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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer has noticed an increase in nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer has noticed an increase in nausea and vomiting as her opioid dose has been raised. She is currently experiencing persistent and severe vomiting with minimal relief of her nausea.
      Which medication is most likely to provide relief for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cyclizine

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Managing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Medications to Consider

      Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in palliative care, and can be caused by a variety of factors such as drug toxicity or metabolic disturbances. To manage these symptoms, several medications can be considered.

      Haloperidol is often the first-line drug for opioid-induced nausea, renal failure, and hypercalcaemia. Metoclopramide and levomepromazine are alternative options. For nausea caused by cytotoxic therapy or radiotherapy, ondansetron can be used.

      Ranitidine may be beneficial if gastric or oesophageal stasis is an issue. Cyclizine is useful for managing vagally-mediated nausea and vomiting caused by mechanical bowel obstruction, vestibular disturbance, and Intracranial disease. Dexamethasone can be added to cyclizine in scenarios where Intracranial pressure is raised.

      Finally, hyoscine butylbromide can be used for managing bowel colic and excessive gastrointestinal secretions. When selecting medications, it is important to consider the underlying cause of the nausea and vomiting, as well as the patient’s individual needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old otherwise healthy young man presents with a problem with recurrent boils.
    Which...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old otherwise healthy young man presents with a problem with recurrent boils.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Nasal carriage of staphylococci

      Explanation:

      Understanding Boils: Causes, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options

      Boils, also known as furuncles, are a common skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. They typically occur in adolescents and young adults, particularly in males. Recurrent infections may be caused by persistent nasal carriage of the bacteria. While the link between diabetes and multiple boils is unclear, individuals with diabetes may experience more extensive boils. Other risk factors include obesity, immunosuppression, skin diseases, poor hygiene, and exposure to chemicals or oils.

      To prevent recurrent infections, swabs should be taken from various sites to identify the source of the bacteria. If Panton-Valentine leukocidin Staphylococcus aureus (PVL-SA) or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected, specialist advice should be sought. Nasal carriage of staphylococci can be treated with a chlorhexidine and neomycin cream, although re-colonization is common. Antiseptics can also be used to reduce bacteria on the skin.

      Overall, maintaining good hygiene practices, such as daily washing and bathing in antiseptic solutions, can help prevent and treat boils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man presents with complaints of persistent dandruff and greasy skin. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with complaints of persistent dandruff and greasy skin. He has observed a pink skin lesion with scaling along his hairline and has previously experienced similar symptoms under his eyebrows. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Identifying Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: A Comparison with Other Skin Conditions

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition that produces a scaled rash. However, it can be difficult to distinguish from other skin conditions that also produce scaling lesions. Here, we compare seborrhoeic dermatitis with psoriasis, atopic eczema, folliculitis, and tinea capitis to help identify the key features of each condition.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is characterized by a poorly defined rash, greasy skin, and a specific distribution pattern. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces well-defined plaques and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Atopic eczema produces dry, scaling skin and often affects flexural sites, whereas folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Tinea capitis, which causes hair loss and scaling of the skin, is less likely in this case as there is no hair loss present.

      By comparing the key features of each condition, it becomes clear that the greasy skin and distribution pattern make seborrhoeic dermatitis the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A six-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a two-day history of red...

    Incorrect

    • A six-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a two-day history of red eyes. There was no known injury to her eyes. She has clear discharge from both eyes and no symptoms of a cold. Upon examination, her visual acuity is normal, but both upper eyelids are swollen and the conjunctiva is red bilaterally. There is no lymphadenopathy and she is not running a fever. You suspect she has acute infective conjunctivitis.

