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  • Question 1 - A 65-year old man has had syncopal attacks and exertional chest pain which...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man has had syncopal attacks and exertional chest pain which settles spontaneously with rest. He presents to his General Practitioner, not wanting to bother the Emergency Department. On auscultation, there is a loud ejection systolic murmur. Following an electrocardiogram (ECG) he is urgently referred to cardiology and aortic stenosis is diagnosed.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following comorbid conditions is most associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular failure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prognostic Factors in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to limited blood flow and various symptoms such as dyspnea, angina, and syncope. While patients may be asymptomatic for years, the prognosis for symptomatic aortic stenosis is poor, with a 2-year survival rate of only 50%. Sudden deaths can occur due to heart failure or other complications.

      Valvular calcification and fibrosis are the primary causes of aortic stenosis, and the presence of calcification doesn’t have a direct impact on prognosis. However, mixed aortic valve disease, which includes aortic regurgitation, can increase mortality rates, particularly in severe cases.

      Left ventricular failure is a significant prognostic factor in aortic stenosis, indicating late-stage hypertrophy and fibrosis. Patients with left ventricular failure have a poor prognosis both before and after surgery. Hypertension can also impact left ventricular remodelling and accelerate the progression of aortic stenosis, but it is not as significant a prognostic factor as left ventricular failure.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, such as left ventricular hypertrophy, are common in patients with aortic stenosis but are not directly correlated with mortality risk. Understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare providers better manage and treat patients with aortic stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      58.5
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  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended by the practice nurse. Despite taking ramipril 10 mg, amlodipine 5 mg, and atenolol 50 mg, his blood pressure remains elevated at 150/90 mmHg. Upon checking his U&E, his sodium level is 140, potassium level is 3.4, and creatinine level is 110. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hyperaldosteronism

      Such difficult-to-control hypertension and hypokalaemia, despite maximal ACE inhibition, may indicate hyperaldosteronism. The preferred diagnostic investigation is a renin/aldosterone ratio off Antihypertensive medication, with a washout period of four to six weeks. MRI scanning can also help identify an aldosterone-producing tumour. In contrast, phaeochromocytoma typically presents with paroxysms of hypertension, accompanied by headache, anxiety, and sweating. Renal artery stenosis is expected to be associated with an abnormal creatinine in patients using ACE inhibitors. By identifying the underlying cause of hypertension, appropriate treatment can be initiated, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      294.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old man has recently been prescribed apixaban by his haematologist after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man has recently been prescribed apixaban by his haematologist after experiencing a pulmonary embolism. He is currently taking other medications for his co-existing conditions. Can you identify which of his medications may potentially interact with apixaban?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      If anticoagulation is being used for deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, the British National Formulary recommends avoiding the simultaneous use of apixaban and carbamazepine. This is because carbamazepine may lower the plasma concentration of apixaban. No interactions have been identified between apixaban and the other options listed.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of switching to dabigatran to eliminate the requirement for regular INR testing.

      What would be a contraindication to prescribing dabigatran in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Mechanical heart valve

      Explanation:

      Patients with mechanical heart valves should avoid using dabigatran due to its increased risk of bleeding and thrombotic events compared to warfarin. The MHRA has deemed it contraindicated for this population.

      Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications

      Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran doesn’t require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      188
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman has a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the third left intercostals...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the third left intercostals space. It radiates into the left arm and shoulder.
      Select from the list the single associated symptom that this woman is most likely to have.

      Your Answer: Angina

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve becomes narrowed, leading to restricted blood flow from the heart. One of the most common symptoms of aortic stenosis is a murmur heard in the aortic area. This is often due to calcification of the valve. However, symptoms usually only appear when the stenosis becomes severe.

      Patients with aortic stenosis may experience dyspnea on exertion, which is difficulty breathing during physical activity. More concerning symptoms include angina, syncope, or symptoms of heart failure. Angina is caused by left ventricular hypertrophy, while syncope is thought to be due to a failure to increase cardiac output during times of peripheral vasodilation and subsequent hypotension. It’s important to note that drugs that cause peripheral vasodilation, such as nitrates or ACE inhibitors, can increase the risk of syncope.

