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  • Question 1 - A 19-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with complaints of hand pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with complaints of hand pain after punching a wall. He reports swelling and pain on the ulnar side of his hand. Based on his injury mechanism, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 1st metacarpal fracture

      Correct Answer: 5th metacarpal 'Boxer's' fracture

      Explanation:

      When a person punches a hard surface, they may suffer from a ‘Boxer fracture’, which is a type of 5th metacarpal fracture that is usually only slightly displaced.

      Boxer fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in the fifth metacarpal bone. It is usually caused by punching a hard surface, such as a wall, and results in a minimally displaced fracture. This means that the bone is broken but the pieces are still in alignment and have not moved significantly out of place. The injury is named after boxers because it is a common injury in this sport, but it can also occur in other activities that involve punching or striking objects. Proper treatment and management of a boxer fracture is important to ensure proper healing and prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You assess a 65-year-old man who has recently been discharged from hospital in...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man who has recently been discharged from hospital in France following a heart attack. He presents with an echocardiogram report indicating his left ventricular ejection fraction is 38%. Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 76 beats per minute, blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, and his chest is clear. He is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, and lisinopril. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication?

      Your Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate

      Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers. NICE guidelines suggest that all individuals with heart failure should be prescribed both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman has been prescribed simvastatin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been prescribed simvastatin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD).
      Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

      Your Answer: Check the lipid profiles at 1 month

      Correct Answer: Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Statin Therapy: Recommended Blood Tests and Timing

      Statin therapy is a common treatment for patients with high cholesterol levels, both for primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. However, regular monitoring is necessary to ensure the treatment is effective and safe. Here are some recommended blood tests and their timing for monitoring statin therapy:

      Recommended Blood Tests and Timing for Monitoring Statin Therapy

      Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 3 months

      Within three months of starting high-intensity statin treatment, it is recommended to measure total cholesterol, HDL-cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol. The aim is to achieve a >40% reduction in non-HDL-cholesterol. LFTs should also be checked at this time and again at 12 months, unless clinically indicated.

      Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 12 months

      Both LFTs and the lipid profile should be checked at 12 months, but it is important to assess whether a suitable cholesterol level reduction has been achieved earlier in the process. This allows for discussion of adherence to medication, diet, and lifestyle measures, and consideration of increasing the dose.

      Check LFTs at 1 week

      Checking LFTs within a week of starting treatment is not necessary, as any liver abnormalities would be unlikely to develop so soon without the patient experiencing symptoms of acute liver disease.

      Check the lipid profiles at 1 month

      It takes approximately 6-8 weeks for a stable result in lipid reduction to be seen after starting a statin, so checking the lipid profile at 1 month is not appropriate.

      Check TFTs at 3 months

      There is no need to check thyroid function tests during statin therapy for monitoring purposes. However, patients with other conditions that justify TFTs should have them done as clinically appropriate.

      Regular monitoring of statin therapy through blood tests is crucial for ensuring the treatment is effective and safe for patients with high cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      59.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking a detailed medical history and conducting a thorough physical examination, the GP orders an outpatient chest CT scan. The results reveal lung fibrosis as the likely cause of the patient's symptoms. The patient has a medical history of gout and rheumatoid arthritis. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most likely responsible for causing lung fibrosis?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis

      Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      68.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia. He has been taking aspirin, simvastatin, and atenolol for a long time. A creatine kinase test is performed due to his statin use, and the results show:
      Creatine kinase 1,420 u/l (< 190 u/l)

      The patient's symptoms appeared after starting a new medication. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the elevated creatine kinase levels?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The interaction between statins and erythromycin/clarithromycin is significant and frequent, and in this case, the patient has experienced statin-induced myopathy due to clarithromycin.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with concerns about not having started...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with concerns about not having started her periods yet. She is shorter than most girls her age. She has gone through adrenarche but has not yet experienced thelarche. Her mother and sister both began menstruating at age 12. The following are her blood test results:
      - FSH: 60 IU/L (normal range: 0-10)
      - LH: 40 IU/L (normal range: 0-16)
      - Oestradiol: 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 73-407)
      - Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): 5.0 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5)
      - Free thyroxine (T4): 12 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18)
      - Prolactin: 323 mIU/L (normal range: <700)

