in question, the PPV is low. For example, if 1 million people were tested, only about 100 would have the disease and 99 of those would be correctly diagnosed (99% sensitivity). However, about 9999 of the 999,900 people without the disease would falsely test positive (99% specificity). Therefore, the PPV would be approximately 0.0098 or <1%. The likelihood of a randomly selected person having the disease before testing is 0.0001, as the prevalence is 1 in 10,000. Sensitivity and specificity do not determine PPV. A higher prevalence of the disease in the population would result in a higher PPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 11 - You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had urea and electrolytes performed. You have access to her previous results from 6 months ago for comparison. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. During examination, her blood pressure is measured at 135/80 mmHg.

      Current blood test results:

      - Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 54 ml/min/1.73m2

      Blood test results from 6 months ago:

      - Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 122 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 55 ml/min/1.73m2

      What medication should be added to this woman's current regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      According to NICE criteria, patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of CVD. This patient meets the criteria as she has a persistent reduction in renal function. Antiplatelet treatment is not necessary for secondary prevention of CVD in this patient. Losartan is not required as her blood pressure is well controlled and a combination of renin-angiotensin system antagonists should not be prescribed to patients with CKD. Metformin has no role in the management of CKD in non-diabetic patients.

      Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - Which statement accurately defines the rates of true and false positive and negative...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately defines the rates of true and false positive and negative rates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The false-negative rate is calculated as (1 - sensitivity)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Medical Testing

      Medical testing is an essential tool for diagnosing and treating diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the accuracy of these tests. Sensitivity and specificity are two measures that help determine the effectiveness of a medical test. Sensitivity measures how well the test correctly identifies people who have the condition, while specificity measures how well the test correctly excludes people without the condition. A perfect test should have a sensitivity and specificity of 100%. The table provided can help candidates better understand how sensitivity and specificity are calculated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of the progesterone only pill for women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast cancer 3 years ago

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Progestogen Only Pill

      The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) is used to determine whether a woman is suitable for a particular type of contraceptive. The criteria categorize potential cautions and contraindications into four levels. UKMEC 1 indicates no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the advantages outweigh the disadvantages. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages generally outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk.

      Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions that may prevent a woman from taking the progestogen only pill include active liver disease or past tumour, liver enzyme inducers, breast cancer more than 5 years ago, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, and ischaemic heart disease and stroke (initiation = UKMEC2). On the other hand, UKMEC 4 conditions such as pregnancy and breast cancer within the last 5 years are considered unacceptable health risks and would prevent a woman from taking the progestogen only pill. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if the progestogen only pill is a suitable contraceptive option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently been initiated on insulin...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently been initiated on insulin therapy. He has a history of a heart attack 3 years ago and is currently taking a beta-blocker, calcium channel blocker, ace-inhibitor, statin, and GTN-spray. Which of his medications may cause a decreased recognition of hypoglycemic symptoms after starting insulin treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.

      Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in the Scottish Highlands ten days ago. He found an insect attached to the skin of her abdomen and removed it but is concerned it may have been a tick. She has now developed a circular erythematous rash that has begun to radiate out from the bite.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Lyme Disease: Early Manifestations and Treatment Options

      Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Its early manifestation is erythema chronicum migrans, which can progress to neurological, cardiovascular, or arthritic symptoms. Different strains of Borrelia spp. cause varying clinical manifestations, leading to differences in symptoms between countries. The disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. or deer ticks. Early use of antibiotics can prevent persistent, recurrent, and refractory Lyme disease. Antibiotics shorten the clinical course and progression.

      In patients with erythema migrans alone, oral drug therapies can be started in primary care. Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily or 200 mg once daily for 21 days) is the first choice for patients aged 12 years or older. Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily for 21 days) is the first alternative, while azithromycin (500 mg daily for 17 days) is the second alternative but should be avoided in patients with cardiac abnormalities caused by Lyme disease. If there is any suggestion of cellulitis, co-amoxiclav or amoxicillin and flucloxacillin alone would be more appropriate.