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Take a swab and delay treatment until the results are ready

      Correct Answer: Advise his symptoms should improve within 7 days without treatment

      Explanation:

      Antimicrobial treatment is often unnecessary for most cases of infective conjunctivitis, regardless of whether it is caused by a virus or bacteria. It can be challenging to differentiate between the two, although bacterial conjunctivitis may present with purulent discharge instead of watery discharge. Patients can alleviate symptoms with self-care measures such as cold compresses and ocular lubricants. If symptoms persist after seven days, patients should seek further medical attention. In severe cases of suspected bacterial conjunctivitis, chloramphenicol ointment can be purchased over the counter, while fusidic acid may be used as a second-line antimicrobial. Herpetic conjunctivitis, which causes a painful red eye with vesicular eyelid lesions, can be treated with aciclovir. Swabs are not useful in diagnosing conjunctivitis.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the meaning of the P value of less than 0.05 in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of the P value of less than 0.05 in a study comparing the effectiveness of drug A versus drug B in lowering blood pressure, where drug A was found to be more effective?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is true

      Correct Answer: The probability that the results could have occurred by chance is less than 0.05

      Explanation:

      Understanding Null and Alternative Hypotheses and the Significance of P Values

      In any scientific study, researchers formulate a null hypothesis that assumes there is no difference between two treatments. The alternative hypothesis, on the other hand, suggests that there is a difference. It is important to note that while the convention is to assume the null hypothesis is true, rejecting it doesn’t necessarily mean that the alternative hypothesis is true.

      The P value is a measure of the probability that the observed results in a study (or more extreme results) could have occurred by chance. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the possibility of chance occurrences when interpreting study results. Accepting the alternative hypothesis is not the same as saying it is true, but rather that it is more likely than the null hypothesis.

      A P value of 0.05 or below is conventionally considered statistically significant, but this still carries a risk of a chance occurrence of 1 in 20. To reduce this risk, a more stringent rule is to use a P value of 0.01. Understanding null and alternative hypotheses and the significance of P values is essential for accurate interpretation of study results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An ambulance is called and a brief medical history is obtained. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy recently. The following are her vital signs:

      - Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 28 breaths per minute
      - Temperature: 36.8ºC
      - Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air

      While waiting for the ambulance, the patient is given oxygen through a face mask and an ECG is performed. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected ECG finding?

      Your Answer: S1Q3T3

      Correct Answer: Sinus tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. One of the most common signs of PE is an elevated heart rate, which can be caused by the increased demand on the right ventricle of the heart. This can lead to a range of other symptoms, including shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing.

      Another common sign of PE is the presence of S1Q3T3 on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is characterized by a deep S-wave in lead I, a Q-wave in lead III, and an inverted T-wave in lead III. While this finding is associated with PE, it is not specific to the condition and may not be present in all cases.

      T-wave inversions in leads V1-V4 can also be a sign of right ventricular strain, which can occur as a result of the increased demand on the heart caused by PE. However, this is not the most common finding in cases of PE.

      Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.

      To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.

      CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor complaining of an increase in the...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor complaining of an increase in the frequency of her migraine attacks. She is currently experiencing approximately four migraines per month. What medication would be the most suitable to prescribe in order to decrease the frequency of her migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating migraines, the recommended acute treatment options are a combination of triptan with either NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the first-line options are topiramate or propranolol. While topiramate is recommended by NICE, it’s important to consider that the patient is a woman of childbearing age, making a beta-blocker like propranolol a safer choice.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      103.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old girl is brought in to the surgery having become progressively more...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought in to the surgery having become progressively more ill over a few hours. She is febrile, looks unwell, is pale with cold extremities, tachypnoeic and complains of leg pain. She keeps asking for water but drinks very little. She has had some diarrhoea and vomited once.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal disease

      Explanation:

      Early Diagnosis of Meningococcal Disease: Importance of nonspecific Features

      Meningococcal disease is a severe bacterial infection caused by Neisseria meningitidis. Although it is a common commensal of the nasopharynx, it is also the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood. The disease can present as bacterial meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.

      A recent study of children with meningococcal disease found that classical signs such as haemorrhagic rash, meningism, and impaired consciousness did not appear until 13-22 hours after onset. However, nonspecific features such as leg pain, cold hands and feet, abnormal skin colour, breathing difficulty, and thirst appeared much earlier, with a median onset of 7-12 hours.

      These nonspecific features are crucial for early diagnosis and may allow for earlier initiation of life-saving treatment. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be aware of these early symptoms and consider meningococcal disease as a potential diagnosis in children presenting with these features. Early recognition and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for children with meningococcal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over...