      Dysphagia is a rare complication of left atrial hypertrophy due to mitral valve disease. Palpitations and transient ischemic attacks are not symptoms that are typically associated with aortic stenosis. The most common source of emboli with transient ischemic attacks is the carotids. Vertigo is not caused by aortic stenosis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms of aortic stenosis is crucial for early detection and treatment. If you experience any concerning symptoms, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      90
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
    Select from the...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
      Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.

      Your Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.

      On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      45.7
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man with predictable chest pain on exertion visits his doctor to...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with predictable chest pain on exertion visits his doctor to discuss medication options. He has previously been diagnosed with angina and undergone necessary investigations. The doctor initiates treatment with aspirin and a statin.

      Which medication would be the most suitable for prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical assessment you decide to treat him with a course of antibiotics. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation for which he takes lifelong warfarin. His notes state he is penicillin allergic and the patient confirms a history of a true allergy.

      You decide to prescribe a course of doxycycline, 200 mg on day 1 then 100 mg daily to complete a 14 day course.

      You can see his INR is very well managed and is consistently between 2.0 and 3.0 and he has been taking 3 mg and 4 mg on alternate days for the last six months without the need for any dose changes.

      What is the most appropriate management of his warfarin therapy during the treatment of this acute exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Check his INR on day 14 at the conclusion of the doxycycline course

      Correct Answer: Check his INR three to five days after starting the doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Managing Warfarin Patients on Antibiotics

      When a patient on warfarin requires antibiotics, it is a common clinical scenario that requires careful management. While there is no need to stop warfarin or switch to aspirin, it is important to monitor the patient’s INR levels closely. Typically, extra INR monitoring should be performed three to five days after starting the antibiotics to check for any potential impact on the INR. If necessary, a dosing change for warfarin may be needed.

      According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology Guidelines for oral anticoagulation with warfarin (2011), it is important to follow specific recommendations for INR testing when a potential drug interaction occurs. By carefully monitoring INR levels and adjusting warfarin dosing as needed, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment for patients on warfarin who require antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      96.9
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  • Question 9 - You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction in the ED. They have been administered aspirin 300 mg stat and glyceryl trinitrate spray (2 puffs). As per the latest NICE recommendations, which patients should be given ticagrelor?

      Your Answer: Patients who have a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease or diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: All patients

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been struggling to control his blood pressure. He is now taking valsartan 320 mg (his initial ACE inhibitor, Perindopril, was stopped due to persistent coughing), amlodipine 10 mg and chlorthalidone 12.5 mg. He is also taking aspirin and simvastatin for primary prevention. His blood pressure today is 158/91. His recent renal function (done for annual hypertension) showed a sodium of 138, a potassium of 4.7, a urea of 4.2 and a creatinine of 80. His eGFR is 67. He is otherwise well in himself.

      Which of the following options would be appropriate for him?

      Your Answer: Refer to a specialist for advice

      Correct Answer: Try ramipril

      Explanation:

      Managing Resistant Hypertension

      Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, often requiring up to four different Antihypertensive agents. If a person is already taking three Antihypertensive drugs and their blood pressure is still not controlled, increasing chlorthalidone to a maximum of 50 mg may be considered, provided that blood potassium levels are higher than 4.5mmol/L. However, caution should be exercised when using co-amilofruse, a potassium-sparing diuretic, in conjunction with valsartan, especially if the patient has a recent history of having a potassium level of 4.5 or higher.

      If a patient has previously developed a cough with an ACE inhibitor, switching to a different ACE inhibitor is unlikely to make any difference. In such cases, bisoprolol may be added if further diuretic treatment is not tolerated, is contraindicated, or is ineffective. It is important to seek specialist advice if secondary causes for hypertension are likely or if a patient’s blood pressure is not controlled on the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four Antihypertensive drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      106
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner after undergoing primary coronary angioplasty for...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner after undergoing primary coronary angioplasty for a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. He has been informed that he has a drug-eluting stent and is worried about potential negative consequences.
      What is accurate regarding these stents?

