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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe menopausal symptoms and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe menopausal symptoms and expresses her desire to start HRT. She has no significant medical or surgical history. Her friend used oestrogen patches and she wants to try them. What is the efficacy of oestrogen patch therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Risk of breast cancer is greater with patch therapy than tablets

      Correct Answer: Progesterone tablets must be given in conjunction with oestrogen patch therapy

      Explanation:

      Progesterone Tablets and Patch Therapy for Hormone Replacement

      Progesterone tablets are necessary for women undergoing hormone replacement therapy with an intact uterus. Without them, the risk of uterine cancer is significantly increased. However, for women who have undergone a hysterectomy, oral progesterone is not required. The tablets must be taken in conjunction with the patch therapy for at least 12 days of the cycle.

      The patches are designed to be used continuously without a break and are changed every seven days. As the oestradiol is absorbed subcutaneously, there is no significant hepatic first pass metabolism. This method of delivery has the same effects on bone mineral density as tablet therapy. However, the adverse events associated with oestrogen replacement, such as breast cancer, remain the same.

      In summary, hormone replacement therapy with progesterone tablets and patch therapy is an effective treatment option for women with an intact uterus. It is important to follow the prescribed regimen to minimize the risk of uterine cancer. Women who have undergone a hysterectomy do not require oral progesterone. The patch therapy is designed for continuous use and has similar effects on bone mineral density as tablet therapy. However, the potential adverse events associated with oestrogen replacement should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      137.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 19-year-old female with a history of schizophrenia has been admitted multiple times...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female with a history of schizophrenia has been admitted multiple times in the past five years. Despite showing positive responses to medication when taken regularly, she has been noncompliant with her treatment. What is the appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

      Correct Answer: depo injections of antipsychotic medications

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. The use of antipsychotic medications, also known as neuroleptic medication or major tranquillisers, is the primary treatment option for schizophrenia. These medications have been proven to reduce the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and prevent relapses. In some cases, depo preparations may be necessary to improve compliance.

      Aside from antipsychotic medications, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is also used for the treatment of schizophrenia. However, its effect is short-lived and less effective compared to antipsychotic medication. It is important to note that treatment plans for schizophrenia may vary depending on the individual’s symptoms and response to medication. It is best to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 72-year-old woman is prescribed amiodarone for her atrial fibrillation. Her physician orders...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is prescribed amiodarone for her atrial fibrillation. Her physician orders baseline liver and renal function tests as well as a chest x-ray. What other important test should be done before starting amiodarone therapy?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function

      Explanation:

      The Side Effects of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various cardiac dysrhythmias, but its use is limited due to its significant side effect profile. The drug can cause hepatic dysfunction and drug-associated hepatitis, so regular liver function assessments are necessary. Respiratory complications, such as pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis, can also occur, and a baseline chest x-ray should be carried out before treatment. If respiratory symptoms occur, prompt investigation is necessary, and discontinuation of the drug is advisable to prevent further deterioration in function.

      Amiodarone can also cause eye-related side effects, such as corneal microdeposits that can impair visual acuity and cause night-time glare. Visual discolouration, optic atrophy, non-ischaemic neuritis, papilloedema, and various visual field defects have also been reported. Peripheral neuropathy with decreased peripheral sensation and tremor can also occur.

      It is important to establish a baseline thyroid profile before starting treatment, as amiodarone can cause both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism. Both free thyroxine (T4) and tri-iodothyronine (T3) are monitored, as well as thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

      In summary, amiodarone can cause significant side effects, and regular monitoring is necessary to detect and manage them promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      364.8
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder has been consistently taking her medication during...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder has been consistently taking her medication during pregnancy. During her recent ultrasound, her baby was found to have characteristics linked to spina bifida. Which medication is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      The Teratogenic Effects of Certain Medications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, certain medications can have teratogenic effects on the developing fetus. One such medication is sodium valproate, which is an anticonvulsant and bipolar disorder treatment. Its use during pregnancy is contraindicated due to its association with congenital malformations and neurodevelopmental disorders, such as spina bifida, congenital heart defects, cleft lip, and neonatal bleeding disorders. If sodium valproate must be used during pregnancy, the lowest effective dose should be administered and additional monitoring is required.

