00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is localised around the right eye and is associated with tearing and redness of the eye. The patient reported he has had similar episodes over the last year. He also admits that these episodes occurred every day for a few weeks with one to three attacks a day which last for 1-2 hours, frequently at night. After 6 weeks, the attacks stopped. She lost her job 6 months ago and has noticed an increase in the intensity of the pain since. Examination reveals drooping of the eyelid and small pupil on the right side.
      Select the single MOST likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Types: Cluster Headache, Intracranial Neoplasm, Acute Anterior Uveitis, Migraine, and Tension-Type Headache

      Headaches can be caused by various factors, and it is important to differentiate between different types to provide appropriate treatment. Cluster headache is a rare condition that affects mostly men and is characterized by intense pain around one eye, accompanied by nasal stuffiness and sometimes Horner syndrome. In contrast, headache is often a late symptom of an intracranial neoplasm, and a new headache or change in pattern may indicate an underlying tumor. Acute anterior uveitis presents with eye pain, redness, photophobia, excessive tearing, and decreased vision. Migraine is a common type of headache that presents with severe, often unilateral pain, accompanied by vomiting and photophobia. Tension-type headache is usually mild to moderate and described as pressure or tightness around the head. Understanding the specific features and associated symptoms of each type of headache can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      83.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old man presents for his first seasonal influenza vaccination. He reports a...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents for his first seasonal influenza vaccination. He reports a history of anaphylaxis and carries an epipen. What would be a contraindication to administering the vaccine?

      Your Answer: Food allergy to egg

      Explanation:

      Being mindful of contraindications for the influenza vaccine is crucial. The presence of ovalbumin, an egg protein, in the regular influenza vaccine may lead to anaphylaxis in individuals with a severe egg allergy. To address this concern, egg protein-free vaccines such as Optaflu are accessible for these patients.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - John is a 35-year-old man with a body mass index of 32 kg/m²...

    Correct

    • John is a 35-year-old man with a body mass index of 32 kg/m² who has presented with a recurrence of boils in his axilla. He has had this numerous times before requiring antibiotics and has even had an incision and drainage on one occasion. He also described one episode of such boils on his vulva a few years ago. On this occasion, you notice large red lumps in his right axilla. There is some scarring of the skin and you also notice a little hole with pus discharging out of it.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa

      Explanation:

      The development of sinus tracts and fistulas can be a possible complication of hidradenitis suppurativa.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left lower limb pain lasting for three hours. The pain started while she was at rest and there was no history of injury or any previous leg or calf pain.
      Upon examination, her pulse rate is irregular and measures 92 bpm. The left lower limb is cold and immobile with decreased sensation. No pulses can be felt from the level of the femoral pulse downwards in the left leg, but all pulses are palpable on the right. There are no abdominal masses or bruits, and chest auscultation is normal.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Deep venous thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Acute Limb Ischaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Acute limb ischaemia is a condition characterized by a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb that feels perishingly cold with paraesthesia. This condition is usually caused by either an embolus or thrombotic occlusion, which can occur on the background of intermittent claudication (chronic limb ischaemia). In most cases, the likely cause of acute limb ischaemia is an embolism secondary to atrial fibrillation. Other sources of emboli include defective heart valves, cardiac mural thrombi, and thrombus from within an aortic aneurysm.

      If a patient presents with a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb, an echocardiogram, abdominal ultrasound, and duplex of proximal limb vessels are indicated. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to note that acute limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Delayed treatment can lead to irreversible tissue damage and even limb loss.

      In summary, acute limb ischaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention immediately to prevent irreversible tissue damage and limb loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while pregnant. It will be a ten-hour flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.

      What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated twin pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 32 of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 28 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Flying while pregnant with twins

      When it comes to flying while pregnant with twins, there are certain restrictions that airlines impose. Unlike a single, uncomplicated pregnancy where the limit is week 37, most airlines will not allow pregnant women carrying twins or more to fly after week 32. This is due to the increased risks of certain medical conditions while travelling in the air that are compounded by pregnancy, as well as the higher risk of going into labor.