      Your Answer: The risk of re-stenosis is reduced

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Eluting Stents and Antiplatelet Therapy for Coronary Stents

      Drug-eluting stents (DESs) are metal stents coated with a growth-inhibiting agent that reduces the frequency of restenosis by about 50%. However, the reformation of endothelium is slowed, which prolongs the risk of thrombosis. DESs are recommended if the artery to be treated has a calibre < 3 mm or the lesion is longer than 15 mm, and the price difference between DESs and bare metal stents (BMSs) is no more than £300. Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is required for patients with coronary stents to reduce stent thrombosis. Aspirin is continued indefinitely, while clopidogrel should be used for at least one month with a BMS (ideally, up to one year), and for at least 12 months with a DES. It is important for cardiologists to explain this information to patients, but General Practitioners should also have some knowledge of these procedures. Understanding Drug-Eluting Stents and Antiplatelet Therapy for Coronary Stents

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache that started 3 weeks ago. Samantha's medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia, and she has a body mass index of 29 kg/m².

      During your examination, you measure Samantha's blood pressure which is 190/118 mmHg. A repeat reading shows 186/116 mmHg. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe evidence of retinal haemorrhage.

      What would be the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Refer for same-day specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - Which one of the following statements regarding the metabolic syndrome is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the metabolic syndrome is accurate?

      Your Answer: The central pathophysiological change is thought to be reduced insulin production

      Correct Answer: Decisions on cardiovascular risk factor modification should be made regardless of whether patients meet the criteria for metabolic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The determination of primary prevention measures for cardiovascular disease should rely on established methods and should not be influenced by the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.

      Understanding Metabolic Syndrome

      Metabolic syndrome is a condition that has various definitions, but it is generally believed to be caused by insulin resistance. The American Heart Association and the International Diabetes Federation have similar criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome. According to these criteria, a person must have at least three of the following: elevated waist circumference, elevated triglycerides, reduced HDL, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. The International Diabetes Federation also requires the presence of central obesity and any two of the other four factors. In 1999, the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria that required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, and two of the following: high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and microalbuminuria. Other associated features of metabolic syndrome include raised uric acid levels, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.

      Overall, metabolic syndrome is a complex condition that involves multiple factors and can have serious health consequences. It is important to understand the diagnostic criteria and associated features in order to identify and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old man with a history of angina, well-controlled on a combination of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of angina, well-controlled on a combination of aspirin 75 mg, atenolol 50 mg od, simvastatin 40 mg od, and isosorbide mononitrate 20 mg bd, presents with a pulse rate of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 134/84 mmHg. He also has type II diabetes mellitus, managed with metformin. What is the most effective medication that should be prescribed for optimal secondary prevention?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Perindopril

      Explanation:

      Medication Options for Angina and Hypertension

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends considering treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for secondary prevention in patients with stable angina and diabetes mellitus, as long as there are no contraindications. This should also be prescribed where there is co-existing hypertension, left ventricular dysfunction, chronic kidney disease, or previous myocardial infarction (MI).

      Amlodipine is a calcium-channel blocker which could be added to control hypertension; however, this patient’s blood pressure is normal on current therapy.

      Diltiazem is a non-dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker which can be used as an alternative first-line treatment in angina. This patient is already on atenolol and is well controlled.

      Doxazosin is an alpha-blocker used in the management of hypertension. This patient’s blood pressure is within normal limits, so it is not currently indicated.