      Based on the patient's symptoms and test results, what is the most likely cause of her amenorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Constitutional delay

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You assess a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. Due to her...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. Due to her BMI of 33 kg/m², she underwent a routine oral glucose tolerance test which yielded the following results:
      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 7.8
      2 10.6
      Apart from this, there have been no other complications during her pregnancy and her anomaly scan showed no abnormalities. What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat oral glucose tolerance test in 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Start insulin + advice about diet / exercise + self-monitor glucose levels

      Explanation:

      The gestational diabetes guidelines of NICE have been updated, stating that insulin treatment must commence if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l. Additionally, it is recommended to consider administering aspirin due to the heightened risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Her pulmonary function tests show a peak expiratory flow rate that is 60% below the normal range for her age and height.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Whooping cough

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Understanding PEFR and Its Role in Diagnosing Asthma

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is a valuable tool in both the diagnosis and management of asthma. It is measured by a maximal forced expiration through a peak-flow meter and correlates well with forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), providing an estimate of airway calibre. Patients with asthma can monitor their PEFR at home to track disease control. A PEFR <80% of predicted is a strong indicator of obstructive airway disease, such as asthma. However, it’s important to note that PEFR is not affected by restrictive defects, such as those caused by kyphoscoliosis. Bronchial carcinoma itself does not cause airflow limitation, but a co-morbid obstructive lung disease, such as asthma or COPD, could produce abnormal PEFR readings. Bronchiectasis can cause an obstructive pattern on spirometry, but it would not typically cause a reduction in PEFR. Whooping cough, despite causing inflammation of the airways, would not typically result in the markedly reduced PEFR readings seen in asthma. In conclusion, understanding PEFR and its role in diagnosing asthma is crucial for both patients and healthcare providers. By monitoring PEFR at home and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals with asthma can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to ongoing disobedience towards her parents and other authority figures for the past three years. At school, she has frequently been involved in physical altercations with her peers and was recently reprimanded for damaging school property.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conduct Disorder and Differential Diagnoses

      Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent and severe antisocial behaviors that violate social norms and the rights of others. These behaviors may include excessive fighting, cruelty to people or animals, destruction of property, persistent disobedience, and repeated lying. However, conduct disorder can be easily confused with other psychiatric conditions that present with similar symptoms. Here are some differential diagnoses to consider:

      Depression: While depressive disorders can present with oppositional symptoms, they are usually accompanied by disturbances to appetite, sleep, and anhedonia, which are not seen in conduct disorder. However, depression can coexist with conduct disorder.

      Adjustment reaction: Conduct disturbance can also be a reaction to an external stressor, such as divorce, bereavement, abuse, or trauma. However, these symptoms usually occur within three months of the stressor and can last up to six months. If there is no mention of an external stressor, conduct disorder is more likely.

      Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): Children with ADHD exhibit symptoms of inattention associated with hyperactivity and impulsiveness, which can affect social and academic functioning. However, unlike conduct disorder, these behaviors do not usually violate societal norms or the rights of others. ADHD can also coexist with conduct disorder.

      Autism spectrum disorder: Children with autism spectrum disorder may present with emotional lability, aggressive outbursts, and destructive behavior, usually in response to an unexpected change in routine or sensory overload. However, there are typical features of autism, such as sensory hypersensitivity, that are not mentioned in conduct disorder. Autism can also coexist with conduct disorder.

