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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
      Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

      Explanation:

      Common Infections in Kidney Transplant Patients

      Kidney transplant patients are at a higher risk of infections due to immunosuppression. In the first month post-transplant, infections are similar to those in non-immunosuppressed individuals. However, in the one-month to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6, hepatitis A, B and C viruses, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are most problematic. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but routine annual administration of the injectable inactivated vaccine is recommended. Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions and even disseminated or visceral disease. Pneumonia and urinary infections are also common, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation and prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after transplantation. A small group of patients may experience persistence of viral infections and are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 2 - A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter who has biliary atresia. He has been informed by the paediatric gastroenterologist that her condition has deteriorated and she requires a liver transplant. The father is feeling anxious and upset and is seeking further information about the procedure. As his GP, what is the best advice you can provide him regarding liver transplantation?

      Your Answer: Transplantation can only occur if the donor and recipient are human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-compatible

      Correct Answer: The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting Facts about Pediatric Liver Transplantation

      Pediatric liver transplantation is a complex medical procedure that involves replacing a diseased liver with a healthy one from a donor. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this life-saving surgery. Here are some myth-busting facts about pediatric liver transplantation:

      – The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C: A potential living donor with antibodies to hepatitis B and C would usually be ruled out as a donor.
      – HLA matching is necessary for kidney, heart, and lung transplants, but not for liver transplants: Blood-group compatibility is necessary, and a relative is more likely to be a match.
      – Immunosuppression is usually required for life, not just 12 months after transplant: While the regimen can be reduced with time, complete withdrawal is only successful in a small number of individuals.
      – Prednisolone is not the only immunosuppressant needed after transplant: A combination of drugs, including prednisolone, ciclosporin, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine, and sirolimus, are commonly used.
      – Survival at one year after liver transplantation is higher than 50% in children: One-year survival is 80% for all children transplanted and may reach 90% for children with biliary atresia.

      It is important to dispel these myths and provide accurate information about pediatric liver transplantation to help families make informed decisions about their child’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner during the summer. She has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner during the summer. She has suffered from mild asthma for many years, controlled with an inhaled short-acting beta-agonist (SABA). She has started working at a construction site and has noticed that her asthma is much worse, with daily symptoms. She has to use her current inhaler several times a day.
      On examination, her chest is clear. Her best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is 480 l/min. Today, her PEFR is 430 l/min.
      What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Start oral prednisolone, 30 mg a day for seven days

      Correct Answer: Start an inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      Managing Worsening Asthma Symptoms: Starting Inhaled Corticosteroids

      This patient’s asthma symptoms have worsened, likely due to exposure to allergens at the stable. While her chest is clear and her PEFR has only mildly dropped, her daily symptoms and use of SABA indicate poorly controlled asthma. The first step in managing her symptoms is to start an inhaled corticosteroid as part of the stepwise approach to asthma management. Urgent allergy testing or a home allergy testing kit are not necessary at this stage, and oral steroids are not yet indicated. Instead, allergen avoidance measures can be discussed. It is not necessary for the patient to stop working at the stable at this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-week history of a persistent dry cough, gradually worsening breathlessness on exertion and fevers. He usually easily walks for fifteen minutes to the park, but is now unable to walk there as he gets too breathless.
      On examination, he has difficulty taking a full breath due to painful inspiration, and has fine bilateral crackles on auscultation. Oxygen saturations drop from 96% to 90% on walking around the consulting room. He is a non-smoker with no significant past medical history but has had multiple prescriptions for bacterial skin infections and athlete's foot over the years with increasing frequency more recently.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Respiratory Presentation: A Case Study

      Possible diagnoses for a respiratory presentation can be numerous and varied. In this case study, the patient presents with a persistent dry cough, fever, increasing exertional dyspnoea, decreasing exercise tolerance, chest discomfort, and difficulty in taking a deep breath. The following are the possible diagnoses and their respective likelihoods:

      Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP): This is the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s symptoms and history of recurrent fungal infections. PCP is an opportunistic respiratory infection associated with HIV infection and can be fatal if diagnosed late.

      Pulmonary embolism (PE): Although this is a potentially fatal medical emergency, it is unlikely in this case as the patient has no suspicion of DVT, tachycardia, recent immobilisation, past history of DVT/PE, haemoptysis, or history of malignancy.

      Bronchiectasis: This is less likely as the patient’s persistent dry cough is not typical of bronchiectasis.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): This is also less likely as the patient is a non-smoker and has a shorter history of respiratory symptoms.

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF): This is a possibility, but the onset would generally be over a longer time course, and pleuritic chest pain is not a typical feature.

      In conclusion, PCP is the most likely diagnosis in this case, and the patient needs acute medical assessment and treatment. Other possible diagnoses should also be considered and ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 5 - A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother into the out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother into the out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts, and is waiting for an allergy clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party around 30 minutes ago, and quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
      You suspect anaphylaxis.
      What is the most appropriate immediate management option?

      Your Answer: Administer 300 µg 1 : 1000 adrenaline IM

      Explanation:

      Managing Anaphylaxis: Correct Doses and Emergency Treatment

      Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate drug management. Adrenaline 1 : 1000 is the correct immediate management choice, with doses varying depending on the patient’s age. For a 7-year-old child, the correct dose is 300 µg IM.

      In addition to adrenaline, other emergency drugs may be necessary, and it is important to attend the nearest emergency department for further treatment. Chlorphenamine is a sedating antihistamine that may be administered, but only after initial stabilisation and not as a first-line intervention. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms.

      It is crucial to administer the correct dose of adrenaline, as an overdose can be dangerous. The adult dose is 500 µg, while the dose for children aged between six and 12 years is 300 µg. A 1000 µg dose is twice the recommended dose for adults and should not be given to a 7-year-old child.