      Lithium therapy during pregnancy has also been linked to an increased risk of congenital heart disease, stillbirth, and early infant deaths, as well as increased risk of toxicity for both the mother and fetus. Olanzapine, on the other hand, has been found to have the same risk of congenital defects as the general population.

      Bupropion has been associated with an increased risk of congenital heart defects if used during pregnancy. However, studies suggest that carbamazepine has one of the lowest rates of teratogenicity when used during pregnancy. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of medication use during pregnancy and to explore alternative options whenever possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.9
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man with a history of severe mental illness presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with a history of severe mental illness presents to the Emergency Department with emesis, abdominal pain and stupor. The paramedic reports that the patient was found unconscious with a container of windshield washer fluid in his hands.
      During examination, the patient's breath has a strong smell of alcohol. As part of the initial assessment, an arterial blood gas (ABG) is performed.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.25 7.35–7.45
      pCO2 4.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      pO2 13.2 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      HCO3- 14 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl-) 102 mmol/l 98–106 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate therapeutic option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Gastric lavage

      Correct Answer: Fomepizole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Methanol Toxicity: Fomepizole vs. Ethanol vs. Gastric Lavage

      Methanol toxicity can be identified from a history of ingestion of substances such as windshield washer fluid. This results in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis, which is caused by the formation of formic acid. Fomepizole is a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, which prevents the formation of toxic metabolites and is the most appropriate therapeutic option for methanol toxicity. Ethanol can also compete with methanol for metabolism by alcohol dehydrogenase, but it is less commonly used in clinical practice. Ethylene glycol toxicity requires treatment with fomepizole as well. Gastric lavage is not commonly used due to questions surrounding its efficacy and is not the best option for methanol toxicity. Nutritional supplementation with thiamine and vitamin B is not effective in improving the clinical state of methanol toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      92.8
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman is receiving treatment for a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is receiving treatment for a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis on a general medical ward. She is currently on IV steroids for the past 4 days. During the morning ward round, her bloods are taken to assess her illness. The results are as follows:

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 112 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Magnesium 0.38 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.1)
      CRP 32 (<5)

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's illness?

      Your Answer: Oral magnesium salts

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for hypomagnesaemia is IV magnesium, especially if the patient’s magnesium level is below 0.4 mmol/L or if they are experiencing tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures. In this case, the patient’s hypomagnesaemia is likely caused by their ulcerative colitis-induced diarrhoea. Therefore, IV magnesium should be administered to correct the deficiency. There is no indication of infection, so IV antibiotics are not necessary at this time. Although the patient’s CRP is elevated due to their severe ulcerative colitis exacerbation, no action is not an appropriate response to the low magnesium level. While oral loperamide may help alleviate diarrhoea in patients without infection, it is not typically used in the management of ulcerative colitis exacerbations and will not address the abnormality in the patient’s blood results.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.

      When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 7 - A client schedules a consultation with their GP for a medication review. They...

    Incorrect

    • A client schedules a consultation with their GP for a medication review. They have just begun taking digoxin and you are discussing the potential adverse effects of this medication. What are some of the side effects that can be caused by this drug?

      Your Answer: Hypermagnesemia

      Correct Answer: Loss of appetite

      Explanation:

      Anorexia, or loss of appetite, is a potential side effect of digoxin use. Additionally, digoxin toxicity may manifest with anorexia, as well as symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. While heartburn is not commonly associated with digoxin toxicity, other medications like NSAIDs are more likely to cause this side effect. Contrary to what one might expect, digoxin toxicity can lead to hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. This is because digoxin inhibits the Na-K pump, which reduces the amount of potassium that can be pumped into cells, resulting in an increase in extracellular potassium. Digoxin use may also lower serum magnesium levels, rather than causing hypermagnesemia. Finally, digoxin can cause changes in vision that appear yellow or green, rather than red.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.6
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  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode of psychosis. After assessment, he is diagnosed with schizophrenia. He has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. The consultant psychiatrist plans to initiate pimozide 2 mg daily. What baseline investigation and regular monitoring are required for this medication?