      In conclusion, conduct disorder is a serious psychiatric condition that requires early identification and intervention. However, it is important to consider other differential diagnoses to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old traveler, recently returned from Thailand, arrives at the Emergency Department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old traveler, recently returned from Thailand, arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of gradual right scrotal pain, tenderness, and swelling that has been worsening for the past 6 days. The medical team suspects epididymo-orchitis. What is the recommended empirical treatment in case the causative organism is unknown?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole 400mg three times a day for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly single dose, plus oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 10-14 days

      Explanation:

      For a suspected case of epididymo-orchitis in a high-risk patient for sexually transmitted infections (STI), such as this young businessman returning from Thailand, the recommended empirical treatment is ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly single dose, plus oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 10-14 days. This is because the likely organisms involved are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If the clinical scenario suggests gram-negative organisms, as in the case of an older man with low risk of STI, ciprofloxacin 500mg twice daily for 10-14 days can be used as empirical treatment. However, amoxicillin, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are not suitable antibiotics to cover the possible organisms and are not recommended in the guidelines.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain that started two hours ago. He has a history of lung cancer with bony metastases and has recently started treatment with erlotinib.

      His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2ºC; oxygen saturation 92% on room air; respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute; heart rate 98 beats per minute; blood pressure 140/86 mmHg.

      A chest X-ray is performed, which shows no abnormalities. He is started on supplemental oxygen therapy, and a CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered.

      While waiting for the CTPA results, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Commence warfarin at loading dose

      Correct Answer: Commence rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial management for patients with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is to ensure they are haemodynamically stable before starting anticoagulation. According to the latest NICE Guidelines (2020), a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban or rivaroxaban should be started unless there are contraindications. In this case, the patient is stable and can be started on rivaroxaban. It is important to note that starting prophylactic dose LMWH is not appropriate for suspected PE, and commencing warfarin at loading dose is also not recommended due to its delayed anticoagulant effects. Thrombolytic agents such as alteplase are only appropriate for haemodynamically unstable patients. Dabigatran is an alternative option for patients who cannot take apixaban or rivaroxaban, but it too requires a bridging dose of LMWH.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old female with a past medical history of sickle cell anaemia complains...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female with a past medical history of sickle cell anaemia complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. A chest x-ray reveals infiltrates in both lung bases. On room air, arterial blood gases show the following results:
      pH 7.39
      pCO2 4.6 kPa
      pO2 8.2 kPa
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute sickle chest syndrome

      Explanation:

      This presentation is characteristic of acute sickle chest syndrome.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      121.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 75 year old man with congestive cardiac failure is seen in cardiology...

    Correct

    • A 75 year old man with congestive cardiac failure is seen in cardiology clinic. He reports persistent shortness of breath with minimal activity. His current medications consist of furosemide, ramipril, bisoprolol, and spironolactone. An ECHO reveals an ejection fraction of 30%, while an ECG shows sinus rhythm with a QRS duration of 150ms. What is the optimal approach to enhance mortality?

      Your Answer: Cardiac resynchronisation therapy

      Explanation:

      Heart failure patients with a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 40% and symptoms no more severe than class III according to the New York Heart Association functional classification may benefit from digoxin in terms of reducing hospitalization. However, it does not have an impact on mortality. While increasing the dosage of furosemide may provide relief from fluid overload symptoms, it does not affect mortality.

      Non-Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a condition that requires long-term management to improve symptoms and reduce hospitalization. While medication is often the first line of treatment, non-drug management options are also available. Two such options are cardiac resynchronization therapy and exercise training.

      Cardiac resynchronization therapy involves biventricular pacing for patients with heart failure and wide QRS. This therapy has been shown to improve symptoms and reduce hospitalization in patients with NYHA class III heart failure. By synchronizing the heart’s contractions, this therapy can improve the heart’s pumping ability and reduce symptoms such as shortness of breath and fatigue.

      Exercise training is another non-drug management option for chronic heart failure. While it may not reduce hospitalization or mortality rates, it has been shown to improve symptoms. Exercise can help improve the heart’s ability to pump blood and increase overall fitness levels. This can lead to a reduction in symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath, allowing patients to engage in daily activities with greater ease.