      Aside from these restrictions, pregnant women should also be advised on DVT prophylaxis, especially for flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, in-seat exercises, keeping hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya. Six weeks after his return, he visits his GP with complaints of malaise, headaches, and night sweats. During the examination, the doctor observes a symmetrical erythematous macular rash on his trunk and limbs along with cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schistosomiasis

      Correct Answer: Acute HIV infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion

      HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 1-day history of left-sided neck pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 1-day history of left-sided neck pain and right-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain began, he noted that his left eyelid was drooping and that he had developed weakness and altered sensation in his right arm and leg.
      He had recently visited a chiropractor for neck pain after a road traffic accident. Examination reveals a left Horner syndrome and weakness and sensory disturbance on the right-hand side with an extensor right plantar.
      What is the single most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral medullary infarction

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Sudden-Onset Symptoms and Signs with Horner Syndrome: Carotid Artery Dissection

      The sudden onset of symptoms and signs, along with Horner syndrome, suggests a possible left carotid artery dissection leading to left hemispheric ischaemia and subsequent right-sided signs. While chiropractic manipulation and neck trauma can cause carotid and vertebral artery dissections, they often occur spontaneously. Dissection should be considered when neck pain is associated with an ischaemic stroke syndrome. Horner syndrome is a common symptom of carotid artery dissection due to the close relationship between sympathetic nerve fibres and the carotid artery.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as subarachnoid haemorrhage, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, and venous sinus thrombosis, do not fully explain the constellation of symptoms and signs, particularly the presence of Horner syndrome. Therefore, carotid artery dissection remains a likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      118.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What are the two drug classes that should not be used as a...

    Incorrect

    • What are the two drug classes that should not be used as a primary treatment for Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: L-dopa with a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Anticholinergics

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatments for Parkinson’s Disease

      Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a neurological disorder that affects movement and can cause tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. When it comes to treating PD, there are several options available, but not all of them are suitable as first-line treatments.

      Anticholinergics, for example, should be avoided as a first-line treatment due to their association with an increased frequency of neuropsychiatric and cognitive adverse effects. This is especially important to consider for PD patients with cognitive impairment or clinically significant psychiatric illness.

      On the other hand, there are other options that can be used as first-line treatments, such as levodopa, dopamine agonists, and monoamine oxidase B inhibitors. However, ergot-derived dopamine agonists like cabergoline and pergolide should not be used as first-line treatments due to the risk of cardiac fibrosis with long-term use and the need for additional monitoring.

      In summary, it’s important to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of different treatment options for PD, and to choose the most appropriate first-line treatment based on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started while he was mowing the lawn but subsided after he drank a glass of cold lemonade. However, his symptoms have returned. On physical examination, his pulse is regular and measures 150 bpm. An ECG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with P waves linked to each QRS complex.
      What is the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Torsades de pointes

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular (AV) nodal re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia from Other Arrhythmias: An ECG Analysis

      AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia is a type of arrhythmia that causes recurrent palpitations lasting for minutes to hours. Patients may also experience chest pain, shortness of breath, and syncope. The heart rate is usually between 150-250 bpm, and the rhythm is regular with narrow QRS complexes. Vagal manoeuvres can terminate the episode. However, it is essential to differentiate AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, torsades de pointes, and ventricular tachycardia. An ECG analysis can help in this regard.

      Atrial fibrillation is characterised by irregular ventricular complexes with an absence of P waves. In contrast, atrial flutter shows a saw-tooth pattern with the absence of P waves. Torsades de pointes is a rare form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that causes a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. It is associated with a prolonged QT interval. Ventricular tachycardia, on the other hand, is characterised by broad complexes on ECG.

      In conclusion, an ECG analysis is crucial in differentiating AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias. It helps in providing accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment to the patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man who is a non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man who is a non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. His initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. There are no abnormalities found during physical examination.
      Which tumor marker test would be the most beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Uses in Cancer Diagnosis and Monitoring

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood or other bodily fluids. While they are not always reliable for screening or diagnosis, they can be useful in monitoring the progression of cancer and evaluating the effectiveness of treatment. Here are some common tumor markers and their uses:

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA): PSA can be used to screen for prostate cancer and detect recurrence of the malignancy. It is also useful in investigating adenocarcinoma of unknown primary.