      Nicorandil is an anti-anginal medication due to its vasodilatory properties which can be added or used as a monotherapy when symptoms of angina are not controlled with a beta-blocker or calcium-channel blocker or these are not tolerated. This patient’s symptoms are controlled on atenolol, so nicorandil is not indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. He visits the GP clinic after 5 days with unexplained bruising. His INR is measured and found to be 4.5. He has a medical history of epilepsy, depression, substance abuse, and homelessness. Which medication is the most probable cause of his bruising from the following options?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium valproate is known to inhibit enzymes, which can lead to an increase in warfarin levels if taken together. The patient’s medical history could include any of the listed drugs, but the question is specifically testing knowledge of enzyme inhibitors. Rifampicin and St John’s Wort are both enzyme inducers, while heroin (diamorphine) doesn’t have any effect on enzyme activity.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Psychosexual counselling

      Correct Answer: Alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling

      Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.

      Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.

      Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.

      A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.

      In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old female patient presents to your morning clinic with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female patient presents to your morning clinic with complaints of pain and cramps in her right calf. She has also observed some brown discoloration around her right ankle. Her symptoms have been progressing for the past few weeks. She had been treated for a right-sided posterior tibial deep vein thrombosis (DVT) six months ago. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral to vascular team

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings should only be offered to patients with deep vein thrombosis who are experiencing post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS), which typically occurs 6 months to 2 years after the initial DVT and is characterized by chronic pain, swelling, hyperpigmentation, and venous ulcers. Apixaban is not appropriate for treating PTS, as it is used to treat acute DVT. Codeine may help with pain but doesn’t address the underlying cause. Hirudoid cream is not effective for treating PTS, as it is used for superficial thrombophlebitis. If conservative management is not effective, patients may be referred to vascular surgery for surgical treatment. Compression stockings are the first-line treatment for PTS, as they improve blood flow and reduce symptoms in the affected calf.

      Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.

      While compression stockings were previously recommended to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome in patients with DVT, Clinical Knowledge Summaries now advise against their use for this purpose. However, compression stockings are still recommended as a treatment for post-thrombotic syndrome. Other recommended treatments include keeping the affected leg elevated.

      In summary, post-thrombotic syndrome is a potential complication of DVT that can cause a range of uncomfortable symptoms. While compression stockings are no longer recommended for prevention, they remain an important treatment option for those who develop the syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      58
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is generally in good health, but experiences occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground. He continues to smoke five cigarettes per day. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological examination is normal, and his fundi appear normal. Examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent foot pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He was started on antihypertensive therapy, and his U+Es were measured over a two-week period, with the following results:

      Baseline:
      Sodium - 138 mmol/L
      Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
      Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 138 µmol/L

      2 weeks later:
      Sodium - 140 mmol/L
      Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
      Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 310 µmol/L

      Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors

      This man has diabetes and hypertension, along with mild symptoms of claudication and absent foot pulses, indicating arteriopathy. These factors suggest a diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS), which can cause macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment.

      When an antihypertensive medication was introduced, the patient’s renal function deteriorated, indicating that the drug was an ACE inhibitor. This is because hypertension in RAS is caused by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system trying to maintain renal perfusion. Inhibiting this system with ACE inhibitors can result in relative renal ischemia, leading to further deterioration of renal function.