      Overall, non-drug management options such as cardiac resynchronization therapy and exercise training can be effective in managing chronic heart failure. These options can improve symptoms and quality of life for patients, reducing the need for hospitalization and improving overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using cotton buds to clean his ears earlier today and experienced a sharp pain during the process. He now has slightly reduced hearing in his left ear. The patient reports no discharge and is in good health otherwise.

      All of the patient's vital signs are normal. Upon examination of the left ear, a small perforation in the tympanic membrane is observed. There is no discharge or redness in the ear, and the ear canal is dry. The cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.

      What is the next best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Send patient directly to the emergency department

      Correct Answer: Reassure patient and review in 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an uncomplicated tympanic membrane perforation that is dry, they can be managed with watchful waiting for a month without needing to see an ENT specialist. These perforations can occur due to various reasons such as blunt trauma, penetrating injuries, or barotrauma. Typically, the perforation will heal on its own within 4-8 weeks. However, patients should schedule a follow-up appointment after 4 weeks to ensure that the perforation is healing properly. If the patient experiences increasing ear pain, discharge, or worsening hearing loss, they should see their GP. During the examination, the patient should undergo a full examination, including otoscopy, cranial nerve examination, and Rinne/Weber tests. If there are any cranial nerve deficits, the patient should discuss them with an ENT specialist. Patients should keep their ears clean and dry, and topical antibiotics are not recommended for clean, dry perforations. If there are any signs of infection or contamination, topical antibiotics may be given. In cases where the patient has more complex issues such as temporal bone fractures or slowly healing perforations, they may need to be reviewed by an ENT specialist in an emergency clinic. If the perforation does not heal, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are asked by the nursing staff to review an elderly patient in...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked by the nursing staff to review an elderly patient in recovery overnight. As you arrive, the nurse looking after the patient informs you that she is just going to get a bag of fluid for him.
      On examination, the patient is unresponsive with an obstructed airway (snoring). You notice on the monitor that his heart rate is 33 beats per minute (bpm) and blood pressure 89/60 mmHg. His saturation probe has fallen off.
      What is the most appropriate immediate management option?

      Your Answer: Get a second intravenous (IV) access established

      Correct Answer: Call for help and maintain the airway with a jaw thrust and deliver 15 litres of high-flow oxygen

      Explanation:

      Managing a Patient with Bradycardia and Airway Obstruction: Priorities and Interventions

      When faced with a patient who is unresponsive and has both an obstructed airway and bradycardia, it is crucial to prioritize interventions based on the A-E assessment. The first priority is to maintain the airway with a jaw thrust and deliver high-flow oxygen. Once help is called, the patient’s response is monitored, and if bradycardia persists, atropine is given in 500 µg boluses IV. If the airway obstruction cannot be managed with simple measures or non-definitive airways, re-intubation may be necessary. In cases where atropine is ineffective, an isoprenaline infusion may be considered. While a second IV access line may be beneficial, it is not a priority in this situation. By following these interventions, the patient’s condition can be stabilized and managed effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a foot drop after a fall at home....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a foot drop after a fall at home. On examination, there is weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and inversion, and weakness of extension of the little toe. She has some sensory loss restricted to the dorsum of her foot and medial side of the affected leg. Other examination is within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the ankle

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the head of the fibula

      Explanation:

      Nerve Injuries and Clinical Features: A Guide

      The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles, and injuries to these structures can have a significant impact on daily life. Here is a guide to some common nerve injuries and their associated clinical features.

      Common Peroneal Nerve at the Head of the Fibula
      The common peroneal nerve is often damaged as it wraps around the fibular head. This can result in foot drop, weak dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot, weak extension of the toes, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and lateral side of the leg, and intact reflexes.

      Common Peroneal Nerve at the Ankle
      The common peroneal nerve bifurcates into two terminal branches shortly after passing over the fibular head. Damage to one of these branches can occur at the ankle, but not to the common peroneal nerve itself. Symptoms may include sensory loss and weakness in the affected area.