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP): AFP, along with beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG), is important in evaluating and treating non-seminomatous germ-cell tumors and monitoring response to therapy. It can also be useful in evaluating potential origins of poorly differentiated metastatic cancer. AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma.

      Beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG): β-hCG, along with AFP, is important in evaluating and treating non-seminomatous germ-cell tumors and monitoring response to therapy. It can also be useful in evaluating potential origins of poorly differentiated metastatic cancer.

      CA 19-9: CA 19-9 may be helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.

      While tumor markers can provide valuable information in cancer diagnosis and monitoring, they should always be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old retired male visits your clinic concerned about his alcohol consumption after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old retired male visits your clinic concerned about his alcohol consumption after watching a show about 'functioning alcoholics'. He confesses to drinking a 750ml bottle of beer every night - to a total of 4 bottles per week. You check the label and find out that the beer is 5% alcohol by volume (abv). What is the total number of units of alcohol this patient consumes in a week?

      Your Answer: 25 units

      Correct Answer: 27 units

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Units

      Alcohol consumption can have negative effects on our health, which is why it is important to understand the recommended guidelines for safe drinking. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines that recommend men and women should drink no more than 14 units of alcohol per week. To put this into perspective, one unit of alcohol is equal to 10 mL of pure ethanol. The strength of an alcoholic drink is determined by the alcohol by volume (ABV), which can vary depending on the type of drink. For example, a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equal to one unit of alcohol.

      To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000. For instance, half a 175ml ‘standard’ glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is equal to 1.05 units. It is important to note that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all, as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says that she is constantly tired, due to looking after her two young sons aged 4 and 6.

      She feels constantly sad and tearful and has lost interest in watching her favourite television programmes. She is now losing weight and lying awake for most of the night worrying about her debts. She says that she feels like a worthless mother to her children and has recurrent thoughts of death.

      You establish a diagnosis of depression, but what would be the usual minimum length of time that she would have to be experiencing core symptoms in order to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Four weeks

      Correct Answer: Six weeks

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Depression

      This patient is displaying several symptoms of depression, which include a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest, weight loss, insomnia, feelings of worthlessness, and recurrent thoughts of death. The absence of family support and the responsibility of caring for two young children would also raise concern for any GP. It is important to note that symptoms must be present for at least two weeks to make a diagnosis of depression. It is essential not to confuse this with screening questions for depression, which may be used for patients with other medical conditions. These screening questions typically ask about symptoms of depression in the preceding four weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast....

    Incorrect

    • Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast. She has been breastfeeding her newborn daughter for the past four weeks. During her visit to the GP, the doctor notes the inflammation and a temperature of 38.2ºC. The GP diagnoses mastitis and prescribes medication while encouraging Jane to continue breastfeeding.

      Which organism is most commonly responsible for causing mastitis?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mastitis: Symptoms, Management, and Risks

      Mastitis is a condition that occurs when the breast tissue becomes inflamed, and it is commonly associated with breastfeeding. It affects approximately 1 in 10 women and is characterized by symptoms such as a painful, tender, and red hot breast, as well as fever and general malaise.

      The first-line management of mastitis is to continue breastfeeding, and simple measures such as analgesia and warm compresses can also be helpful. However, if a woman is systemically unwell, has a nipple fissure, or if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal, treatment with antibiotics may be necessary. The most common organism causing infective mastitis is Staphylococcus aureus, and the first-line antibiotic is oral flucloxacillin for 10-14 days. It is important to note that breastfeeding or expressing should continue during antibiotic treatment.

      If left untreated, mastitis can lead to the development of a breast abscess, which may require incision and drainage. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen. By understanding the symptoms, management, and risks associated with mastitis, women can take proactive steps to address this condition and ensure their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man comes in for his annual heart failure check-up. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes in for his annual heart failure check-up. He reports feeling physically well and is able to perform all his daily activities without any chest symptoms.

      All his vital signs are within normal limits, with a heart rate of 76 beats per minute and blood pressure of 135/80 mmHg. His weight has remained stable since his last visit.