      In summary, managing anaphylaxis requires prompt and appropriate drug management, with correct doses of adrenaline and other emergency drugs. It is also important to seek further treatment at the nearest emergency department.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for a check-up. She has...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for a check-up. She has been diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus since she was 20 years old. Her diabetes is currently well managed, and she has no other medical conditions. There is no family history of diabetes.
      Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to develop? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Thyroid disease

      Explanation:

      The Link Between Diabetes and Other Medical Conditions

      Diabetes, a chronic metabolic disorder, is often associated with other medical conditions. Autoimmune diseases such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and Graves’ disease, which affect the thyroid gland, have a higher prevalence in women with diabetes. However, diabetes doesn’t increase the risk of developing giant cell arteritis (GCA) or polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), but the high-dose steroids used to treat these conditions can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes (T2DM). Anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction, is not linked to diabetes, but increased steroid use in asthmatic patients, a chronic respiratory condition, is a risk factor for developing T2DM. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune condition that causes widespread inflammation, doesn’t have a significant increased risk in diabetic patients, but steroid treatments used to treat SLE can increase the risk of developing T2DM. Understanding the link between diabetes and other medical conditions is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short notice. His daughter has been taken ill on her gap year and is in hospital in Thailand, and he wants to travel over there within a few days. He is on interferon and ribavirin for chronic asymptomatic hepatitis C infection, which was diagnosed six months ago. He was fully immunised as a child and was given some additional vaccinations on diagnosis with hepatitis C. He wants to know whether there is time to have any travel vaccinations before he travels.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination to offer, which can be given up to the day of travel?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (DTP)

      Explanation:

      The patient is planning to travel to Borneo and needs to know which vaccinations are appropriate to receive before departure. The DTP vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, is recommended and can be given up to the day of travel. Rabies vaccination is also advised for those visiting areas where the disease is endemic, but it requires a course of three injections over 28 days and cannot be given within days of travel. Hepatitis A is a common disease in many parts of the world and can be contracted through contaminated food and water, but the patient’s known diagnosis of hepatitis C means that she has likely already been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B. Hepatitis B is generally given as a course of injections over six months, which is not feasible for the patient’s short timeline. Japanese Encephalitis is rare in travelers and requires two separate injections a month apart, which doesn’t fit with the patient’s schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent cough that has lasted for the last four weeks, with breathlessness at rest. He sometimes does casual work as a labourer, but he is finding that he is unable to keep up with this work due to his breathlessness and generally feels fatigued and 'not well'.
      On further questioning, he reports night sweats and weight loss over the past 4-6 weeks. He is a non-smoker and is not on regular medication. He requests a course of antibiotics to make his cough better so he can get back to work.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Differential Diagnosis of a Persistent Cough

      A persistent cough can be a symptom of various respiratory conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. In the case of a homeless patient from Romania, the most likely diagnosis is pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), given the patient’s risk factors and symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, malaise, and breathlessness. To investigate this, three sputum samples and a chest X-ray should be arranged.

      While lung cancer can also present with similar symptoms, the patient’s young age and non-smoking status make this less likely. Asthma is unlikely given the absence of environmental triggers and the presence of additional symptoms. Bronchiectasis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is characterized by copious mucopurulent sputum production, which is not described in this case. Pulmonary fibrosis is rare in patients under 50 years old and doesn’t typically present with night sweats.

      In summary, a persistent cough can be indicative of various respiratory conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 9 - A woman in her 30s presents with an eczematous rash on her hands...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s presents with an eczematous rash on her hands suggestive of contact dermatitis, possibly related to wearing protective gloves at work. She requests confirmatory tests.
      Select the single test that is most likely to be helpful establishing the diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Measurement of specific IgE

      Correct Answer: Patch testing

      Explanation:

      Understanding Patch Testing for Contact Allergic Dermatitis

      Patch testing is a diagnostic tool used to identify substances that may be causing delayed hypersensitivity reactions, such as contact allergic dermatitis. This type of reaction occurs when the skin comes into contact with an allergen, resulting in a localized rash or inflammation. During patch testing, diluted chemicals are placed under patches on a small area of the back to produce a reaction. The chemicals included in the patch test kit are the most common offenders in cases of contact allergic dermatitis, including metals, rubber, leather, hair dyes, formaldehyde, lanolin, fragrance, preservatives, and other additives. If a patient has identified a possible allergen, such as shavings from the inside of gloves, it can be included in the test. Patches are removed after 48 hours, and the skin is inspected for reactions. The patient may return after 96 hours to check for late reactions.

      Skin-prick testing, intradermal testing, and measurement of specific IgE are used to investigate immediate hypersensitivity reactions. However, direct exposure to gloves is not usually helpful in diagnosing contact allergic dermatitis, as the patient needs to continue wearing them. Additionally, not all cases of hand eczema are allergic in origin and may be caused by constitutional eczema or irritant dermatitis. In these cases, patch testing may be negative or show an irrelevant result. Understanding patch testing and its limitations can help healthcare providers accurately diagnose and treat contact allergic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels itchy and has red blotchy skin and swollen lips and eyelids. He has an inspiratory stridor and wheeze, and an apex beat of 120/minute. He feels faint on standing and his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg.
      Select from the list the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer: Adrenaline intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaphylactic Reactions and Emergency Treatment

      Anaphylactic reactions occur when an allergen triggers specific IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, leading to the rapid release of histamine and other mediators. This can cause capillary leakage, mucosal edema, shock, and asphyxia. The severity and rate of progression of anaphylactic reactions can vary, and there may be a history of previous sensitivity to an allergen or recent exposure to a drug.