      Your Answer: Renal profile

      Correct Answer: Electrocardiography

      Explanation:

      Pimozide: An Effective Antipsychotic with Cardiac Risks

      Pimozide is a potent antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and psychosis. It works by blocking multiple neurotransmitter receptors, including dopamine D2 receptors, serotonin receptors, and acetylcholine receptors. However, its significant dopamine antagonistic properties can cause severe extrapyramidal side effects such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. Pimozide is also associated with the development of cardiac arrhythmias, including prolongation of the QT interval and supraventricular tachycardias. This can lead to sudden deterioration into ventricular tachycardia, torsades de pointes, and even ventricular fibrillation, which can be fatal. Therefore, baseline recording of the ECG and monthly review are mandatory while taking the drug, and any change in the QT interval duration should prompt discontinuation or reduction of the drug. Patients with pre-existing prolongation, concurrent use of other drugs that prolong the QT interval, or congenitally extended QT durations should not be started on this drug.

      Pregnancy is not a contraindication for the use of antipsychotic drugs, but women taking dopamine antagonists in the third trimester may deliver babies displaying transient extrapyramidal side effects. Most antipsychotic drugs do not affect renal function significantly, but pre-existing renal failure necessitates dose reduction. Pimozide is not known to be toxic to the lungs, and baseline chest x-ray is not required. While pimozide is an effective antipsychotic medication, its cardiac risks must be carefully monitored to prevent potentially fatal arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old retired teacher is prescribed donepezil for mild Alzheimer's dementia. What side-effects...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired teacher is prescribed donepezil for mild Alzheimer's dementia. What side-effects should she be warned about before starting the medication?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: Hallucination

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Donepezil: A Guide for Patients

      Donepezil is a medication commonly used to treat symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease. However, like all medications, it can cause side effects. It is important for patients to understand these potential side effects in order to make informed decisions about their treatment.

      Gastrointestinal side effects are the most common with donepezil, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and dyspepsia. In rare cases, it may even cause peptic ulcer disease. Genitourinary side effects such as urinary incontinence may also occur.

      Central nervous system side effects are also possible, including hallucinations, agitation, seizures, and insomnia. While cardiac side effects are rare, donepezil may increase the risk of stroke and myocardial infarction and may rarely cause sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node block.

      It is important to note that anticholinesterase medications like donepezil should be started at a low dose and gradually increased over weeks to months to avoid side effects.

      Hypertension, constipation, and atrial fibrillation are not recognized side effects of donepezil. Drowsiness and sedation are also not commonly associated with donepezil, but agitation and insomnia may occur.

      In summary, patients taking donepezil should be aware of the potential side effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. With proper monitoring and management, the benefits of donepezil may outweigh the risks for many patients with Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 10 - A 51-year-old man with schizoaffective disorder has been stabilized on haloperidol for the...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man with schizoaffective disorder has been stabilized on haloperidol for the past 13 years. He expresses concern about a medication side-effect that began approximately two years ago but has worsened over time, despite taking breaks from the medication for up to three months. He describes involuntary facial movements such as lip smacking and excessive blinking. Assuming the patient is not on any other medications, what is the most probable issue he is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Common Movement Disorders Caused by Medications

      Medications used to treat various conditions can sometimes cause movement disorders as side effects. Here are some common movement disorders caused by medications:

      1. Tardive dyskinesia: This is a largely irreversible side effect of long-term anti-psychotic therapy, resulting in stereotyped oral-facial movements such as lip smacking, grimacing, tongue movements, or excessive blinking.

      2. Akinesia: This is the inability to initiate movement, feeling locked in and frozen.

      3. Acute dystonia: This is a sudden-onset muscle contraction that causes abnormal posturing or twisting. It can be very painful and occurs very quickly after ingestion.

      4. Akathisia: This is restlessness secondary to an inner feeling of angst or stress if sitting still. In Greek, it literally means can’t sit still.