      Sciatic Nerve at the Sciatic Notch
      Injury to the sciatic nerve at this level can result in pain down the thigh, loss of sensation to the whole leg below the knee (except for a narrow area on the medial leg and medial foot border), widespread motor deficit, and foot drop. The ankle jerk is lost.

      Tibial Nerve at the Popliteal Fossa
      Damage to the tibial nerve at this level can lead to gastrocnemius paralysis, weakened inversion and plantar flexion at the ankle, and loss of the ankle jerk. This type of injury is relatively uncommon.

      Tibial Nerve at the Ankle
      Compression of the tibial nerve at the level of the medial malleolus can result in tarsal tunnel syndrome. Symptoms may include paraesthesiae or numbness affecting the medial ankle and plantar aspect of the foot, weakness to the toe abductors and flexors, and tenderness at the medial malleolus. Foot drop is not a feature.

      In summary, nerve injuries can have a range of clinical features depending on the location and severity of the damage. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have sustained a nerve injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.8
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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and difficulty understanding speech...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and difficulty understanding speech at 9:30 am. It is now 12:15 pm. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and hyperlipidemia, and takes lisinopril, metformin, and atorvastatin.

      Initial investigations reveal a capillary blood glucose of 5.2 mmol/L (4.0-6.0 mmol/L) and oxygen saturations of 97%. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer: Immediate CT head (contrast)

      Correct Answer: Immediate CT head (non-contrast)

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.7
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
      On examination, he is dehydrated. His pulse is 95 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 100/70 mmHg.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Glucose 3.5 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 130 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 95 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conn syndrome

      Correct Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders: Addison’s Disease, Cushing Syndrome, and Conn Syndrome

      Addison’s Disease:
      Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. It is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenals in the UK, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or hemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function cannot cope with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone.

      Cushing Syndrome:
      Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid. It can be caused by exogenous steroids, primary hyperadrenalism, or secondary hyperadrenalism. Signs and symptoms include weight gain with moon facies and buffalo hump, hypertension, hyperglycemia, mood changes, hirsutism, baldness, and sleep disturbance.

      Conn Syndrome:
      Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is caused most commonly by adrenal hyperplasia or adenomas. It results in excess aldosterone release, causing difficult-to-treat hypertension, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia.

      Other Disorders:
      Hypoglycemia occurs in insulinoma, but the other features are absent. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps, which may present with vomiting secondary to intussusception from the small polyps but does not explain the hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of left knee pain and irritability. The child had recently recovered from a viral respiratory tract infection and is currently asymptomatic and without fever. Upon examination, the joint is painful to move but not hot or red, and the child is able to bear weight. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 140 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), platelet count of 450 * 109/L (150-400), white cell count of 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), CRP of 29 mg/L (<5), and ESR of 32 mm/hr (0-10). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Septic Arthritis in Children

      Septic arthritis is a condition that affects children and can lead to permanent joint damage and systemic infection if not treated promptly. It has an incidence of around 4-5 per 100,000 children and is more common in boys, with a M:F ratio of 2:1. The hip, knee, and ankle are the most commonly affected joints. Symptoms of septic arthritis include joint pain, limp, fever, and lethargy. Signs of the condition include a swollen and red joint, with minimal movement possible.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, joint aspiration is necessary to culture the affected area. This will show a raised white blood cell count. Inflammatory markers in the blood will also be raised, and blood cultures will be taken. The Kocher criteria are used to diagnose septic arthritis and include a fever of over 38.5 degrees Celsius, non-weight bearing, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and raised white cell count (WCC).

      Understanding septic arthritis in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment to reduce the risk of permanent joint damage and systemic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      35.7
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  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has been experiencing this for the past few weeks. During examination, it was observed that he had horizontal diplopia and slight limitation of one of the extraocular muscles in his left eye. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and prostate cancer. Brain imaging revealed a metastatic lesion in the clivus that surrounds the cavernous sinus and carotid artery. Which cranial nerve palsy is responsible for the diplopia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left sixth cranial nerve (CN6) palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions

      The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.

      Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).

      In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (3/3) 100%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (3/3) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
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