      Prompt administration of adrenaline and resuscitation measures are crucial in treating anaphylaxis. Antihistamines are now considered a third-line intervention and should not be used to treat Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilization, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms. Corticosteroids are no longer advised for the routine emergency treatment of anaphylaxis.

      The incidence of anaphylaxis is increasing, and it is not always recognized. It is important to understand the causes and emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions to ensure prompt and effective care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 11 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner because of atopic eczema....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner because of atopic eczema. Her patents enquire about the possible role of food allergy in her condition.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a food allergen exacerbating the eczema of this patient?

      Your Answer: Positive radioallergosorbent (RAST) test

      Correct Answer: Eczema not controlled by optimum management

      Explanation:

      Understanding Food Allergies and Atopic Eczema in Children

      Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. While it can be managed with proper treatment, some cases may not respond to standard therapies. In these situations, food allergies should be considered as a possible contributing factor. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, children with moderate to severe atopic eczema that has not been controlled with optimum management, particularly if associated with gut dysmotility or failure to thrive, should be evaluated for food allergies.

      Elevated levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) are often associated with atopic eczema and may indicate allergies to food or environmental allergens. However, these allergies may not be directly related to the eczema. While exclusive breastfeeding has been recommended to prevent the development of atopic eczema in susceptible infants, there is no evidence to support this claim.

      Allergy tests, such as prick tests and radioallergosorbent tests (RAST), may be used to identify potential allergens. However, false positives are common in individuals with atopic eczema due to the skin’s excessive sensitivity. If a true allergy is identified and exposure to the allergen worsens the eczema, removing the allergen may improve the condition.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between food allergies and atopic eczema is important for managing this common condition in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help improve symptoms and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 12 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother complaining of recurrent episodes of mouth, tongue, and lip itchiness shortly after eating bananas. The symptoms usually subside within half an hour. The child has a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. He has undergone allergy testing before, which revealed a positive result for birch pollen.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Angioedema can be triggered by drug-induced reactions or, in rare cases, other factors.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 13 - What is the appropriate advice to give to a patient with a confirmed...

    Correct

    • What is the appropriate advice to give to a patient with a confirmed food allergy?

      Your Answer: Food allergens may be encountered by routes other than ingestion e.g. skin contact, inhalation

      Explanation:

      Managing Food Allergies and Intolerances

      Food allergies and intolerances can be managed through food avoidance. Elimination diets should only exclude foods that have been confirmed to cause allergic reactions, and the advice of a dietician may be necessary. It is important to read food labels carefully, although not all potential allergens are included. Cross contact of allergens during meal preparation should be avoided, and high-risk situations such as buffets and picnics should be avoided as well. It is also important to note that there is a possibility of food allergen cross-reactivity, such as between cows’ milk and goats’ milk or between different types of fish. Additionally, there is a risk of exposure to allergens through routes other than ingestion, such as skin contact or inhalation during cooking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old teacher with a history of eczema, seasonal allergies and high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher with a history of eczema, seasonal allergies and high blood pressure visits her doctor complaining of itchy hives on her arms after wearing latex gloves for 30 minutes. She reports no difficulty breathing or facial swelling. Her vital signs are within normal range.
      What is the probable mechanism involved in this case?

      Your Answer: Contact irritant dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Characteristics

      Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause damage to the body. There are different types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with their own characteristics.

      Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity is a type of reaction that involves the release of antibodies against an antigen, resulting in mast cell degranulation and the release of inflammatory mediators. This type of reaction is characterized by the presence of weals and occurs within one hour of contact with the allergen. Atopic individuals, such as those with asthma and hay fever, are more susceptible to this type of reaction.

      Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions produce symptoms 48-72 hours after contact with an allergen. Allergic contact dermatitis is an example of this type of reaction, which causes redness, itching, swelling, blistering, or bumps on the skin.

      Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reactions occur when antibodies bind to antigens on the cell surface, interfering with cell function and marking the cells for destruction. This type of reaction is the basis for autoimmune diseases and haemolytic diseases in newborns.

      Contact irritant dermatitis occurs when irritants remove oils and natural moisturizing factors from the skin, allowing chemical irritants to penetrate the skin barrier and trigger inflammation. This type of reaction presents acutely with redness, papules, swelling, and blistering, and progresses to redness, dryness, and cracking in the chronic stage.

      Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies bind to free-floating antigens, forming antigen-antibody complexes that can deposit in susceptible tissue and cause inflammation and damage. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an example of a disease caused by this mechanism.

      Understanding the Different Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising injections can help him overcome it.
      Which of the following ‘allergic conditions’ is the one for which allergen immunotherapy (desensitising vaccines) is most commonly recommended?

      Your Answer: Hypersensitivity to bee and wasp stings

      Explanation:

      Allergy Treatment Options for Different Types of Allergies

      Bee and Wasp Sting Hypersensitivity:
      Patients who have a systemic reaction to bee or wasp stings should be referred to an allergy specialist. The first line of investigation is to demonstrate specific IgE by skin testing to both bee and wasp venom. Serum tryptase should also be measured to indicate the risk of future severe reactions. Patients should receive a written emergency management plan, an adrenaline auto-injector, and be educated in its use. Venom immunotherapy is effective in treating this type of allergy.

      Peanut Allergy:
      Desensitization is not widely used to treat food allergy because of the risk of anaphylaxis. The British National Formulary approves its use only for bee and wasp venom and pollen allergy.

      Allergic Rhinitis:
      Desensitization is available for severe seasonal rhinitis that has not responded to drugs. Sublingual or subcutaneous administration can be used, but it is recommended that only specialists use them due to concerns about the safety of desensitizing vaccines.