      5. Chorea: This may be caused by adverse effects of drug treatments, especially medications for Parkinson’s disease, epilepsy, and schizophrenia. There can be involuntary writhing, jerking, or dancing movements often of the hands or feet.

      Common Movement Disorders Caused by Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.4
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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension experiences painful swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension experiences painful swelling in his right knee after starting a new medication prescribed by his GP. What is the most conclusive test to confirm his diagnosis?

      The definitive investigation to confirm his diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for this patient.

      Your Answer: Serum uric acid levels

      Correct Answer: Joint aspirate for microscopy

      Explanation:

      Gout: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis

      Gout is a medical condition characterized by severe joint pain, redness, and swelling, particularly in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe. This condition is caused by hyperuricaemia, which leads to the deposition of sodium monourate crystals in the joint. Gout attacks can be triggered by various factors, including trauma, surgery, starvation, infection, and diuretics.

      Diagnosing gout can be challenging, as serum uric acid levels are not always elevated. However, the identification of urate crystals in tissues and synovial fluid can accurately confirm the diagnosis. During an acute attack of gout, serum uric acid levels may even fall acutely and be within the normal range. Microscopy of synovial fluid can reveal negatively birefringent crystals and neutrophils with ingested crystals.

      In summary, gout is a painful condition that can be caused by various factors and is characterized by joint pain, redness, and swelling. Accurate diagnosis can be made by identifying urate crystals in tissues and synovial fluid, as serum uric acid levels may not always be elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman is currently taking folic acid.

    What is an unusual...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman is currently taking folic acid.

      What is an unusual side effect that can occur with the use of folic acid during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Venous thromboembolism

      Correct Answer: Neurological impairment

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Supplementation and Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Folic acid supplementation is generally safe, but it can worsen neurological symptoms in patients who are deficient in both folate and vitamin B12. This can lead to neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. However, in pregnant women, the benefits of folic acid supplementation outweigh the risks. Women who are at risk of vitamin B deficiencies may require concomitant vitamin B12 supplementation. Additionally, women with chronic diseases such as diabetes or epilepsy may require higher doses of folic acid during pregnancy to reduce the risk of fetal malformations. This is due to the effects of the condition itself or the results of treatment. Overall, folic acid supplementation is generally safe and beneficial, but it is important to consider individual patient factors and potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11
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  • Question 13 - Drug X activates a receptor Y to produce a cellular response. Drug Z,...

    Correct

    • Drug X activates a receptor Y to produce a cellular response. Drug Z, when administered, binds to a distinct site on Y and halts the cellular response, even in the presence of drug X. What term could be used to describe drug Z?

      Your Answer: Non-competitive antagonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists and Antagonists in Drug Action

      Agonists and antagonists are two types of drugs that interact with receptors in the body. An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and causes an increase in receptor activity, resulting in a biological response. On the other hand, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response.

      There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and binds to the same site on the receptor. This reduces the number of binding sites available to the agonist, resulting in a decrease in receptor activity. In contrast, a non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and binds to a different site on the receptor. When the non-competitive antagonist binds to the receptor, it causes an alteration in the receptor structure or its interaction with downstream effects in the cell. As a result, an agonist molecule is unable to bind to the receptor and biological actions are prevented.

      In summary, agonists and antagonists are important in drug action as they interact with receptors in the body to produce or inhibit biological responses. the differences between competitive and non-competitive antagonists is crucial in drug development and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department 2 hours after ingesting approximately...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department 2 hours after ingesting approximately 70 of his mother's blood pressure pills following a recent breakup. He reports feeling fatigued, experiencing heart palpitations, and noticing a yellow-green tint to his vision. The medical team conducts observations, an ECG, and urgent blood tests. The ECG reveals sinus tachycardia. Oxygen saturation on air is 98%, heart rate is 115, blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 16. The blood tests show hyperkalemia with a potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0). The appropriate definitive management, besides treating the hyperkalemia, is what?