      In summary, patients with diabetes and hypertension who present with arteriopathy symptoms should be evaluated for RAS. The use of ACE inhibitors in these patients should be carefully monitored, as it can exacerbate renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      100.8
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  • Question 19 - An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of his chest wall. He is generally healthy but mentions that his father passed away 10 years ago due to heart problems. Upon examination, he is 195 cm tall (>99th centile) and slender, with pectus excavatum and arachnodactyly. The doctor suspects that he may have Marfan syndrome. What is the most prevalent cardiovascular abnormality observed in adults with Marfan syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder that affects various systems in the body. The most common cardiac complication is aortic root dilatation, which occurs in 70% of patients. Mitral valve prolapse is the second most common abnormality, affecting around 60% of patients. Beta-blockers can help reduce the rate of aortic dilatation and the risk of rupture. Aortic dissection, although not the most common abnormality, is a major diagnostic criterion of Marfan syndrome and can result from weakening of the aortic media due to root dilatation. Aortic regurgitation is less common than mitral regurgitation but can occur due to progressive aortic root dilatation and connective tissue abnormalities. Mitral annular calcification is more frequent in Marfan syndrome than in the general population but is not included in the diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      58.7
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition where the left ventricle of the heart becomes enlarged, often affecting the interventricular septum and causing a blockage in the left ventricular outflow tract. Patients with HCM typically experience shortness of breath, but may also have angina or fainting spells. Physical examination may reveal a prominent presystolic S4 gallop, a harsh systolic ejection murmur, and a left ventricular apical impulse. The Valsalva manoeuvre and standing up from a squatting position can increase the intensity of the murmur. An echocardiogram is the preferred diagnostic test for HCM. Syncope occurs in 15-25% of HCM patients, and recurrent syncope in young patients may indicate an increased risk of sudden death. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, typically affects older patients and causes exertional syncope. The ejection systolic murmur associated with aortic stenosis is loudest at the upper right sternal border and radiates to the carotids. It increases with squatting and decreases with standing and isometric muscular contraction. Atrial fibrillation can also cause syncope, but if it is associated with HCM, the underlying cause is still HCM. Vasovagal syncope is usually triggered by prolonged standing or exposure to hot, crowded environments. The term syncope excludes other conditions that cause altered consciousness, such as seizures or shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      107.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his daughter with complaints of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and swollen ankles that have been present for a few weeks. On examination, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram reveals a reduced ejection fraction. He responds well to treatment with optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide. What is the most accurate statement regarding his future management?

      Your Answer: He should be started on a ß-blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. One of the recommended treatment options is the prescription of a cardioselective β-blocker such as carvedilol. However, it should not be taken at the same time as an ACE inhibitor. While diuretics can help control oedema, the mainstay of treatment for chronic heart failure is ACE inhibitors and β-blockade. Although digoxin and spironolactone may have a place in treatment, they are not first or second line options. For severe cases of heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, a combination of these treatment options can help manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      123.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary edema in a patient with a history of chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil exhibits the strongest negative inotropic effect among calcium channel blockers.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Cannot drive until has been on medication for two weeks

      Correct Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication

      Explanation:

      If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      80.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?

      Your Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur twice a day and are fast and irregular, with a possible association with alcohol consumption. He denies any chest pain or fainting episodes. On examination, his cardiovascular symptoms are normal, with a pulse of 72/min and a blood pressure of 116/78 mmHg. Blood tests and a 12-lead ECG are unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Arrange a Holter monitor

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences palpitations, the first step in investigating the issue should be to conduct a Holter monitor test after conducting initial blood tests and an ECG. Palpitations are often indicative of an arrhythmia, such as atrial fibrillation, and it is important to conduct further investigations to rule out this possibility.

      Holter monitoring is the recommended first-line investigation to capture any episodes of arrhythmia. Since the patient experiences these episodes daily, a 24-hour monitoring period is appropriate. However, a troponin test is not necessary as there is no chest pain, and an echocardiogram is not warranted as there are no indications of heart failure.

      If the Holter monitoring results are normal and the patient continues to experience symptoms, an external loop recorder may be considered.

      Investigating Palpitations: Identifying Possible Causes and Capturing Episodic Arrhythmias

      Palpitations are a common symptom that can be caused by various factors such as arrhythmias, stress, and increased awareness of normal heartbeats. To investigate the underlying cause of palpitations, first-line investigations include a 12-lead ECG, thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and a full blood count. However, these investigations may not capture episodic arrhythmias, which are often missed during a short ECG recording.

      To capture episodic arrhythmias, the most common investigation is Holter monitoring. This portable battery-operated device continuously records ECG from 2-3 leads for 24 hours or longer if symptoms are less than daily. Patients are asked to keep a diary to record any symptomatic palpitations, which can later be compared to the rhythm strip at the time of the symptoms. At the end of the monitoring, a report is generated summarizing heart rate, arrhythmias, and changes in ECG waveform.