      Chronic Urticaria:
      Chronic urticaria doesn’t normally have an allergic cause. Chronic spontaneous urticaria may be autoimmune, while chronic inducible urticaria is due to physical stimuli such as heat, cold, pressure, and sweating.

      Contact Allergic Dermatitis:
      This type of allergy is not IgE-mediated but rather a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In contrast, bee and wasp venom and pollen allergies are IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man has a tonic-clonic seizure in the Emergency Room waiting area....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has a tonic-clonic seizure in the Emergency Room waiting area. He is stabilized and admitted to the hospital as he is not known to be epileptic. He has had several consultations over the past few weeks with joint pains, fatigue, weight loss, a facial rash, and dry eyes. He has been referred to hematology as he has a macrocytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. He is not currently taking any medication.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sjögren syndrome

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects multiple systems in the body. Symptoms include weight loss, joint pain and swelling, lethargy, and lymphadenopathy. SLE can also cause hematological abnormalities such as lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, and hemolytic anemia, which can result in macrocytosis. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, peripheral neuropathy, and psychiatric problems can also occur. A malar/butterfly rash across the cheeks and bridge of the nose is a typical feature of SLE, as is dry mouth, which may be due to Sjögren syndrome, a condition commonly associated with SLE.

      Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with proximal symmetrical myositis and skin rashes, including a heliotrope rash on the eyelids, Gottron’s papules on the hands, and nail changes. However, the seizure and hematological abnormalities described in this case are not typical of dermatomyositis.

      Diabetes mellitus may cause weight loss, dry mouth, and lethargy, but joint pain and hematological abnormalities are not typical. Hypoglycemia may cause seizures in patients on diabetes treatment, but this patient is not taking any medication.

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain and multiple tender points on examination. It may also cause lethargy and psychological problems, but seizures are not associated with this condition, and investigations are usually normal.

      Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that causes dryness of the eyes and mouth. While it may explain the dry mouth, it doesn’t account for all the other symptoms listed. Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs independently, but secondary Sjögren syndrome is commonly associated with SLE or rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 17 - A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts and is waiting for an Allergy Clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party about 30 minutes ago and has quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Administer 300 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline IM

      Explanation:

      Correct and Incorrect Management Options for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate management. The correct management options include administering adrenaline 1:1000 intramuscularly (IM) at appropriate doses based on the patient’s age and weight. However, there are also incorrect management options that can be harmful to the patient.

      One incorrect option is administering chlorphenamine IM. While it is a sedating antihistamine, it should not be used as a first-line intervention for airway, breathing, or circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation.

      Another incorrect option is advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department instead of administering immediate drug management. Out-of-hours centres should have access to emergency drugs, including adrenaline, and GPs working in these settings should be capable of administering doses in emergencies.

      It is also important to administer the correct dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age and weight. Administering a dose that is too high, such as 1000 µg for a 7-year-old child, can be harmful.

      In summary, the correct management options for anaphylaxis include administering adrenaline at appropriate doses and avoiding incorrect options such as administering chlorphenamine IM or advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department without administering immediate drug management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 18 - What is a contraindication for pregnant women receiving the pertussis vaccination to protect...

    Correct

    • What is a contraindication for pregnant women receiving the pertussis vaccination to protect their unborn infants?

      Your Answer: Anaphylactic reaction to neomycin

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Vaccine Information

      Most combined vaccine formulations for pertussis contain neomycin. However, the only reason an individual cannot receive the vaccine is if they have an anaphylactic reaction. Boostrix-IPV is an inactivated vaccine that will not be affected by anti-D treatment. Even if a pregnant woman has a feverish illness or suspected whooping cough, the pertussis vaccine should still be offered to provide optimal antibody levels for the baby. Evidence shows that immunization during pregnancy can increase pertussis antibodies in breast milk, potentially protecting the baby from the illness. However, this doesn’t replace the need for the infant to complete the recommended primary immunization schedule.

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  • Question 19 - A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with...

    Correct

    • A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with complaints of nasal congestion, itchy eyes and throat irritation that usually occur during the spring months. What is the best guidance to offer this mother regarding the management of her son's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Avoid drying washing outdoors when pollen count is high

      Explanation:

      Managing Seasonal Allergic Rhinitis: Tips for Reducing Pollen Exposure

      Seasonal allergic rhinitis is a condition where the nasal mucosa becomes sensitized to allergens, such as pollen, causing inflammation and symptoms like sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes. To reduce pollen exposure, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends avoiding drying laundry outdoors when pollen counts are high. Showering and washing hair after potential exposure can also help alleviate symptoms. While the tree pollen season can start as early as March, there is no need to eat locally produced honey or resort to ineffective nasal irrigation with saline. By following these simple tips, individuals with seasonal allergic rhinitis can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man with a chronic medical condition has had two recent upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a chronic medical condition has had two recent upper respiratory tract infections that have been prolonged and complicated with sinusitis and bronchitis. His general practitioner is concerned that the patient may have a secondary immunodeficiency due to the chronic medical condition (rather than being caused by the medication used to treat his condition).
      Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a secondary immunodeficiency?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immunodeficiency in Various Medical Conditions

      Immunodeficiency is a condition where the immune system is weakened, making individuals more susceptible to infections. While some medical conditions are directly associated with immunodeficiency, others are not. Chronic kidney disease, particularly end-stage disease requiring dialysis, is linked to secondary immunodeficiency, making patients vulnerable to infections such as sepsis, peritonitis, influenza, tuberculosis, and pneumonia. Similarly, some disease-modifying drugs used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis have immunomodulatory and immunosuppressive effects, increasing the risk of infection. Asthma and psoriasis are not typically associated with immunodeficiency, but long-term use of oral corticosteroids and certain medications used to treat severe psoriasis can increase the risk of infection. Rheumatoid arthritis is not a direct cause of immunodeficiency, but disease-modifying drugs used in its treatment can increase the risk. Overall, drug treatment is a common cause of secondary immunodeficiency, with cancer treatment being a significant concern. Other causes include HIV, surgery or trauma, and malnutrition. Understanding the relationship between various medical conditions and immunodeficiency is crucial in managing patient care and preventing infections.