    Correct

    • You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over the past year. She has no features of androgen excess. She has no medical history and is not on any regular medication. Recent blood tests including ferritin were unremarkable. On examination, you note some mild thinning around the crown area and widening of the central parting of her hair. You make a diagnosis of androgenetic alopecia.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Explanation:

      NICE Recommends Topical Minoxidil as First-Line Treatment for Female Androgenetic Alopecia

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of topical minoxidil 2% solution as the first-line treatment for androgenetic alopecia in women. This medication is available over-the-counter and has been found to be effective in promoting hair growth. However, NICE advises against prescribing other drug treatments in primary care.

      Referral to dermatology should be considered in certain cases. For instance, if a woman has an atypical presentation of hair loss, or if she experiences extensive hair loss. Additionally, if treatment with topical minoxidil has been ineffective after one year, referral to a dermatologist may be necessary. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that women with androgenetic alopecia receive appropriate and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of his medication as advised by cardiology. He suffered an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) four weeks ago. His history reveals that he is a smoker (20 per day for 30 years) and works in a sedentary office job, where he often works long days and eats ready meals to save time with food preparation.
      On examination, his heart rate is 62 bpm and his blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, body mass index (BMI) is 31. His bisoprolol is increased to 5 mg and ramipril to 7.5 mg.
      Which of the following is the single non-pharmacological intervention that will be most helpful in reducing his risk of a future ischaemic event?

      Your Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Reducing Cardiovascular Risk: Lifestyle Changes to Consider

      Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a leading cause of death worldwide, but many of the risk factors are modifiable through lifestyle changes. The three most important modifiable and causal risk factors are smoking, hypertension, and abnormal lipids. While hypertension and abnormal lipids may require medication to make significant changes, smoking cessation is the single most important non-pharmacological, modifiable risk factor in reducing cardiovascular risk.

      In addition to quitting smoking, there are other lifestyle changes that can help reduce cardiovascular risk. A cardioprotective diet should limit total fat intake to 30% or less of total energy intake, with saturated fat intake below 7%. Low-carbohydrate dietary intake is also thought to be important in cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Regular exercise is also important, with 150 minutes or more per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity and muscle-strengthening activities on at least two days a week recommended. While exercise is beneficial, stopping smoking remains the most effective lifestyle change for reducing cardiovascular risk.

      Salt restriction can also help reduce risk, with a recommended intake of less than 6 g per day. Patients should be advised to avoid adding salt to their meals and minimize processed foods.

      Finally, weight reduction should be advised to decrease future cardiovascular risk, with a goal of achieving a normal BMI. Obese patients should also be assessed for sleep apnea. By making these lifestyle changes, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6-month-old baby boy is being evaluated. Two weeks ago, a trial of...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old baby boy is being evaluated. Two weeks ago, a trial of alginate therapy (Gaviscon) was initiated for frequent regurgitation accompanied by discomfort. Unfortunately, there has been no improvement in the symptoms, and the mother now reports that the baby is refusing to eat. There are no other new symptoms, such as a rash or diarrhea, and the baby is gaining weight steadily. He is exclusively bottle-fed, as his mother stopped breastfeeding at 8 weeks of age. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Trial of proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      If alginates/thickened feeds fail to alleviate symptoms in infants with GORD and they exhibit feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth, a trial of PPI is recommended by NICE. However, metoclopramide should not be used without specialist advice due to the risk of side-effects like dystonia. Restarting breastfeeding is not practical once it has stopped, and there is no evidence to suggest that it would improve symptoms. While cow’s milk protein intolerance should be considered as a differential diagnosis, there is currently no indication of this diagnosis. Additionally, it is not advisable to stop milk feeds for such a young baby.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of headaches that have...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of headaches that have been gradually worsening over the past few weeks and are now happening every day, accompanied by vomiting. He has also experienced vision loss, specifically an inability to see things on his left side. During the examination, the doctor observes a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia.
      What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Right temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Localizing Neurological Lesions Based on Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can provide valuable information in localizing neurological lesions. In this case, the patient presents with a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia. By analyzing the location of the defect, we can rule out certain areas of the brain that may be affected.

