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Question 1
Incorrect
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The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.
The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?Your Answer: No chemoprophylaxis required
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine presents with temperature of 38.5oC, headache, orchitis and unilateral parotitis.
Select the single most appropriate initial response.Your Answer: Arrange immediate hospital admission
Correct Answer: Advise symptomatic treatment only
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Mumps
Mumps is a viral infection that is usually diagnosed clinically without the need for further investigations. However, in cases where meningitis is present without parotitis, mumps-specific antibodies in the serum can confirm the diagnosis. Salivary IgM against mumps can also be detected, but it may take several days for antibody levels to rise. If the initial test is negative, it is recommended to repeat the test.
There is no specific treatment for mumps, but symptomatic relief can be achieved with paracetamol and ibuprofen. Meningism, which occurs in about 10% of patients, is usually mild and self-limiting, even without parotitis. Orchitis, which occurs in approximately 25% of post-pubertal men, can be mistaken for testicular torsion in someone of this age. However, based on the given symptoms, hospital admission is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Cefaclor
Explanation:C.difficile is strongly associated with cephalosporins, in addition to clindamycin.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman has had frequency and dysuria for two days, but is otherwise well. Dipstick testing is positive for nitrites and blood.
What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim for 7 days
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim for 3 days
Explanation:Antibiotic Treatment for Urinary Tract Infections
Antibiotic treatment is effective in treating uncomplicated cystitis in women. Trimethoprim is the preferred drug for empirical treatment, but resistance can occur in 10-20% of Escherichia coli infections. Nitrofurantoin and cefalexin can be used as alternatives for patients who cannot take trimethoprim. The recommended treatment period for women is three days, while men should be treated for seven days.
Amoxicillin is not routinely used due to its low effectiveness, with 50% of organisms being resistant. Cranberry juice and other cranberry products have no evidence to support their use in treating urinary tract infections.
In summary, antibiotic treatment is the most effective option for treating urinary tract infections, with trimethoprim being the preferred drug for women. Treatment should be for no longer than three days in women and seven days in men. Amoxicillin and cranberry products are not recommended for routine use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to have >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml urine during a routine health examination.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Prescribe long-term prophylactic antibiotics according to sensitivity
Correct Answer: No antibiotics are indicated
Explanation:Asymptomatic Bacteriuria and Treatment Considerations
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in non-pregnant women, affecting approximately 3% of the population. While it doesn’t require treatment as it poses no risk of morbidity or mortality, treatment may increase the frequency of symptomatic infections. However, treatment is necessary if there are comorbid factors such as diabetes, renal transplantation, invasive GU investigations, or a renal stone.
Pregnancy is an absolute indication for treatment as asymptomatic bacteriuria increases the risk of pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, prematurity, and perinatal death. However, a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not an indication for renal tract investigation.
For individuals with long-term urinary catheters in place, administering antibiotics may cause additional problems. These patients invariably have bacteriuria, and the bacteria may be more difficult to treat, leading to the development of a yeast infection. Therefore, treatment considerations should be carefully evaluated in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old nursing student asks if she should be vaccinated against Chickenpox. She cannot recall having had the disease, although her mother tells her that she thinks her siblings have had it.
Select the single most appropriate course of action in this situation.Your Answer: Reassure her that varicella vaccine is given routinely as part of the childhood vaccination programme
Correct Answer: Test for varicella antibodies and, if negative, vaccinate her
Explanation:Chickenpox Immunisation for Healthcare Workers
Most children in the UK will develop Chickenpox during their childhood, and it is rare for a child to avoid the disease if their siblings have it. However, for healthcare workers, it is important to be immune to prevent the spread of the disease to patients, especially those who are immunocompromised. To determine immunity, a varicella antibody test should be conducted. If the test is negative, the individual should be vaccinated with a live attenuated vaccine, as recommended by the Green Book guidelines. It is important to note that the vaccine is contraindicated for those who are immunocompromised themselves. While there are currently no plans to make Chickenpox immunisation routine for British children, healthcare workers and those in contact with immunocompromised individuals should take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old traveller returned from the tropics 5 days ago. She felt unwell on the plane, complaining of headache, loss of appetite and sweats. Her temperature was 39.5°C 2 days ago; however, it is now normal.
Select the most appropriate investigation.Your Answer: Repeated thick and thin blood smears
Explanation:Malaria: Diagnosis and Management
Malaria is a febrile illness caused by Plasmodium species, which can lead to periodic febrile paroxysms every 48 or 72 hours, with asymptomatic intervals and a tendency to relapse. The symptoms and signs of malaria are nonspecific, making it difficult to diagnose. Therefore, it is important to exclude malaria by conducting repeated thick and thin blood smears in patients with acute fever and a history of exposure. If the patient is severely ill or symptoms persist, a therapeutic trial of antimalarial chemotherapy should not be delayed. This article discusses the diagnosis and management of malaria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A colleague of yours who is a physician requests you to recommend a regimen of ciprofloxacin as he is planning a trip to Goa in three days. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Decline and suggest he consults with his regular GP
Explanation:According to the GMC, doctors should refrain from treating themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. It is recommended that doctors register with a GP outside of their family. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action would be to suggest that the colleague consults with their own GP. Discussing their medical history could create confusion regarding the doctor-patient relationship. Urging them to visit A&E is not advisable as it is not an emergency or an accident. It is worth noting that this type of request is not uncommon among colleagues, and reporting it to the GMC may be considered excessive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of intravenous drug use and unprotected sex. During pre-test counselling, you have an in-depth conversation about the disease.
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is inaccurate?
Select ONE choice only.Your Answer: It is estimated that about a quarter of HIV-positive people in the UK are unaware of their status
Correct Answer: HIV testing may give false positive results in the first 3 months after exposure
Explanation:HIV Testing Guidelines and Statistics in the UK
The BHIVA/BASHH/BIS UK National Guidelines for HIV Testing recommend using the latest 4th generation tests, which detect HIV antibodies and p24 antigen simultaneously. These tests can detect HIV in the majority of individuals 4 weeks after exposure. However, a further test at 8 weeks should be considered for events with a high risk of infection. It is important to note that false negative results can occur in the first 8 weeks, but false positive results are not common during this time. In 2011, around 96,000 people were living with HIV in the UK, and approximately 25% of them were unaware of their infection. It is crucial to follow the recommended testing guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise and jaundice. Liver function tests reveal a hepatocellular pattern of liver damage, leading to suspicion of viral hepatitis.
Which of the following choices would NOT aid in confirming the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs)
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis Tests
Hepatitis is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different types of hepatitis, including A, B, and C. To diagnose hepatitis, doctors use various tests. One of these tests is the Anti-HBs test, which indicates immunity to hepatitis B.
Another test is the Hepatitis B surface antigen test, which can indicate an acute infection or a chronic carrier state. If a patient has acute hepatitis B virus infection, the presence of this antigen strongly suggests it. However, it doesn’t rule out chronic HBV with acute superinfection by another hepatitis virus.
The most specific test for diagnosing acute HCV infection before antibodies have developed is the qualitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for viral particles. If all these tests are negative, doctors should consider other causes of hepatitis, such as another virus or alcohol.
In conclusion, understanding hepatitis tests is crucial for diagnosing and treating this viral infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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