      In the USA, a single dose of 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal can prevent Lyme disease from developing. However, the risk in the UK is not high enough to warrant prophylactic antibiotics. Antibody testing in patients with erythema migrans is unhelpful as the rash develops before the antibodies. It is important to discuss management with a microbiologist, especially if there are further manifestations. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old male has just begun taking Pramipexole for his restless legs.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male has just begun taking Pramipexole for his restless legs.

      Which of the following parameters should be monitored during his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Counseling for Pramipexole Use

      When using Pramipexole, it is important to monitor blood pressure due to the risk of postural hypotension, especially during initiation. However, there is no need to check pulses, serum calcium, or liver function. Although renal function is not listed as an option, it is important to note that dosage adjustments or discontinuation may be necessary in the presence of reduced or abnormal renal function. Additionally, patients should be counseled about the potential for sudden onset of sleep and hypotensive reactions, which may affect their ability to operate machinery or drive. Proper monitoring and counseling can help ensure safe and effective use of Pramipexole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old female attends the diabetic annual review clinic.

    Her body mass index has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female attends the diabetic annual review clinic.

      Her body mass index has increased over the year to 33.3 kg/m2.

      How do you calculate body mass index?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight/(Height)2

      Explanation:

      Understanding BMI and its Implications

      Body:

      BMI, or Body Mass Index, is a crucial calculation in the field of anthropometry. It is determined by dividing an individual’s weight by the square of their height, and is measured in kg/m2. The resulting number can be used to categorize a person’s weight status into four groups: underweight (less than 18.5), normal (18.5-24.9), overweight (25-29.9), and obese (greater than 30).

      It is important to note that a BMI above 30 is considered obese and can have serious implications for an individual’s health. Studies have shown that obesity is linked to an increased risk of developing diabetes, cancer, osteoarthritis, and depression. Additionally, obesity can increase the risk of surgical complications, such as wound infection and dehiscence, venous thrombolembolism, incisional hernia, MI, and even death.

      Therefore, understanding BMI and its implications is crucial for maintaining good health and preventing potential health risks. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine an appropriate BMI range for an individual’s unique needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of bony pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of bony pain that has been present for several months, mainly affecting his left femur, pelvis, and lower back. His blood test shows a normal serum calcium level, but an elevated alkaline phosphatase. X-rays of the femur and pelvis reveal mixed lytic and sclerotic changes with accentuated trabecular markings. His chest X-ray is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease

      Explanation:

      Paget’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Paget’s disease is a bone disorder that affects approximately 2% of the population above 55 years of age. However, 90% of those affected are asymptomatic. The disease progresses through three phases, starting with lytic changes, followed by mixed lytic and sclerotic changes, and finally primarily sclerotic changes with increasing bony thickening. The new bone formed during the disease is disorganised, mechanically weaker, bulkier, less compact, more vascular, and prone to pathological fractures and deformities.

      The main goals of treatment for Paget’s disease are to normalise bone turnover, maintain alkaline phosphatase levels within the normal range, minimise symptoms, and prevent long-term complications. Bisphosphonates are the mainstay of treatment and are often given as intermittent intravenous courses.

      Long-term complications of Paget’s disease include deafness (in up to 50% of patients with skull-base Paget’s disease), pathological fractures, and, very rarely, osteogenic sarcoma.

      Other bone disorders, such as multiple myeloma, hyperparathyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, and secondary carcinoma, have different symptoms, diagnostic criteria, and treatments. Therefore, it is essential to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in elderly individuals. Assuming that IgE levels are normally distributed, what proportion of elderly individuals will have an IgE level greater than 2 standard deviations from the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 21 - A 28 year-old woman comes to you with a recent skin lesion. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year-old woman comes to you with a recent skin lesion. She is in good health but is currently 16 weeks pregnant. She reports that the lesion appeared four weeks ago and has grown quickly. Upon examination, you observe a bright red, nodular lesion that is 14mm in diameter and shows signs of recent bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Pyogenic Granuloma: A Common Benign Skin Lesion

      Pyogenic granuloma is a benign skin lesion that is relatively common. Despite its name, it is not a true granuloma nor is it pyogenic in nature. It is also known as an eruptive haemangioma. The cause of pyogenic granuloma is unknown, but it is often linked to trauma and is more common in women and young adults. The most common sites for these lesions are the head/neck, upper trunk, and hands. Lesions in the oral mucosa are common during pregnancy.