      Defects in the visual field that are restricted to one eye are likely to be in the retina or optic nerve. However, this patient doesn’t have a single eye visual field defect. Parietal or superior bank lesions would cause an inferior quadrantanopia, which is unlikely in this case.

      A bitemporal field defect would indicate a lesion in the optic chiasm, but this patient’s defect is not bitemporal. A lesion to the optic tract would result in a homonymous hemianopia, which is different from the patient’s quadrantanopia.

      Therefore, based on the location of the defect, we can conclude that the lesion is most likely posterior to the optic chiasm, ruling out the right optic tract, left retina, and left parietal lobe. The most probable location of the lesion is the left temporal optic radiations or inferior bank of the calcarine cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an extremely tender right...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an extremely tender right testicle that started four hours ago. There was no history of trauma or concurrent medical illness.
      During the examination, the right testicle was found to be retracted and lying horizontally, but it was too painful to palpate fully. The left hemiscrotum appeared normal.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion

      Explanation:

      Torsion: A Serious Condition with Limited Treatment Window

      A short history of severe pain without any other symptoms should be considered as torsion. It is crucial to note that even if other symptoms are present, torsion should not be overlooked as there is only a limited time frame for treatment. A horizontal-lying testis is a typical indication of torsion, although it may not always be visible. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing torsion and preventing any long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      146.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman presents with periodic spontaneous attacks of vertigo, nausea, tinnitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with periodic spontaneous attacks of vertigo, nausea, tinnitus and reduced hearing in the left ear. She has had these attacks for the last 1-2 years. She has a feeling of aural fullness and discomfort in the left ear in advance of an attack which persists during an attack. Attacks can last up to 2-3 hours each time and occur in clusters over a few weeks. After an attack she feels worn out for a day or two and slightly unsteady.

      When seen she is asymptomatic and head and neck examination is normal. No current hearing impairment is reported or apparent.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate management approach?

      Your Answer: Refer her for audiological assessment

      Correct Answer: Refer her to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s Disease: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      This patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with Meniere’s disease, including episodic spontaneous vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and aural fullness. Meniere’s disease is characterized by acute attacks lasting a few hours, occurring in clusters, and followed by periods of remission. While there are no specific diagnostic tests for the condition, audiometric testing can be helpful in demonstrating sensorineural low-to-mid frequency hearing loss. Referral to ENT services is recommended to confirm the diagnosis.

      Brandt-Daroff exercises are not recommended for managing Meniere’s disease, as they are used for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. An MRI brain scan would not be an appropriate next step in primary care based on this presentation. While audiometric assessment can be useful, it is not the best option as ENT services can arrange any necessary testing and appropriately investigate the condition. Attacks in Meniere’s disease typically settle within 24 hours, and prolonged attacks should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Referral to ENT services can provide support and input on a multidisciplinary level, which can be key if worsening symptoms, such as persistent hearing impairment, develop over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on their legs. The infant is healthy and has received all recommended vaccinations. The caregiver is unsure how the bruising occurred and is worried about a possible bleeding disorder.

      What would be the most suitable next step to take?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient for same day paediatric assessment and discuss with the paediatric consultant on-call

      Explanation:

      Any bruising observed in a non-mobile infant should be immediately referred for paediatric assessment on the same day. The urgency of the situation is the main concern.

      Delaying the assessment until later in the week, waiting for blood test results, or consulting with the safeguarding lead is not appropriate. It is also not necessary to contact emergency services at this point, unless the parents refuse to take the child for assessment.

      The appropriate action is to refer the infant for same-day paediatric assessment and inform the on-call consultant. If the child doesn’t attend the hospital on the same day, the paediatric team should escalate the situation.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.

      Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      136.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the suggested amount of prednisolone for kids aged 3-17 years who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the suggested amount of prednisolone for kids aged 3-17 years who experience a worsening of their asthma symptoms?

      Your Answer: 1 mg/kg od for 7 days

      Correct Answer: 1-2 mg/kg od for 3-5 days

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of asthma in children, the recommended dose of prednisolone is 1-2 mg/kg once daily for a period of 3-5 days.