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  • Question 21 - A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut allergy. She asks you about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis.
      Which of the following pieces of information about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis is correct?

      Your Answer: Injections can be self-administered at home

      Correct Answer: Gradually increasing amounts of allergen are injected

      Explanation:

      Hyposensitisation: Gradual Exposure to Allergens for Allergy Treatment

      Hyposensitisation, also known as immunotherapy, is a treatment that involves gradually exposing a patient to increasing amounts of an allergen to reduce or eliminate their allergic response. The British National Formulary recommends this treatment for seasonal allergic hay fever and hypersensitivity to wasp and bee venoms that have not responded to anti-allergic drugs. However, it should be used with caution in patients with asthma.

      The treatment typically lasts four weeks and can be administered through different dosing schedules, including conventional, modified rush, and rush. In a conventional schedule, injections are given weekly for 12 weeks, with the interval increasing stepwise to two, three, then four weeks. Maintenance treatment is then continued four weekly for at least three years.

      Immunotherapy is recommended for patients with a history of severe systemic reactions or moderate systemic reactions with additional risk factors, such as a high serum tryptase or a high risk of stings, or whose quality of life is reduced by fear of venom allergy. Skin testing can be done, and measuring allergen-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies is less sensitive.

      Patients need referral to an immunotherapy specialist, and injections can be self-administered at home. However, a healthcare professional who can recognize and treat anaphylaxis should be present at the time of injection, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation facilities should be available. The patient should be observed for one hour after injection, and any symptoms, even if mild, need to be monitored until they resolve.

      While local or systemic reactions may occur, including anaphylaxis, major side-effects are not a significant risk. However, risks are higher in people with asthma. Overall, hyposensitisation can be an effective treatment for allergies that have not responded to other therapies.

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  • Question 22 - Immunodeficiency is most likely to result from which of the following conditions? Please...

    Correct

    • Immunodeficiency is most likely to result from which of the following conditions? Please select one option.

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Causes of Secondary Immunodeficiency

      Secondary immunodeficiency can be caused by various factors such as lymphoreticular malignancy, drugs, viruses, malnutrition, metabolic disorders, trauma or major surgery, and protein loss. Lymphoma, myeloma, cytotoxic drugs, and immunosuppressants like corticosteroids are some of the common causes of secondary immunodeficiency. HIV is also a significant cause of secondary immunodeficiency. Malnutrition, particularly protein calorie deficiency, is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiency worldwide. Metabolic disorders like renal disease requiring peritoneal dialysis can also lead to secondary immunodeficiency. Trauma or major surgery and protein loss due to nephrotic syndrome or ulcerative or erosive gastrointestinal disease can also cause secondary immunodeficiency. While heart failure, lung cancer, and polycythemia are consequences of HIV infection, sarcoidosis has been reported to occur in patients with common variable immunodeficiency.

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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man presents for his first seasonal influenza vaccination. He reports a...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents for his first seasonal influenza vaccination. He reports a history of anaphylaxis and carries an epipen. What would be a contraindication to administering the vaccine?

      Your Answer: Food allergy to egg

      Explanation:

      Being mindful of contraindications for the influenza vaccine is crucial. The presence of ovalbumin, an egg protein, in the regular influenza vaccine may lead to anaphylaxis in individuals with a severe egg allergy. To address this concern, egg protein-free vaccines such as Optaflu are accessible for these patients.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw spinach, apple, and strawberries, which subsides within 15 minutes. She has a history of birch pollen allergy but no other medical conditions.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Contact irritant dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Urticarial reactions can be caused by various factors, including drug-induced angioedema or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency. Contact irritant dermatitis is usually the result of prolonged exposure to a mild irritant, but it doesn’t typically produce a rapid and predictable response that resolves quickly. Lip licking dermatitis is a form of skin inflammation that occurs when saliva from repeated lip licking causes redness, scaling, and dryness of the lips.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

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  • Question 25 - What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list?

      Your Answer: Infection with common parasites e.g. worms and toxoplasmosis in childhood significantly increases the risk of developing allergy

      Correct Answer: Allergy is more common in developed areas than rural areas

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes and Patterns of Allergies

      Allergies have become increasingly prevalent in recent years, affecting up to 30-35% of people at some point in their lives. This rise is seen not only in developed countries but also in those undergoing development. The causes of allergies are multifactorial, with both environmental and genetic factors playing a role. Outdoor pollution, particularly diesel exhaust particles, has been linked to an increase in respiratory allergies. The hygiene hypothesis suggests that inadequate exposure to environmental micro-organisms during childhood may result in a tendency towards allergy. This is supported by studies showing that children with regular contact with farm animals have a lower incidence of allergy. The pattern of allergy is also changing, with a significant increase in food allergies, particularly among children. Immunotherapy for allergies should only be carried out in hospital where facilities for resuscitation are immediately available.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman is experiencing perennial rhinitis and has found relief from antihistamines...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is experiencing perennial rhinitis and has found relief from antihistamines and an intranasal corticosteroid. She is seeking a refill and has questions about her condition, including why she doesn't only experience symptoms in the summer like some of her acquaintances. She is also curious about the possibility of testing. What is the most suitable explanation?