      Your Answer: Administer Digibind

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for severe digoxin toxicity is Digibind. The patient’s symptoms, such as a yellow-green tinge to vision and lethargy, strongly suggest a digoxin overdose. Administering 50g activated charcoal within an hour of ingestion may be helpful, but it is no longer applicable in this case. Watchful waiting is not advisable due to the severity of the overdose. Although the patient’s vital signs are currently normal except for tachycardia, admission to a coronary care unit (CCU) is necessary. While EDTA is a chelating agent used for heavy metal poisoning, it is not relevant to this case.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being discovered...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being discovered unconscious in his apartment by his girlfriend. The patient had phoned his girlfriend to inform her that he had consumed a significant amount of different tablets but now regrets doing so. The type of tablets ingested is unknown.
      Which of the following toxic drugs is correctly matched with its antidote?

      Your Answer: Beta-blockers and adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol and fomepizole

      Explanation:

      Antidotes for Common Drug Overdoses

      In cases of drug overdose, specific antidotes can be administered to counteract the toxic effects of the drug. Here are some examples:

      Ethylene glycol and fomepizole: Fomepizole is the preferred treatment for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning. Ethylene glycol is broken down by alcohol dehydrogenase, but if this enzyme is overwhelmed, toxic metabolites can form. Fomepizole blocks alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing the formation of toxic metabolites.

      Paracetamol and bicarbonate: N-Acetylcysteine is used to treat paracetamol overdose, while sodium bicarbonate is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose.

      Benzodiazepines and naloxone: Naloxone is the antidote for opiate overdose, while flumazenil can reverse the effects of benzodiazepines.

      Digoxin and calcium: Digoxin antibodies (Digibind®) can be used in severe cases of digoxin overdose.

      Beta-blockers and adrenaline: Glucagon and cardiac pacing are used to treat beta-blocker overdose.

      Knowing the appropriate antidote for a specific drug overdose can be life-saving. It is important to seek medical attention immediately in cases of suspected overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old Asian man with ischaemic heart disease is being treated for severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old Asian man with ischaemic heart disease is being treated for severe community-acquired pneumonia with amoxicillin and clarithromycin. What is the most important medication he should stop taking while on antibiotics?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Interactions and Contraindications of Medications in a Patient with Pneumonia

      When treating a patient with moderate-to-high severity community-acquired pneumonia, it is important to consider potential interactions and contraindications of the medications prescribed. In this case, the patient is receiving dual antibiotic therapy with amoxicillin and clarithromycin. Clarithromycin is a potent inhibitor of the CYP3A4 enzyme, which is involved in the metabolism of medications like statins, colchicine, and carbamazepine. Therefore, concurrent use of a statin and clarithromycin is contraindicated due to the risk of elevated serum concentrations and potential side effects like rhabdomyolysis. Aspirin, bisoprolol, and clopidogrel are not known to interact significantly with either amoxicillin or clarithromycin. However, it is important to consider contraindications for each medication, such as the use of bisoprolol in asthmatics or the contraindication of clopidogrel in patients with bleeding disorders or gastric ulceration. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is contraindicated in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to ACE inhibitors, severe renal disease, pregnancy, or hypotension. Overall, careful consideration of medication interactions and contraindications is crucial in the treatment of patients with pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man was diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) six months ago. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man was diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) six months ago. He was prescribed isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol. Today, during his clinic visit, he reports experiencing tingling and reduced sensation in his toes for the past 2 weeks. Upon conducting a peripheral neurological examination, it was found that he has a bilateral sensory loss in his feet up to the level of his ankle. What medication should have been prescribed in addition to his current medications to prevent the development of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Correct Answer: Pyridoxine

      Explanation:

      Prescribing pyridoxine can help lower the risk of peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with anorexia, fatigue, nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with anorexia, fatigue, nausea and generalised pain. He has a medical history notable for palliate prostate cancer for which he has refused treatment, and remains independent. Routine blood results confirm your suspicions:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 89 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Corrected Ca2+ 3.1 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      You commence treatment with intravenous fluid and the recommended intravenous drug infusion.
      In which principal way will this medication correct the biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer: Decrease renal reabsorption of calcium

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the release of calcium from bones

      Explanation:

      Treating Hypercalcaemia with Bisphosphonates

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of serum calcium concentration, with the majority of cases being secondary to cancer and bone metastases or primary hyperparathyroidism. Treatment varies depending on the severity of the condition, with moderate hypercalcaemia requiring intervention. In this scenario, a patient with palliative prostatic cancer presents with moderate hypercalcaemia and requires treatment.