      The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old patient presents to your clinic complaining of toe pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old patient presents to your clinic complaining of toe pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 days. He reports that his toe is swollen and red, and he has never experienced this before. A friend suggested that he may be suffering from gout and he has come to ask if you can prescribe him with something stronger than paracetamol.

      The patient's medical history includes hypercholesterolaemia and atrial fibrillation, and he currently takes atorvastatin and amiodarone. He is also intolerant to opioids. Based on this information, what medication would you safely recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gout

      Gout is a painful condition that can be effectively treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablets or colchicine. However, it is important to consider the patient’s medical history and current medications before choosing a treatment option.

      Piroxicam, while effective, has a high risk of gastro-intestinal side effects and should not be the first choice. Codeine, an opioid, should be avoided if the patient is intolerant to this class of drugs. Allopurinol is typically used as prophylaxis rather than for acute attacks.

      Colchicine is a good choice for treating gout, but patients on statins have an increased risk of myopathy when given colchicine, and patients on amiodarone have a possible increased risk of colchicine toxicity. Therefore, it is important to consider these factors before prescribing colchicine.

      Prednisolone is not a first-line option for uncomplicated cases of acute gout. Overall, the choice of treatment for gout should be individualized based on the patient’s medical history and current medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the hallway. A nurse is present and has conducted a finger-prick glucose test, which shows a reading of 1.8 mmol/l. Upon examination, you observe that she is unresponsive to verbal cues, with a pulse rate of 84/min. The nurse has already positioned the patient in the recovery position. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Give intramuscular glucagon

      Explanation:

      Placing any object in the mouth of an unconscious patient can be risky as they may not be adequately safeguarding their airway.

      In cases of heparin overdose, protamine sulfate is administered.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man visits his doctor seeking guidance on whether he can still...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his doctor seeking guidance on whether he can still drive his car after being diagnosed with early-stage dementia. He lives alone and fears that losing his driving privileges will lead to social isolation.

      What advice should the doctor provide?

      Your Answer: She must inform the DVLA and she must not continue driving

      Correct Answer: She must inform the DVLA but she may be able to continue driving

      Explanation:

      Notifying the DVLA of a dementia diagnosis is necessary, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that the patient cannot drive. Patients are responsible for informing the DVLA, but doctors must intervene if they believe the patient is driving against medical advice. The Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) is a helpful tool for diagnosing cognitive impairment and is commonly used in care of the elderly wards and dementia clinics. For GPs with limited time, the GPCOG (general practitioner assessment of cognition) tool is also useful for assessing cognitive function.

      The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      58.8
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  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother, who has observed an atypical rash on her son's abdomen. On the upper abdomen, there is a group of approximately 12 pearly white papules with a central depression, with each lesion measuring around 3-5 mm in size. There is no discomfort or itching. What self-care recommendations should be provided, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Exclusion from school is recommended

      Correct Answer: Avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of fleshy nodules on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of fleshy nodules on the backs of his elbows. He also has yellow linear deposits in his palmar creases. His fasting serum lipids are as follows: total cholesterol 14.2 mmol/l, triglycerides 16 mmol/l (normal range <1.8 mmol/l). Fasting plasma glucose and renal, liver and thyroid function tests are normal. Urine dipstick testing is normal. The doctor advises him on dietary and lifestyle changes.
      What is the most appropriate medication for this patient?

      Your Answer: A fibrate

      Correct Answer: A statin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperlipidaemia: Choosing the Right Medication

      Hyperlipidaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, which can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease. When it comes to treating hyperlipidaemia, there are several medication options available. Here’s a breakdown of the most common treatments and when they should be used.

      Statin: A first-line treatment for familial mixed hyperlipidaemia, a high-intensity statin such as atorvastatin should be used to achieve a reduction in baseline LDL cholesterol levels of 50% or more. Simvastatin 80 mg can be used if the LDL reduction target is not met within three months.

      Bile-acid sequestrant: This treatment option is used when both a statin and ezetimibe are contraindicated and should be started under specialist guidance.