      Pyogenic granulomas initially appear as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress within days to weeks, forming raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed profusely or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously postpartum, while other lesions usually persist. Removal methods include curettage and cauterisation, cryotherapy, and excision.

      In summary, pyogenic granuloma is a common benign skin lesion that can be caused by trauma and is more common in women and young adults. It appears as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress into raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously, while other lesions usually persist and can be removed through various methods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She is concerned as her child is complaining of recurrent episodes of dull abdominal pain and missing significant days off school. Your physical examination is entirely normal.
      What would count most against a diagnosis of functional recurrent abdominal pain in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Above average intellectual ability

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children

      Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children over the age of five, with approximately 10% experiencing it. It is crucial to determine the nature of the pain, its impact on the child’s daily life, and how the child and their family cope with it. Organic causes, such as gastrointestinal, urological, haematological, and miscellaneous causes, must be ruled out. Non-organic pain is suggested by peri-umbilical pain, and vomiting may be present, but weight loss is rare. Other important questions to ask include the timing of the pain, associated symptoms, family history, and social history. Physical examination is often unhelpful, and investigations are unlikely to provide a diagnosis when non-organic pain is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP for a consultation. He is addicted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP for a consultation. He is addicted to intravenous heroin and asks for methadone substitution. What is true about methadone substitution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A starting dose of 10-30 mg methadone per day should be used

      Explanation:

      Guidance for Primary Care Practitioners on Substitute Prescribing for Opioid Dependence

      Managing opioid dependence in primary care requires a multidisciplinary approach, involving various healthcare professionals. General practitioners should only prescribe and treat within their level of competence and confidence, but referral to specialist services is not always necessary.

      Before prescribing any substitute medication, opioid dependence should be confirmed through history, examination, and toxicology screening. When prescribing methadone, it is important to start with a low dose and titrate up slowly to prevent overdosage. Methadone is excreted slowly in methadone-naive individuals, and deaths have been reported on doses as low as 40 mg. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, with increases of 5-10 mg a day and a maximum of 30 mg a week for the first two weeks. Optimal levels are usually between 60 mg and 120 mg a day.

      When initiating treatment in general practice, it is recommended to see the patient frequently at the outset to assess concordance and cumulative dosing effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 24 - A 12-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis comes to the clinic with abrupt onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis comes to the clinic with abrupt onset of intense pleuritic chest pain. There is no record of hemoptysis. During the examination, he has a normal body temperature but an elevated respiratory rate and reports sharp chest pain with every inhalation. The pain is localized to the right side of his chest. Auscultation reveals breath sounds on both sides. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax in Children with Cystic Fibrosis

      Pneumothorax is a known complication of cystic fibrosis, and sudden onset of severe pleuritic chest pain is a common symptom. However, only large pneumothoraces give the classic reduced breath sounds and hyperresonant percussion note. Children with congenital lung disease like cystic fibrosis may develop small pneumothoraces, which can be difficult to diagnose due to airflow limitation.

      If a child with cystic fibrosis presents with sudden onset of severe pleuritic chest pain, they should be referred to the hospital for a chest X-ray to confirm the diagnosis and assess the need for drainage. Pneumothoraces can also occur due to chest trauma or pneumonia infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 25 - During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.

      What is the most probable reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women

      This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.

      In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.

      It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 26 - A 62-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and a right-sided headache for the past 4 months. He also experiences jaw pain while eating. Upon fundoscopy, a swollen optic disc with flame-shaped haemorrhages is observed. Eye movements are painless. His ESR is found to be 100. What is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giant-cell arteritis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Ocular Vasculitis: A Brief Overview

      Ocular vasculitis is a group of disorders that affect the blood vessels in the eye. Here are some common causes of ocular vasculitis and their clinical features:

      Giant-cell arteritis: This large-vessel vasculitis mainly affects the temporal and ophthalmic arteries. It typically presents with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, and visual disturbance. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is usually elevated, and skip lesions are common.