      The first step in treatment is intravenous fluid resuscitation for volume repletion, followed by an intravenous bisphosphonate infusion, such as pamidronate. Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption, which reduces the amount of calcium released into the circulation. This is achieved through a dual action, where bisphosphonates bind to calcium phosphate crystals in bone and inhibit their breakdown, as well as inhibiting the action of osteoclasts, the cells primarily involved in bone breakdown. The action of bisphosphonates may take a few days to be evident, depending on the agent used.

      It is important to note that treatment regimes may vary between hospitals, and it is essential to follow local guidelines when treating hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia, such as calcium supplementation, Addison’s disease, acromegaly, Paget’s disease, and sarcoidosis, present more rarely. Mild hypercalcaemia is defined as a serum calcium concentration of 2.65-3.00 mmol/l, moderate hypercalcaemia as 3.01-3.40 mmol/l, and severe hypercalcaemia as >3.40 mmol/l.

      In conclusion, bisphosphonates are an effective treatment for hypercalcaemia, inhibiting the release of calcium from bones and reducing serum calcium concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old male patient is admitted to hospital with an acute arterial thrombosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male patient is admitted to hospital with an acute arterial thrombosis in his left leg. He requires an intravenous infusion of an anticoagulant whilst waiting for surgery. This drug requires monitoring and dose adjustment.
      How is this managed?

      Your Answer: Measure directly the levels of clotting factors

      Correct Answer: Monitor the ability of the patient’s blood to clot in vitro

      Explanation:

      Methods for Monitoring Drug Therapy

      Monitoring drug therapy is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose and to detect any potential side effects. Here are some methods commonly used to monitor drug therapy:

      1. Monitor the ability of the patient’s blood to clot in vitro: This method is used to measure the effect of drugs such as unfractionated heparin. The APTT is regularly tested to monitor the coagulation pathways.

      2. Examine the patient for side-effects and reduce dose subsequently: This method is used to monitor magnesium therapy. High doses can be detected by testing deep reflexes.

      3. Directly measuring the drug in the patient’s serum: This method is commonly used to monitor drugs like lithium and digoxin. In the case of unfractionated heparin, this is the most likely option.

      4. Measure directly the levels of clotting factors: This method is used to monitor warfarin therapy. The international normalized ratio is tested to measure the extrinsic pathway.

      5. Measure drug metabolites in the patient’s serum: This method is not commonly used as there are no easily measurable metabolites in the patient’s serum.

      Methods for Monitoring Drug Therapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - A new drug, Dangerex, is being studied as an antidepressant with a lower...

    Incorrect

    • A new drug, Dangerex, is being studied as an antidepressant with a lower risk of overdose and suicide. The drug's volume of distribution is determined to be 200 L. What does this suggest about the probable drug distribution?

      Your Answer: The drug is likely to be distributed among the extracellular fluid only

      Correct Answer: The drug is lipophilic and will be likely to cross the blood-brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Drug Distribution in the Body

      Drug distribution in the body is the process by which a drug is spread throughout the different compartments of the body. The extent of distribution varies depending on the chemical structure, size, and ability of the drug to transport itself across membranes. The pattern of distribution affects the drug’s ability to interact with its target and deliver the desired effect.

      The volume of distribution (Vd) is a measure that describes how the drug spreads across the body’s compartments. It is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the plasma concentration. For instance, a Vd of 14 L in a typical 70 kg adult indicates that the drug is distributed only among the extracellular fluid space. On the other hand, a Vd greater than 42 L suggests that the drug is lipophilic and can distribute beyond the body’s fluid.