      If no abnormality is found on the Holter monitor and symptoms persist, other options include an external loop recorder or an implantable loop recorder. These investigations can help identify the underlying cause of palpitations and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      55.7
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  • Question 26 - You are speaking with a 57-year-old man who is worried about his blood...

    Correct

    • You are speaking with a 57-year-old man who is worried about his blood pressure control. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home daily for the past week and consistently reads over 140/90 mmHg, with the highest reading being 154/86 mmHg. He has no chest symptoms and is otherwise healthy. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking perindopril. He previously took amlodipine, but it was discontinued due to significant ankle edema. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Thiazide-like diuretic

      Explanation:

      To improve control of poorly managed hypertension in a patient already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended step 2 treatment is to add either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, the preferred choice is a thiazide-like diuretic as the patient has a history of intolerance to calcium channel blockers. Aldosterone antagonist and beta-blocker are not appropriate choices for step 2 management. It is important to note that combining an ACE inhibitor with an angiotensin receptor blocker is not recommended due to the risk of acute kidney injury.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      243
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool...

    Incorrect

    • For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool (such as QRISK) in order to ascertain their likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

      Your Answer: A 60-year-old man with a body mass index of 38 kg/m2

      Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with type 1 diabetes with a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol and no nephropathy or microalbuminuria

      Explanation:

      High Risk Patients for Cardiovascular Disease

      Certain patients are automatically considered at high risk for cardiovascular disease (CVD) and do not require the use of a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2. These high-risk patients include those with pre-existing CVD, those aged 85 and above, those with an eGFR <60 ml/min/1.73m2 and/or albuminuria, those with familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited lipid disorders, and those with type 1 diabetes who are over 40 years old, have a history of diabetes for at least 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other CVD risk factors. However, for patients with a BMI of 38, a CVD risk assessment tool should be used. It is important to note that for patients with a BMI higher than 40 kg/m2, their risk may be underestimated by standard CVD risk assessment tools. By identifying high-risk patients, healthcare providers can take appropriate measures to prevent and manage CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      92.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She enjoys walking her dog but has noticed a decrease in exercise tolerance. She reports experiencing fast, irregular palpitations at various times throughout the day.

      During the examination, you observe flushed cheeks, a blood pressure reading of 140/95, and a raised JVP. You suspect the presence of a diastolic murmur. In a subsequent communication from the cardiologist, they describe a loud first heart sound, an opening snap, and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral Stenosis and Palpitations

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension. Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap. Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures. AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

      Spacing:

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension.

      Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap.

      Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures.

      AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      80.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old woman is on ramipril, digoxin, metformin, quinine and bisoprolol. She has...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is on ramipril, digoxin, metformin, quinine and bisoprolol. She has been experiencing mild ankle swelling lately. Following an echo, she has been urgently referred to cardiology due to moderate-severe aortic stenosis. Which of her medications should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Moderate to severe aortic stenosis is a contraindication for ACE inhibitors like ramipril due to the potential risk of reducing coronary perfusion pressure and causing cardiac ischemia. Therefore, the patient should stop taking ramipril until cardiology review. However, bisoprolol, which reduces cardiac workload by inhibiting β1-adrenergic receptors, is safe to use in the presence of aortic stenosis. Digoxin, which improves cardiac contractility, is also safe to use unless there are defects in the cardiac conduction system. Metformin should be used with caution in patients with chronic heart failure but is not contraindicated in those with valvular disease. Quinine is also safe to use in the presence of aortic stenosis but should be stopped if there are defects in the cardiac conduction system.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      48.1
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  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations on exertion. He has a medical history of myocardial infarction and biventricular heart failure and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, bisoprolol 5mg, aspirin 75 mg, and atorvastatin 80 mg. During examination, his heart rate is irregularly irregular at 98/min, and his blood pressure is 172/85 mmHg. An ECG confirms the diagnosis of new atrial fibrillation. What medication should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is more likely to worsen heart failure compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      138.1
      Seconds

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Cardiovascular Health (14/30) 47%
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