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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old male is referred to the medical assessment unit by his physician...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male is referred to the medical assessment unit by his physician suspecting a UTI. He has a permanent catheter in place due to urinary retention caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy. His blood test results reveal hypercalcemia. An ultrasound Doppler scan of his neck displays a distinct sonolucent signal indicating hyperactive parathyroid tissue and noticeable vasculature, which is likely the parathyroid veins. What is the structure that the parathyroid veins empty into?

      Your Answer: Thyroid plexus of veins

      Explanation:

      The veins of the parathyroid gland drain into the thyroid plexus of veins, as opposed to other possible drainage routes.

      The cavernous sinus is a dural venous sinus that creates a cavity called the lateral sellar compartment, which is bordered by the temporal and sphenoid bones.

      The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the merging of the subclavian and internal jugular veins, and also receives drainage from the left and right internal thoracic vein.

      The external vertebral venous plexuses, which are most prominent in the cervical region, consist of anterior and posterior plexuses that freely anastomose with each other. The anterior plexuses are located in front of the vertebrae bodies, communicate with the basivertebral and intervertebral veins, and receive tributaries from the vertebral bodies. The posterior plexuses are situated partly on the posterior surfaces of the vertebral arches and their processes, and partly between the deep dorsal muscles.

      The suboccipital venous plexus is responsible for draining deoxygenated blood from the back of the head, and is connected to the external vertebral venous plexuses.

      Anatomy and Development of the Parathyroid Glands

      The parathyroid glands are four small glands located posterior to the thyroid gland within the pretracheal fascia. They develop from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, with those derived from the fourth pouch located more superiorly and associated with the thyroid gland, while those from the third pouch lie more inferiorly and may become associated with the thymus.

      The blood supply to the parathyroid glands is derived from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries, with a rich anastomosis between the two vessels. Venous drainage is into the thyroid veins. The parathyroid glands are surrounded by various structures, with the common carotid laterally, the recurrent laryngeal nerve and trachea medially, and the thyroid anteriorly. Understanding the anatomy and development of the parathyroid glands is important for their proper identification and preservation during surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency surgical theatre with multiple stab...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency surgical theatre with multiple stab wounds to his abdomen and is hypotensive despite resuscitative measures. During a laparotomy, a profusely bleeding vessel is found at a certain level of the lumbar vertebrae. The vessel is identified as the testicular artery and is ligated to stop the bleeding. At which vertebral level was the artery identified?

      Your Answer: L2

      Explanation:

      The testicular arteries originate from the abdominal aorta at the level of the second lumbar vertebrae (L2).

      The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      235.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 53-year-old woman presents with stroke symptoms after experiencing difficulty speaking and changes...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with stroke symptoms after experiencing difficulty speaking and changes in vision while at a hair salon. She developed a headache after having her hair washed, and further examination reveals a vertebral arterial dissection believed to be caused by hyperextension of her neck.

      What is the pathway of this blood vessel as it enters the cranial cavity?

      Your Answer: Carotid canal

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum to enter the cranial cavity. If the neck is hyperextended, it can compress and potentially cause dissection of these arteries. A well-known example of this happening is when a person leans back to have their hair washed at a salon. The vertebral artery runs alongside the medulla in the foramen magnum. The carotid canal is not involved in this process, as it contains the carotid artery. Similarly, the foramen ovale contains the accessory meningeal artery, not the vertebral artery, and the foramen spinosum contains the middle meningeal artery, not the vertebral artery.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of increasing fatigue and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath during physical activity over the past 6 months. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.

      During the examination, the lungs are clear upon auscultation, but a loud P2 heart sound is detected. An X-ray of the chest reveals enlarged shadows of the pulmonary artery.

      What could be the underlying cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Bradykinin

      Correct Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      The cause of pulmonary vasoconstriction in primary pulmonary hypertension is endothelin, which is why antagonists are used to treat the condition. This is supported by the symptoms and diagnostic findings in a woman between the ages of 20 and 50. Other options such as bradykinin, iloprost, and nitric oxide are not vasoconstrictors and do not play a role in the development of pulmonary hypertension.

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      80
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A teenage boy suddenly collapses outside his home. He is found to be...

    Correct

    • A teenage boy suddenly collapses outside his home. He is found to be in cardiac arrest and unfortunately passed away in the hospital. Posthumously, he is diagnosed with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. What alterations would this condition bring about in the heart?

      Your Answer: Myocardium replaced by fatty and fibrofatty tissue

      Explanation:

      Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death, is associated with asymmetrical thickening of the septum. Left ventricular hypertrophy can be caused by hypertension, aortic valve stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and athletic training. While arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy can cause ventricular dilation in later stages, it is not transient. Transient ballooning would suggest a diagnosis of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, which is triggered by acute stress.

      Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC), also known as arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia or ARVD, is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death or syncope. It is considered the second most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals, following hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expression, and it is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Approximately 50% of patients with ARVC have a mutation in one of the several genes that encode components of desmosome.

      The presentation of ARVC may include palpitations, syncope, or sudden cardiac death. ECG abnormalities in V1-3, such as T wave inversion, are typically observed. An epsilon wave, which is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex, is found in about 50% of those with ARVC. Echo changes may show an enlarged, hypokinetic right ventricle with a thin free wall, although these changes may be subtle in the early stages. Magnetic resonance imaging is useful in showing fibrofatty tissue.