      Some drugs with high Vds are preferentially distributed in the body’s fat reserves. Lipophilic drugs can pass the blood-brain barrier and penetrate the brain, while lipophobic and hydrophilic drugs may not reach adequate levels in the brain tissue to achieve the desired effect.

      the distribution of drugs in the body is crucial in determining the drug’s efficacy and potential side effects. It helps healthcare professionals to optimize drug dosages and develop effective treatment plans for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - Each of the following drugs are known to induce cytochrome p450 enzyme, except...

    Correct

    • Each of the following drugs are known to induce cytochrome p450 enzyme, except which one?
      Rifampicin
      12%
      Isoniazid
      47%
      Phenobarbitone
      8%
      Griseofulvin
      23%
      Carbamazepine
      10%

      Is it true that isoniazid inhibits the P450 system? This information is important for me to know.

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The P450 system is inhibited by isoniazid.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old man has been admitted to hospital for pain management. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man has been admitted to hospital for pain management. The patient has metastatic lung cancer and is undergoing palliative radiotherapy. He received his last dose of analgesia 3 hours ago. On inspection, the patient is obtunded and has constricted pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.
      Which analgesia is the patient most likely to have received to cause this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Oxycodone is a strong synthetic opioid pain reliever that affects the brain’s respiratory and breathing centers. Overdose symptoms, known as the opiate triad, include pinpoint pupils, unconsciousness, and respiratory depression. Combining opioids with alcohol or sedatives increases the risk of respiratory depression and death. Naloxone can reverse the effects of an opiate overdose if administered promptly. Phenobarbital, an older anti-epileptic drug, can cause sedation and dilated pupils but is not used to treat lung cancer pain. Amitriptyline can cause sedation, but pupils will be dilated. Diazepam, an anxiolytic, can cause sedation and dilated pupils. Haloperidol, commonly used for end-of-life nausea, may cause pupil constriction but is less likely to cause respiratory depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old patient, with advanced liver cirrhosis and a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient, with advanced liver cirrhosis and a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma, is experiencing intense back pain. Considering his liver dysfunction, which medication would be the most appropriate for pain relief?

      Your Answer: Pethidine

      Correct Answer: Fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Safe and Unsafe Pain Medications for Patients with Chronic Liver Disease

      Patients with chronic liver disease or cirrhosis require special consideration when it comes to pain management. Some pain medications can cause histamine release, haemodynamic disturbance, altered bioavailability, and accumulation of toxic metabolites and intermediates. Here are some examples:

      Safe Choices:
      – Fentanyl: causes less histamine release and haemodynamic disturbance than other opiates.
      – Acetaminophen: does not cause liver damage when used in recommended doses.

      Unsafe Choices:
      – Codeine: should be avoided due to the risk of altered bioavailability and elevated risk of accumulation of toxic metabolites and intermediates.
      – Pethidine: there is an increased risk of accumulation when opioids are used in patients with liver impairment.
      – Tramadol: has the same risks associated with pethidine and codeine in liver impairment.

      It is also important to note that non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and aspirin should be avoided in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. Always consult with a healthcare provider before taking any pain medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient is a 70-year-old man who has come for a follow-up appointment to review his recent blood test results. During his last visit, you had expressed concern about his elevated plasma glucose levels and advised him to make some lifestyle changes. He reports that he has made some dietary modifications and has started walking to the local shops instead of driving.

      The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease, chronic kidney disease, and osteoarthritis. His fasting blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 146 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 235 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 10.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 216 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 28 ml/minute
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): <5 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Plasma glucose: 7.3 mol/L (normal range: <6 mmol/L)
      - Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): 54 mmol/mol

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's HbA1c levels?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      This individual has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, as evidenced by elevated blood glucose levels on two separate occasions and an HbA1c measurement of >48 mmol/mol. Despite receiving lifestyle advice, medication is necessary for treatment. However, due to an eGFR <30ml/minute, metformin is not a suitable option. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most appropriate treatment. While the DESMOND course may be beneficial for ongoing management, it does not replace the need for medication in this case. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin. There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy. When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department by her father. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department by her father. She states that she accidentally swallowed 20 tablets of ferrous sulphate from the family medicine cabinet. What is the recommended treatment for acute iron toxicity?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Correct Answer: Desferrioxamine

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Acute Iron Toxicity

      Acute iron toxicity can be effectively treated with the use of an iron chelating agent called desferrioxamine. It is important to note that ferrous gluconate and ferrous succinate, which are commonly used for iron supplementation, should not be given in this situation as they can worsen the toxicity. Folinic acid, a derivative of folic acid, is not useful in treating acute iron toxicity.