      Your Answer: Patch tests are indicated

      Correct Answer: Mainly adults have this condition

      Explanation:

      Understanding Perennial Rhinitis: Causes and Diagnosis

      Perennial rhinitis is a condition that occurs throughout the year, and it is more common in adults than in children. While seasonal rhinitis is more likely to affect older children and adolescents, perennial rhinitis is persistent and can be caused by various allergens, including house-dust mites, feathers, animal dander, or allergens at work.

      Skin-prick testing is the most sensitive way to investigate the condition, as it measures specific IgE antibodies in the blood. However, it may not always be sensitive enough, and other tests, such as patch testing, may be indicated.

      It is important to note that not all cases of perennial rhinitis have an allergic cause, but the response to medication can often provide clues. If an allergic cause is suspected, avoidance measures may be considered to manage symptoms.

      Overall, understanding the causes and diagnosis of perennial rhinitis can help individuals manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 27 - A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with facial swelling that started 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with facial swelling that started 6 hours ago. She is a busy lawyer and has important court cases this week. During the examination, her lips are found to be swollen. Her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg and her pulse rate is 80 beats per minute. She reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chlorphenamine

      Correct Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs exhibited by this woman suggest the presence of angioedema, which is a condition characterized by swelling of the connective tissue beneath the skin in response to a trigger. Unlike anaphylaxis, angioedema doesn’t affect breathing or vital signs. antihistamines are effective in treating this condition, while adrenaline is not necessary as it is primarily used to treat anaphylaxis. Hydrocortisone is also used to treat anaphylaxis, but it is not recommended for angioedema. Furosemide is typically prescribed for leg swelling caused by heart failure and is not suitable for treating angioedema. Chlorphenamine and loratadine are both effective in reducing swelling caused by angioedema, but since the woman has an important job that requires full concentration, loratadine would be the better option as it is a non-sedating antihistamine.

      Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment

      Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old medical student is required to give a blood sample to check...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old medical student is required to give a blood sample to check his hepatitis B status. He received a course of vaccinations nine months ago.
      Which of the following is this patient’s blood test most likely to show?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) + hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg)

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves checking for various antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here is a breakdown of what each result means:

      Anti-HBs: This antibody indicates that a person has been vaccinated against hepatitis B.

      Anti-HBsAb + anti-HBc: The presence of both antibodies suggests that a person has had a past infection with hepatitis B and is now immune.

      Anti-HBeAb: This antibody indicates that a person is less infectious and is recovering from an acute infection.

      HBsAg + HBcAg: The presence of both antigens suggests that a person is currently infected with hepatitis B.

      Immunoglobulin M to HBcAg: The presence of this antibody indicates that a person has recently been infected with hepatitis B.

      Understanding these test results can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections.

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  • Question 29 - A father has called to report that his preteen son is experiencing breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A father has called to report that his preteen son is experiencing breathlessness and swelling about ten minutes after being stung by a bee. The boy's condition has worsened since the sting and he is now having increased difficulty breathing, although he can still speak in complete sentences. Currently, he is lying on the couch and appears to be unwell. An initial diagnosis of anaphylaxis is suspected. They reside in the same town as your clinic, and the father has transportation and is willing to bring his son to the clinic. How would you handle this situation?

      Your Answer: An emergency ambulance should be called

      Explanation:

      Managing Anaphylaxis: The Importance of Immediate Medical Attention

      Anaphylaxis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. If a patient presents with symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as difficulty breathing, swelling, and hives, it is crucial to call for an ambulance right away. Basic life support and possible cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) may be necessary.

      Transporting the patient in a personal vehicle should only be considered if there are no other options. In most cases, an emergency ambulance will be quicker at responding. If the patient presents at a medical facility, adrenalin should be administered intramuscularly, along with antihistamines and steroids. Adrenalin can be repeated after five minutes if the patient is not responding.

      While the use of auto-inject pens is debated, some GPs trained in this area do prescribe them. It is important to remember that anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Delaying treatment can have serious consequences.

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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department feeling fatigued and short of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department feeling fatigued and short of breath. During the examination, her haemoglobin level is measured at 70 g/l (normal range: 115–155 g/l), and her serum vitamin B12 level is found to be 95 ng/l (normal range: 130–700 ng/l). Which of the following positive tests would suggest that pernicious anaemia is the likely cause of her vitamin B12 deficiency?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor (IF) antibody

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies in the Diagnosis of Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of megaloblastic anaemia caused by impaired absorption of vitamin B12 due to autoimmune destruction of gastric glands and loss of intrinsic factor (IF). IF antibodies, specifically type I and type II, are present in 50% of patients with pernicious anaemia and are specific to this disorder. Therefore, they can be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Other autoantibodies, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and gastric anti-parietal cell (GPC) antibodies, are not specific to pernicious anaemia but may be present in some patients. ANA is used in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus and other autoimmune diseases, while GPC antibodies occur in 90% of patients with pernicious anaemia but are also positive in 10% of normal individuals.

      Tests such as the Coombs test, which detect antibodies that attack red blood cells, are not used in the investigation of pernicious anaemia. Similarly, the immunoglobulin A tissue transglutaminase measurement is not diagnostic of pernicious anaemia but is used as the first-choice test for suspected coeliac disease in young people and adults.

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  • Question 31 - As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from both yourself and GP registrars who frequently prescribe antihistamines for itchy conditions. Your goal is to determine the scenario in which a non-sedating antihistamine would be most effective. Please select the ONE option that best fits this scenario.