      Management of ARVC may involve the use of drugs such as sotalol, which is the most widely used antiarrhythmic. Catheter ablation may also be used to prevent ventricular tachycardia, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator may be recommended. Naxos disease is an autosomal recessive variant of ARVC that is characterized by a triad of ARVC, palmoplantar keratosis, and woolly hair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Following a minor heart attack, how does atorvastatin work to reduce the risk...

    Correct

    • Following a minor heart attack, how does atorvastatin work to reduce the risk of a subsequent MI in a 65-year-old patient?

      Your Answer: Decreases LDLs in the blood by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver

      Explanation:

      The primary goal of statins is to lower cholesterol levels in the bloodstream, which in turn reduces the risk of cardiovascular events. This is achieved by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver, which prevents the synthesis of mevalonate, a precursor to LDLs. As a result, statins decrease the amount of cholesterol being transported to body tissues by LDLs. However, statins do not affect the levels of HDLs, which transport cholesterol from body tissues back to the liver.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man visits the clinic for his regular blood work. The GP...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits the clinic for his regular blood work. The GP requests the medical student to perform venepuncture and obtain blood samples. The student seizes this chance to brush up on their knowledge of vascular anatomy. They plan to draw blood from the median cubital vein located in the antecubital fossa. While aware that the median cubital vein is linked to the cephalic vein, they cannot recall the name of the other vein it connects to. Can you identify the other vein?

      Your Answer: Basilic vein

      Explanation:

      The upper limb has both superficial and deep veins. Among the superficial veins are the cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins. The median cubital vein, which connects the cephalic and basilic veins, is situated in the antecubital fossa and is the preferred site for venepuncture because it is easy to locate and access. However, deep veins like the brachial, ulnar, and radial veins are not suitable for venepuncture as they are located beneath the deep fascia.

      The Cephalic Vein: Path and Connections

      The cephalic vein is a major blood vessel that runs along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous arch, which drains blood from the hand and wrist, and travels up the arm, crossing the anatomical snuffbox. At the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein is connected to the basilic vein by the median cubital vein. This connection is commonly used for blood draws and IV insertions.

      After passing through the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein continues up the arm and pierces the deep fascia of the deltopectoral groove to join the axillary vein. This junction is located near the shoulder and marks the end of the cephalic vein’s path.

      Overall, the cephalic vein plays an important role in the circulation of blood in the upper limb. Its connections to other major veins in the arm make it a valuable site for medical procedures, while its path through the deltopectoral groove allows it to contribute to the larger network of veins that drain blood from the upper body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient in their 60s is diagnosed with first-degree heart block which is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s is diagnosed with first-degree heart block which is shown on their ECG by an elongated PR interval. The PR interval relates to a particular period in the electrical conductance of the heart.

      What factors could lead to a decrease in the PR interval?

      Your Answer: Decreased conduction velocity of the SA node

      Correct Answer: Increased conduction velocity across the AV node

      Explanation:

      An increase in sympathetic activation leads to a faster heart rate by enhancing the conduction velocity of the AV node. The PR interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization (P wave) and the onset of ventricular depolarization (beginning of QRS complex). While atrial conduction occurs at a speed of 1m/s, the AV node only conducts at 0.05m/s. Consequently, the AV node is the limiting factor, and a reduction in the PR interval is determined by the conduction velocity across the AV node.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man with a history of rate-controlled atrial fibrillation (AF) presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of rate-controlled atrial fibrillation (AF) presents with chest pain, palpitations, and dizziness. The patient has a past medical history of a transient ischemic episode and is taking warfarin to prevent further ischemic episodes. He also has a history of gout, low back pain, depression, and polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Upon immediate ECG, the patient is found to have an irregularly irregular rhythm consistent with fast AF. You decide to perform electrical cardioversion and prescribe a course of amiodarone to prevent recurrence.

      What drug interaction should you be cautious of in this patient?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone and allopurinol

      Correct Answer: Warfarin and amiodarone

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of warfarin is reduced by amiodarone, which can increase the risk of bleeding. However, there are no known interactions between amiodarone and naproxen, paracetamol, codeine, or allopurinol. It should be noted that the patient in question is not diabetic and therefore should not be taking metformin.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      183
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the general practitioner with fever, malaise, involuntary movements...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the general practitioner with fever, malaise, involuntary movements of the neck and arms and erythema marginatum. She was previously unwell with tonsillitis six weeks ago. She is taken to the hospital and after a series of investigations is diagnosed with rheumatic fever.

      What is the underlying pathology of this condition?

      Your Answer: Molecular mimicry of the bacterial M protein

      Explanation:

      The development of rheumatic fever is caused by molecular mimicry of the bacterial M protein. This results in the patient experiencing constitutional symptoms such as fever and malaise, involuntary movements of the neck and arms known as Sydenham chorea, and a distinctive rash called erythema marginatum. The antibodies produced against the M protein cross-react with myosin and smooth muscle in arteries, leading to the characteristic features of rheumatic fever. Autoimmune demyelination of peripheral nerves, autoimmune demyelination of the central nervous system, and autoimmune destruction of postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors are all incorrect as they are the pathophysiology of other conditions such as Guillain Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis, respectively.

      Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.

      To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.

      Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      32.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (6/10) 60%
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