      During the examination, his pulse is regular, and his heart sounds are normal. There is no raised JVP, and his chest is clear. There is minimal pitting edema around both ankles.

      Reviewing his heart failure medications, he is currently taking:

      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Bisoprolol 10 mg once daily
      - Furosemide 40 mg once a day

      Assuming there are no contraindications and with the patient's consent, what would be the most appropriate next step to take during his review?

      Your Answer: Ensure patients is listed for annual influenza vaccination and annual pneumococcal vaccination

      Correct Answer: Ensure patient is listed for annual influenza vaccination

      Explanation:

      As part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure, it is recommended to offer an annual influenza vaccine. While pneumococcal vaccination should also be provided to patients with heart failure, it doesn’t need to be administered every year. The patient in question is already taking the maximum doses of ramipril and bisoprolol approved for heart failure treatment, and their blood pressure is well-managed with their current medications. Currently, there are no indications that increasing the dose of furosemide would benefit the patient’s heart failure management, and it may even cause harm such as electrolyte imbalances.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - According to Health and Safety regulations at work, which injuries or diseases experienced...

    Incorrect

    • According to Health and Safety regulations at work, which injuries or diseases experienced by one of your practice nurses should be reported to the Health and Safety executive under RIDDOR, if none of the conditions have resulted in incapacitation?

      Your Answer: Exercise induced asthma

      Correct Answer: A punch in the face from a violent patient

      Explanation:

      Understanding RIDDOR and Reportable Accidents

      For the purposes of RIDDOR, an accident is defined as a separate, identifiable, unintended incident that causes physical injury. This includes acts of non-consensual violence to people at work. However, not all accidents need to be reported. A RIDDOR report is only required when the accident is work-related and results in an injury of a type which is reportable as listed under HSE’s list of ‘Types of reportable injuries’.

      In this case, exercise-induced asthma, myopia, and type 1 diabetes are not work-related. Fractures to fingers, thumbs, and toes are excluded from reporting, but other fractures are reportable. Occupational diseases such as occupational asthma or dermatitis are also reportable.

      It is important to understand the criteria for reportable accidents under RIDDOR to ensure that incidents are reported appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man visits your clinic. He recently returned from a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits your clinic. He recently returned from a trip to Africa and is experiencing feelings of depression. He believes that his friends who accompanied him on the trip turned against him during the vacation. Since returning, he has been having unusual dreams and is feeling anxious. He reports taking malaria prophylaxis. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Primaquine

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Mefloquine and antimalarial Medication

      Mefloquine is a commonly prescribed antimalarial medication that can cause side effects such as abnormal dreams, depression, psychosis, and panic attacks. As a GP, it is important to inform patients of the risks of malaria and the potential side effects of the medication so that they can make an informed decision.

      When it comes to prescribing antimalarial medication, there are administrative issues to consider. For example, GPs can charge a private fee for prescribing or providing drugs for malaria chemoprophylaxis or for drugs that a patient requires solely in anticipation of an ailment while outside the UK. Some antimalarial medications can also be purchased from chemists without a prescription, which may be financially advantageous for patients.

      It is important to follow national guidance when issuing prescriptions for travel abroad, and to not prescribe medication for longer than a period of three months for extended stays. By being familiar with these administrative issues, GPs can provide the best care for their patients traveling to areas with a high risk of malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The serum potassium levels of 1,000 patients who are prescribed an ACE inhibitor...

    Incorrect

    • The serum potassium levels of 1,000 patients who are prescribed an ACE inhibitor were measured. The average potassium level was found to be 4.6 mmol/l with a standard deviation of 0.3 mmol/l. What is the correct statement regarding this study?

      Your Answer: 99.7% of values lie between 4.0 and 5.2 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The range of values within 1 standard deviation of the mean for a normally distributed variable is 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/l.

      The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
    Select from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
      Select from the list the single most worrying feature that would suggest a need for urgent referral.

      Your Answer: Pulse rate 60/minute

      Correct Answer: Inability to rise from a squatting position without using arms for support

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Medical Risk for Eating Disorders: Indicators for Urgent Referral

      The Institute of Psychiatry has developed a guide for assessing medical risk in patients with eating disorders. General practitioners can evaluate several parameters to determine if urgent referral is necessary. The following circumstances indicate the need for immediate attention:

      Nutrition: A body mass index (BMI) below 14 kg/m2 or weight loss exceeding 0.5 kg per week.