      Your Answer: A 50-year-old woman with a 5 cm diameter local reaction 48 hours after a wasp sting

      Correct Answer: A 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines: Uses and Limitations in Various Skin Conditions

      Urticaria, Chickenpox, atopic eczema, local reactions to insect stings, and general pruritus are common skin conditions that may benefit from antihistamines. However, the effectiveness of antihistamines varies depending on the underlying cause and the individual’s response.

      For a 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria, non-sedating H1 antihistamines are the first-line treatment. If the first antihistamine is not effective, a second one may be tried.

      A 4-year-old girl with Chickenpox may benefit from emollients and sedating antihistamines to relieve pruritus. Calamine lotion may also be used, but its effectiveness decreases as it dries.

      Antihistamines are not routinely recommended for atopic eczema, but a non-sedating antihistamine may be tried for a month in severe cases or when there is severe itching or urticaria. Sedating antihistamines may be used for sleep disturbance.

      For a 50-year-old woman with a local reaction to a wasp sting, antihistamines are most effective when used immediately after the sting. After 48 hours, they are unlikely to have a significant impact on the local reaction.

      Finally, for a 65-year-old man with general pruritus but no rash, antihistamines may be prescribed, but their effectiveness is limited as histamine may not be the main cause of the pruritus.

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  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over the past year. She has noticed several pale patches on her fingers and wrists of both hands, as well as similar areas on her abdomen.
      She had a history of mild acne in her teenage years, treated with topical creams and antibiotics.
      Upon examination, there are well-defined, white lesions on the dorsum of both hands over the fingers and on the palmar surface of both wrists. The borders are smooth. The lesions are flat and non-itchy.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tinea versicolor

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Symmetrical Acquired Depigmentation

      Symmetrical acquired depigmentation is a common skin condition that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the history and examination findings suggest vitiligo as the most likely diagnosis. Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder that results in the destruction of melanocytes in the skin, leading to smooth, well-demarcated, milky white lesions with no scale. It can occur alone or alongside other autoimmune disorders.

      Other possible differentials include lichen sclerosus, which is a chronic skin disorder that affects the genital and perianal areas, but is usually seen in women over the age of 50 and doesn’t affect the hands. Pityriasis alba, characterised by flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation on the skin, is generally asymptomatic and often found on the cheeks and upper arms, but is unlikely in this patient as there is no history of flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation. Tinea versicolor, a common yeast infection of the skin, appears as flaky discoloured patches on the chest and back, but there are no lesions on the trunk seen in this patient and no indication that the lesions are flaky.

      Lastly, steroid-induced skin depigmentation is unlikely in this patient as the steroid use was historical and ceased 13 years ago, and only involved mildly potent steroids.

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  • Question 33 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?

      Your Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity

      Explanation:

      postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery

      Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:

      1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.

      2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.

      3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.

      4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.

      5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.

      6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.

      In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.

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  • Question 34 - A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as...

    Correct

    • A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as they are concerned about his development. He was born at term. He was a little slow to crawl but started walking at around 18 months. He has never had much speech. In the last few weeks, he has stopped walking and stopped feeding himself. He has started clapping his hands every few minutes and at times seems very distressed and screams. He has not been unwell with a fever or recent illness. The is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child in the video exhibits symptoms of a rare neurological genetic disorder called Rett syndrome. This condition is caused by a random mutation of the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome and typically affects girls between six and 18 months of age. Symptoms include delayed speech, muscle weakness, and jerky hand movements, which can be distressing for the individual. Other possible symptoms include microcephaly, seizures, and scoliosis. Sturge-Weber syndrome, Angelman syndrome, phenylketonuria, and encephalitis are unlikely diagnoses based on the absence of specific symptoms and history.

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  • Question 35 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review after undergoing a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review after undergoing a renal transplant three months ago. The GP notes that the patient's medication was changed following the transplant, with the addition of immunosuppressant medication. What is the most probable immunosuppressive drug regimen for this patient?

      Your Answer: Mycophenolatemofetil (MMF), prednisolone, tacrolimus

      Explanation:

      After a renal transplant, patients require immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection. There are four classes of maintenance drugs: calcineurin inhibitors, antiproliferative agents, mammalian target of rapamycin inhibitors, and steroids. Mycophenolate mofetil is a cost-efficient antiproliferative agent that reduces the risk of acute rejection by 50%. Prednisolone is a steroid that is typically used in low doses and gradually reduced over several months. Azathioprine may also be used in initial therapy, but a calcineurin inhibitor is necessary. Basiliximab may be used for induction therapy within four days of the transplant. Ciclosporin and prednisolone are both used for maintenance immunosuppression, but require an antiproliferative agent to complete the regimen. Sirolimus may be used with a corticosteroid in patients intolerant of calcineurin inhibitors, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines.

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  • Question 36 - A 54-year-old man comes to the general practice clinic to discuss his aftercare:...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the general practice clinic to discuss his aftercare: he was discharged from hospital six weeks ago after a successful liver transplant. He is being treated by the local liver unit and has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and liver cirrhosis caused by alcohol consumption. He is also a smoker. He has some concerns about his ongoing care and would like some guidance on lifestyle issues and managing his blood pressure. What is the best advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer: Statins are not safe for use following a liver transplant

      Correct Answer: The use of nicotine patches is safe post liver transplant

      Explanation:

      Post-Liver Transplant Patient Care: Important Considerations

      Liver transplant patients require specialized care to ensure optimal outcomes. Here are some important considerations:

      Encourage smoking cessation: Smoking can promote fibrosis and increase the risk of hepatoma development. Nicotine replacement therapy is a safe option.

      Limit alcohol intake: For non-alcohol indications, maintaining alcohol intake below 14 units/week is appropriate to prevent significant relapse and graft damage.