      Fibrate: The treatment of choice for severe isolated hypertriglyceridaemia, but in mixed hyperlipidaemia, LDL reduction remains the priority, so statins are the first-line treatment.

      Ezetimibe: This medication is the second line if statins are not tolerated or are contraindicated. It can also be co-prescribed if the LDL-reduction target is not reached after three months.

      Nicotinic acid: Not recommended in the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidance for familial hypercholesterolaemia and should not be started in primary care, although specialists may consider its use if other treatments are all contraindicated.

      In conclusion, choosing the right medication for hyperlipidaemia depends on the type and severity of the condition, as well as the patient’s individual needs and medical history. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      23.9
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags in both axillae.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Hyperpigmented Skin: Acanthosis Nigricans, Erythrasma, Melasma, Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum, and Post-Inflammatory Hyperpigmentation

      Hyperpigmented skin can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is acanthosis nigricans, which presents with thick, velvety skin in the neck and flexures, often accompanied by skin tags. This condition is commonly associated with obesity and hereditary factors. However, it can also be a sign of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Another possible cause of hyperpigmented skin is erythrasma, a bacterial infection that causes pink-red macules that turn brown, typically in the groin and axilla. However, the bilateral distribution of the pigmentation in this case makes erythrasma less likely.

      Melasma is another condition that can cause hyperpigmentation, but it typically presents with symmetrical blotchy brown pigmentation on the face. The distribution described in the scenario makes melasma less likely.

      Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a rare condition that affects the shins of people with diabetes. However, the distribution of the pigmentation in this case rules out this condition as a cause.

      Finally, post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after trauma such as burns, causing flat macules. However, it doesn’t cause skin thickening, as described in this case.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for hyperpigmented skin includes acanthosis nigricans, erythrasma, melasma, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.3
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss, chronic cough, and hemoptysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Tuberculosis in the UK: Risk Factors and Diagnosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) remains a significant public health concern in the UK, with 8587 cases reported in 2010. Pulmonary TB is the most common form, accounting for 60% of cases. Certain groups are at higher risk, including those who have had close contact with a TB patient, ethnic minorities, homeless individuals, alcoholics and drug abusers, HIV-positive and immunocompromised patients, elderly individuals, young children, and those with other underlying health conditions. TB can be difficult to diagnose, as primary infection is often asymptomatic and secondary infection can present with nonspecific symptoms. A high level of suspicion is necessary to identify TB in at-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a lump a few weeks ago while taking a bath and reports that it has appeared quite rapidly. He is not experiencing any symptoms and is otherwise healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears to be in good overall health. There is a firm, non-tender swelling on the right side. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the swelling is translucent when tested with a light source. It is easy to get above the swelling, and the scrotal skin appears normal in color and temperature.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for a scrotal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Refer to the general surgeons for routine elective hernia repair

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydroceles: Causes and Diagnosis

      A hydrocele is a painless swelling that occurs in the scrotum due to a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. It is often confined to one side and the underlying testicle may not be palpable. Transillumination with a light source can help diagnose a hydrocele.

      Hydroceles can be primary or secondary. Primary hydroceles tend to occur in children and the elderly and appear gradually. Secondary hydroceles, on the other hand, are associated with testicular pathology and tend to appear rapidly. Possible underlying causes of a secondary hydrocele include testicular tumour, infection (epididymo-orchitis), torsion, and trauma.

      A clinical diagnosis is often sufficient, but an ultrasound scan may be requested in cases of secondary hydrocele or when there is suspicion of an underlying pathology. For instance, a new onset, rapidly growing hydrocele in a man in his thirties may warrant an ultrasound scan to rule out a testicular tumour.

      If the history and examination do not suggest an infective/inflammatory process, torsion, or trauma as an underlying cause, immediate referral to the hospital is not necessary. The use of anti-inflammatory and antibiotics is also not indicated in such cases. Understanding the causes and diagnosis of hydroceles can help in their appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      28.4
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  • Question 25 - A 67 year old male with a known history of heart failure visits...