      Central retinal vein occlusion: This condition may occur in chronic simple glaucoma, arteriosclerosis, hypertension, and polycythaemia. The fundus appears like a ‘stormy sunset’ with red haemorrhagic areas and engorged veins.

      Diabetic retinopathy: This is the most common cause of blindness in adults between 30 and 65 years of age in developed countries. It is characterised by microaneurysms, retinal haemorrhages, exudates, cotton-wool spots, neovascularisation, and venous changes.

      Polyarteritis nodosa: This necrotising vasculitis affects multiple systems and has variable manifestations, although it most commonly affects the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, the gut, and the kidney. Ocular involvement is rare.

      Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune disorder is characterised by dry mouth and dry eyes with variable lacrimal or salivary gland enlargement due to lymphocytic infiltration.

      Understanding the clinical features of these common causes of ocular vasculitis can aid in early diagnosis and prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary edema in a patient with a history of chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil exhibits the strongest negative inotropic effect among calcium channel blockers.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with age-related macular degeneration. He wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with age-related macular degeneration. He wants to know if he can do anything to prevent it from worsening.
      What is the most crucial preventive measure? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Preventing Age-Related Macular Degeneration: Strategies and Misconceptions

      Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a leading cause of vision loss in older adults. While some risk factors, such as age and genetics, cannot be modified, there are strategies that can help prevent or slow the progression of the disease. However, there are also misconceptions about certain interventions.

      Smoking cessation is the most important modifiable factor in preventing AMD. Current smokers have a two to three times higher risk of developing the disease compared to non-smokers. Quitting smoking can also reduce the risk of progression in those who already have AMD.

      Antioxidant supplements, specifically the AREDS2 formula containing vitamin C and E, lutein, zeaxanthin, zinc, and copper, may reduce the risk of progression by 25% in patients with intermediate AMD. However, there is no evidence to support their use in lesser disease or primary prevention.

      While some studies have suggested a benefit of eating oily fish, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends a diet rich in leafy green vegetables and fresh fruit to improve concentrations of macular pigment.

      There is no conclusive evidence that statins, medications used to lower cholesterol, have an effect on AMD progression. Similarly, treating hypertension, while a risk factor for AMD, doesn’t reduce the risk of developing the disease.

      In summary, smoking cessation and antioxidant supplements may be effective strategies for preventing or slowing the progression of AMD, while eating a healthy diet and managing other health conditions can also be beneficial. However, it is important to be aware of misconceptions about certain interventions and to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized recommendations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 29 - The mother of a 4-year-old, newly diagnosed with coeliac disease, is seeking advice...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 4-year-old, newly diagnosed with coeliac disease, is seeking advice on her child's diet.

      Which of the following foods is suitable for a gluten-free diet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Soy sauce

      Explanation:

      Understanding Coeliac Disease and the Importance of a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease affects 1 in 100 people, with a higher prevalence of 1 in 10 for those with a first-degree relative who has the condition. Patients with Coeliac disease must adhere to a strict gluten-free diet to avoid an increased risk of other diseases, such as small bowel lymphoma. Non-compliance with the diet is common, which can lead to symptoms and an increased risk of morbidity.

      It is important to understand the general principles of a gluten-free diet, including the risk of contamination from cross-contamination and food additives. Some items that may contain gluten, such as baking powder, stock cubes, and soy sauce, may not be obvious and should be avoided. On the other hand, there are many safe, naturally gluten-free cereals, such as rice flour, tapioca flour, and cornmeal.

      Checking a patient’s diet, compliance, and understanding is as important as checking inhaler technique in an asthmatic. While a detailed knowledge of a gluten-free diet is not expected, a broad understanding of the general principles is necessary to provide proper care for patients with Coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 67-year-old man who has no significant medical history of note other than gout

      Explanation:

      The pneumococcal vaccine is only necessary for asthmatics who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system. Having multiple sclerosis doesn’t warrant the pneumococcal vaccine. The 67-year-old man is eligible for the vaccine based on his age, not his medical background.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
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