      Encourage exercise: Exercise can provide cardiovascular benefits and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Strenuous exercise should be avoided for the first 12 months after transplant.

      Consider statins: Pravastatin and atorvastatin are safe and effective for managing hypertriglyceridaemia following a liver transplant.

      Use calcium channel blockers for hypertension: These drugs have minimal side effects and do not interact with calcineurin inhibitors like tacrolimus.

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  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of progressive tiredness. She has been working alternative night and day shifts for many months. In the last two months she has experienced intermittent constipation. She reports that her diet is not great because of these awkward shift patterns but that she doesn't restrict it. She thinks she may have lost a small amount of weight over this period. Her legs ache after a long shift and that the tan she obtained in the summer seems to have lingered.
      She has no significant previous illness and doesn't take any regular medications.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 222 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 56 µmol/l 45–84 µmol/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/l 9–24 pmol/l
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.2 mU/l 0.4–4.0 mU/l
      Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 39 mmol/mol < 41 mmol/mol
      Ferritin 50 ng/ml 10–300 ng/ml
      Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with fatigue, weight loss, and electrolyte abnormalities

      Addison’s disease: The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the adrenal glands and leads to a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. The gradual onset of symptoms, including fatigue, weight loss, muscle aches, constipation, and hyperpigmentation, along with mild hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, are consistent with this diagnosis.

      Subclinical hypothyroidism: Although the patient has some symptoms that could be attributed to low thyroid hormone levels, her thyroid function tests are normal, making this diagnosis less likely.

      Dietary related hyponatremia: Mild hyponatremia in a young person is unlikely to be caused by dietary differences or deficiency, suggesting a pathological process.

      Renal disease: While electrolyte abnormalities could be a sign of renal insufficiency, the patient’s normal urea and creatinine levels make this diagnosis less likely.

      Cushing’s disease: Although some symptoms, such as fatigue and muscle weakness, could be attributed to excess cortisol, other expected symptoms, such as weight gain and high blood sugar, are not present in this patient.

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      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 38 - A 28-year-old woman arrived as an immigrant in the UK two years ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman arrived as an immigrant in the UK two years ago, and it is not clear what vaccines she has received in her own country. You enquire about her immune status relating to measles.
      What is the minimum requirement to satisfy you that she is immune to measles?

      Your Answer: A documented history of receiving a single mumps, measles, rubella (MMR) dose

      Correct Answer: Rubella-virus-specific immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies in the serum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rubella Immunity: Factors to Consider

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can have serious consequences for pregnant women and their unborn babies. To prevent maternal infection and congenital rubella syndrome, it is important to ensure immunity through vaccination or past infection. Here are some factors to consider when assessing rubella immunity:

      – MMR Vaccine: The MMR vaccine is recommended for children and adults, with a two-dose schedule providing the best protection. A single dose can still offer high levels of immunity, but a booster may be necessary.
      – Immunisation History: Individuals who have received rubella-containing vaccines in their country of origin may have some level of immunity, but it is important to verify their vaccination status. Those without a reliable history of immunisation should be assumed as unimmunised.
      – Childhood History: A history of rubella in childhood may indicate immunity, but it can be difficult to diagnose. Other viral exanthems can have similar symptoms, so a clinical diagnosis may not be reliable.
      – Rubella Antibodies: The presence of rubella-virus-specific IgG antibodies in the serum indicates immunity from past infection or immunisation. However, immunity can wear off over time, so it is important to check immunity levels before every pregnancy. Rubella-virus-specific IgM antibodies in the serum can indicate recent or current infection, but these antibodies can persist for up to 12 months after infection or immunisation.

      By considering these factors, healthcare providers can help ensure that individuals are protected against rubella and its potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 39 - A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local hospital. She has been feeling tired and emotional throughout her course of chemotherapy so far, but presents to the Duty Clinic as today, she is feeling more tired than usual, with no appetite and she has been feeling hot and cold at home and struggling to get comfortable.
      On examination, you find she has a temperature of 38.5 oC, but no focal symptoms, and her respiratory and pulse rates and blood pressure are all within normal limits.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe intravenous (IV) antibiotics for use in the community to avoid the risk of hospital admission

      Correct Answer: Emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Chemotherapy Patient

      Neutropenic sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of neutropenia, commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy. In a patient with fever and neutropenia, neutropenic sepsis should be suspected, and emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review is necessary. Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics or offering emotional support is not the appropriate management in this situation. The patient requires inpatient monitoring and treatment, as per the ‘sepsis six’ bundle of care, to avoid the risk of sudden deterioration. It is crucial to recognize the urgency of this situation and act promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 40 - A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of persistent urticaria, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of persistent urticaria, which he has experienced over the last six months. He obtains relief by taking antihistamine tablets. He takes no other medications and has restricted his diet to fresh food in an attempt to reduce the histamine exposure in his diet. He has not been in contact with any new chemicals or materials.
      What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: An autoimmune response

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Causes of Urticaria

      Urticaria, commonly known as hives, can be caused by a variety of factors. It can be idiopathic, immunological, or non-immunological. Chronic urticaria is diagnosed when a patient experiences daily or episodic wheals for at least six weeks. Histamine-releasing autoantibodies are present in at least 30% of patients with chronic urticaria. Contact urticaria is a rapid, localised reaction to certain triggering substances. Pseudoallergens, such as certain drugs or food additives, can aggravate wheals in any form of urticaria. Type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are immunoglobulin E mediated, can cause acute urticaria. Type IV hypersensitivity and contact irritant effects are seen in contact allergic dermatitis and contact irritant dermatitis. Understanding the different causes of urticaria can help in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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