    Correct

    • A 67 year old male with a known history of heart failure visits his primary care physician for his yearly examination. During the check-up, his blood pressure is measured at 170/100 mmHg. He is currently taking furosemide and aspirin. Which medication would be the most suitable to include?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure have demonstrated improved prognosis with the use of both enalapril and bisoprolol.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman has metastatic breast cancer in her bones. Pain has been...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has metastatic breast cancer in her bones. Pain has been well controlled with modified-release morphine and she is still quite mobile. A palliative care nurse has given her a National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) Distress Thermometer for Patients. This is a visual analogue scale that records subjective distress on a scale of 0-10. She records 7-8 and most of this is recorded as being due to emotional issues (depression, nervousness, worry, loss of interest). She is assessed to have moderate depression with significant functional impairment. She declines psychological intervention, but would be happy to take medication.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Chlorine salicylate gel

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old smoker has been experiencing a persistent cough and chest pain. A...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old smoker has been experiencing a persistent cough and chest pain. A plain chest x-ray examination suggests a diagnosis of bronchial carcinoma. However, before a tissue diagnosis can be made, the patient unexpectedly dies in the hospital due to a massive haemoptysis. The relatives consent to a post mortem examination, which reveals that the patient actually had tuberculosis and not carcinoma. Is there a requirement to report this to a specific authority, and if so, which one?

      Your Answer: Consultant in Communicable Diseases Control

      Explanation:

      Reporting Notifiable Diseases in England and Wales

      Doctors in England and Wales have a legal obligation to report suspected cases of certain infectious diseases to the appropriate authorities. The purpose of reporting is to help control the spread of diseases. The local Consultant in Communicable Disease Control is usually the Proper Officer to whom doctors should report. However, if in doubt, doctors can find details of the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) on the Public Health England website.

      Doctors should fill out a notification certificate immediately upon diagnosing a suspected notifiable disease, without waiting for laboratory confirmation. The certificate should be sent to the Proper Officer within three days or verbally within 24 hours if the case is considered urgent.

      The following diseases are notifiable under the Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010: Acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      31.7
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of bumping...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of bumping into things since the morning. She has also noticed some 'floating spots in her eyes' over the past two days. Upon examination, it is found that she has lost vision in her right eye. The red reflex on the right side is difficult to elicit and the retina on the right side cannot be visualised during fundoscopy. However, changes consistent with pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy are observed in the left fundus. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s medical history and symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing vitreous haemorrhage. This is supported by the complete loss of vision in the affected eye and the inability to see the retina. To distinguish between vitreous haemorrhage and retinal detachment, please refer to the table provided below.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, but it can be caused by a variety of factors. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, temporary loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, can be caused by a wide range of factors such as thrombosis, embolism, temporal arteritis, and hypoperfusion. It may also represent a form of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and should be treated similarly with aspirin 300 mg. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries.

      Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, and hypertension. Severe retinal haemorrhages are usually seen on fundoscopy. Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is due to thromboembolism or arteritis and features include afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, and anticoagulants. Features may include sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also symptoms of posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between these conditions can be done by observing the specific symptoms such as a veil or curtain over the field of vision, straight lines appearing curved, and central visual loss. Large bleeds can cause sudden visual loss, while small bleeds may cause floaters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual...

    Incorrect

    • When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual based on the UK immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer: 8 Weeks, 12 weeks and 16 weeks

      Correct Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Pneumococcal Vaccine

      The pneumococcal vaccine is an important immunization that helps protect against pneumococcal disease, which can cause serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. However, it’s important to note that there are two types of pneumococcal vaccines – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV).

      The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above. It’s important to know which vaccine to administer, as the immune response to each vaccine is different.

      Aside from the recommended age groups, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders.

      In summary, understanding the pneumococcal vaccine and its different types and recommended age groups is crucial in ensuring proper administration and protection against pneumococcal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      30.9
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient with a known HIV infection. What is the likelihood of the phlebotomist contracting HIV?

      Your Answer: 5-10%

      Correct Answer: 0.30%

      Explanation:

      Compared to hepatitis B and C, the transmission rate of HIV is relatively low.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      14.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

End Of Life (1/2) 50%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/4) 50%
Dermatology (3/4) 75%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
Children And Young People (3/5) 60%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/2) 50%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Passmed