      Circulation: A systolic blood pressure below 90, a diastolic blood pressure below 70, or a postural drop greater than 10 mm Hg.

      Squat test: The patient is unable to stand up without using their arms for balance or leverage due to muscle weakness.

      Core temperature below 35°C.

      Liver function tests (LFTs): Low levels of albumin or glucose.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): A pulse rate below 50 or a prolonged QT interval.

      By recognizing these indicators, healthcare providers can quickly identify patients who require urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a scaly erythematous...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a scaly erythematous rash on his right foot. There is no rash on his left foot. The GP suspects a dermatophyte fungal infection (Tinea pedis) and wants to confirm the diagnosis.
      What is the correct statement about the skin scraping specimen?

      Your Answer: A culture of yeasts is usually significant

      Correct Answer: The presence of branching hyphae on microscopy confirms the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Fungal Skin Infections: Microscopy and Culture

      To confirm a dermatophyte fungal infection, skin samples are collected for microscopy and culture. A scalpel blade is used to scrape off superficial scales from the leading edge of the rash. Lack of scale may indicate a misdiagnosis. Microscopy involves staining the sample with potassium hydroxide and examining it for fungal hyphae. Culture identifies the specific organism responsible for the infection, but may take several weeks and can produce false negatives. Yeast infections can be identified by seeing budding yeast cells under the microscope, but yeasts and moulds may also be harmless colonizers. It is important to confirm the diagnosis before treatment, but if a dermatophyte infection is suspected, treatment should begin promptly. Samples should be transported in a sterile container or black paper envelope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman’s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman’s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She wants to know how likely it is that she will inherit the condition.

      What is the correct mode of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer: No genetic inheritance identified

      Correct Answer: Autosomal-dominant

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of this disease in order to assess the risk of developing it.

      Huntington’s disease is an autosomal-dominant trait, which means that a person only needs one copy of the affected gene to develop the disorder. This also means that if a parent has the disease, their child has a 50% chance of inheriting it.

      It is important to note that Huntington’s disease does run in families and is caused by a defect in a single gene (huntingtin) on chromosome 4. However, it doesn’t follow an X-linked dominant pattern of inheritance, as both men and women are equally affected.

      In summary, understanding the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and potential risk for developing the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man with asthma presents for a follow-up appointment. He complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with asthma presents for a follow-up appointment. He complains of not getting enough relief from his salbutamol inhaler and finds himself using it more frequently.

      You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates the steps of removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, exhaling before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down the canister while inhaling slowly, and then exhaling.

      What suggestions could you offer to improve his technique?

      Your Answer: She should immediately administer a second dose

      Correct Answer: She should hold her breath for 10 seconds after delivering the dose

      Explanation:

      To ensure adequate drug delivery, it is important to use proper inhaler technique, which includes shaking the inhaler, taking a slow breath in, holding the breath for 10 seconds, and waiting 30 seconds between doses.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrizinamide) for pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient also takes sertraline for a history of depression. The patient reports a decline in vision, specifically a decrease in color vibrancy. Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He is a smoker but has no history of respiratory disease and regularly plays football. Upon admission, a chest x-ray reveals a pneumothorax with a 3 cm rim of air. Aspiration is successful, and he is discharged. Two weeks later, a follow-up chest x-ray shows complete resolution. What is the most crucial advice to minimize his risk of future pneumothoraces?

      Your Answer: Arrange a course of respiratory physiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      For non-smoking men, successful drainage can lead to a decrease in the risk of pneumothorax recurrence. The CAA recommends waiting for 2 weeks after drainage before flying if there is no remaining air. The British Thoracic Society previously advised against air travel for 6 weeks, but now suggests waiting only 1 week after a follow-up x-ray.

      Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is...

    Incorrect

    • A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck.

      Which of the following characteristics would worry you the most and would warrant an urgent referral?