      Symptoms of acute iron toxicity include necrotising gastritis with severe vomiting, gastrointestinal haemorrhage, diarrhoea, and circulatory collapse. To treat this condition, desferrioxamine can be administered enterally via an NG tube to bind ingested iron that is still in the stomach. This binding process prevents iron absorption, and the iron-desferrioxamine complex will be eliminated in the faeces. Alternatively, desferrioxamine can be given intramuscularly or intravenously to bind iron in the intravascular and extravascular fluid compartments. The iron-desferrioxamine complex is then excreted in the urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following is a competitive antagonist of aldosterone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a competitive antagonist of aldosterone?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Diuretics: A Closer Look at Spironolactone

      Diuretics are medications that promote the excretion of excess fluids and salts from the body. Spironolactone is a type of diuretic that works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone promotes the excretion of sodium and water, while retaining potassium.

      However, when used in combination with other medications such as ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Therefore, it is important to monitor electrolyte levels when using spironolactone.

      Other types of diuretics include amiloride, which inhibits epithelial sodium channels, bendroflumethiazide, which inhibits the thiazide-sensitive sodium chloride symporter, and furosemide, which promotes the loss of sodium via inhibition of the sodium-potassium-chloride symporter. Lithium, on the other hand, blocks the action of vasopressin, which can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in some patients.

      In summary, spironolactone is a diuretic that works by blocking aldosterone and promoting the excretion of sodium and water while retaining potassium. However, it should be used with caution in combination with other medications and electrolyte levels should be monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - You are requested to assess a patient with chronic kidney disease who needs...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a patient with chronic kidney disease who needs antibiotics for a systemic bacterial infection. As the patient has renal impairment, you are apprehensive about prescribing drugs that are excreted by the kidney. The microbiology department has provided you with the culture and sensitivity results and suggested the following options for antibiotics: Ceftazidime, Metronidazole, Meropenem, Piperacillin-tazobactam, and Vancomycin. Which of these options would necessitate therapeutic drug monitoring in a patient with renal dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.

      Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A woman you are treating for tuberculosis describes how, since starting treatment, she...

    Correct

    • A woman you are treating for tuberculosis describes how, since starting treatment, she has noticed that her urine has turned orange.

      What medication is causing this change in urine color?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      One of the peculiar side effects of rifampicin, a medication used in TB treatment, is the discoloration of bodily secretions to orange. However, the other medications used in TB treatment do not cause such a side effect. The notes below provide information on the side effects of these medications.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department on a Saturday night with...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department on a Saturday night with complaints of palpitations and feeling unwell. Her friends report that she had a negative reaction to the alcohol they consumed and deny any use of illegal substances. Upon examination, she appears anxious and is holding onto her chest. Her pupils are dilated, and her pulse rate is 110/min, blood pressure 135/92 mmHg. She mentions feeling nauseous. Which of the following substances could be responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cannabis

      Correct Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - You are working in the oncology ward and you are called to see...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the oncology ward and you are called to see a patient with advanced lung cancer and bone metastases. The elderly patient informs you that she is experiencing pain. On looking at her drug kardex, you notice that she is prescribed 30mg of oral long-acting morphine sulfate twice daily and has already taken both doses today. Additionally, she takes regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. What is the appropriate breakthrough analgesia that you should prescribe?

      Your Answer: 20 mg of oramorph

      Correct Answer: 10 mg of oramorph

      Explanation:

      To provide breakthrough analgesia, it is recommended to administer 1/6th of the total daily opioid dose. For this patient who takes 60 mg of long acting morphine sulphate in a 24 hour period, an appropriate amount of short acting morphine (oramorph) for breakthrough pain would be 10 mg.

      Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.

      For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.

      Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominal Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.

      Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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