      Your Answer: Multiple lymph nodes in the cervical region, each of 1 cm in diameter

      Correct Answer: Firm, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      When to Worry About Lymph Node Enlargement in Children

      Lymphadenopathy, or lymph node enlargement, is a common occurrence in children. In most cases, it is benign and resolves on its own. However, there are certain characteristics that warrant urgent referral to a healthcare provider. These include non-tender, firm or hard lymph nodes, nodes larger than 2 cm, progressively enlarging nodes, general ill-health, fever or weight loss, involvement of axillary nodes (in the absence of local infection or dermatitis), or involvement of supraclavicular nodes.

      It is important to note that these characteristics are particularly concerning if there is no evidence of local infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old patient is initiated on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis related to Wegener's granulomatosis....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is initiated on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis related to Wegener's granulomatosis. What is the most typical association with cyclophosphamide?

      Your Answer: Alopecia

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic cystitis

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhagic cystitis can be caused by cyclophosphamide.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Class 1 compression stockings

      Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings

      When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.

      The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness, and a headache. Laboratory findings reveal a haemoglobin level of 66 g/L and a reticulocyte count of 0.8%. The patient is suspected to have contracted parvovirus.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sequestration crisis

      Correct Answer: Aplastic crisis

      Explanation:

      An aplastic crisis, often caused by parvovirus infection, is characterized by a sudden decrease in haemoglobin levels without a corresponding increase in reticulocytes.

      Understanding Sickle-Cell Crises

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a condition that is characterized by periods of good health with intervening crises. There are different types of crises that are recognized, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crisis, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are usually triggered by infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically, and infarcts can occur in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, causing pooling of blood and worsening of the anaemia. Acute chest syndrome is another type of crisis that is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, leading to infarction in the lung parenchyma. This can result in dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management of acute chest syndrome includes pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus, leading to a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression causes a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and are characterized by a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. Understanding the different types of sickle-cell crises is important for effective management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You encounter a 48-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression, which appears...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 48-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression, which appears to have been triggered by losing his job. He reports feeling significantly better after taking an antidepressant for six weeks and inquires about discontinuing it.

      What is the suggested duration for continuing antidepressant medication to minimize the likelihood of relapse?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Recommended Duration of Treatment for Depression

      According to NICE guidance, individuals who have experienced their first episode of depression should undergo six months of treatment to decrease the likelihood of relapse. However, for those who have recurrent depression, treatment is recommended for a longer period of two years. It is important to note that the duration of treatment may vary depending on the severity of the depression and the individual’s response to treatment. It is crucial for individuals to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate length of treatment for their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      89.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He has hypertension, depression, type II diabetes and benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
      On examination, he is found to have an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (normal range: > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2).
      What is the most appropriate medication to reduce given this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Tamsulosin

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Renal Impairment: A Case Study

      In managing patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use. In this case study, we will review the medication regimen of a patient with an eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 and discuss any necessary adjustments.

      Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis and should be avoided if the patient’s eGFR is ≤ 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. The dose should be reviewed if the eGFR is ≤ 45 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Treatment should also be withdrawn in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function.

      Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression, can be used with caution in renal failure and doesn’t require dose reduction.

      Finasteride, used to treat BPH, doesn’t require dose adjustment in those with renal failure.

      Tamsulosin, also used to treat BPH, should be used with caution in patients with an eGFR level < 10 ml/min per 1.73 m2. However, this patient's eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 doesn't meet this threshold, so no adjustment is necessary at this time. Nifedipine, used to treat hypertension and angina, doesn’t require dose modification in those with renal impairment. In conclusion, medication management in renal impairment requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual case and potential risks and benefits of medication use. Close monitoring and regular review of medication regimens are essential to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      77.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A patient in their 50s with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is still experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is still experiencing constipation and abdominal discomfort despite trying various laxatives. According to NICE guidelines, linaclotide should be considered as a new medication for patients with IBS with constipation who have not responded to different laxatives. What is the primary mechanism of action of linaclotide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases amount of fluid in the intestinal lumen

      Explanation:

      Anxiety-reducing (alleviates symptoms of distress)

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/2) 50%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/3) 33%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/3) 33%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (2/3) 67%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (2/3) 67%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed