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Question 1
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a large thyroid swelling, difficulty breathing on lying flat and slight dysphagia. What is the most appropriate investigation to delineate the size and extent of the goitre?
Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan
Explanation:Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Thyroid Evaluation
Thyroid evaluation involves the use of various diagnostic imaging techniques to determine the size, extent, and function of the thyroid gland. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is a precise method that provides a better assessment of the effect of the thyroid gland on nearby structures. Barium swallow is useful in assessing oesophageal obstruction, while chest X-ray can determine the extent of goitre and the presence of calcification. Ultrasound is commonly used to guide biopsy of the thyroid and detect and characterise thyroid nodules. Radionuclide uptake and scanning using technetium isotope are used to evaluate thyroid function and anatomy in hyperthyroidism, including the assessment of thyroid nodules. These diagnostic imaging techniques play a crucial role in the accurate diagnosis and management of thyroid disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Correct
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A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary care physician complaining of loose non-bloody stools and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 days. He has not been taking any regular medication and his disease has been quiescent for many years. A colonoscopy performed 5 years ago showed proctitis. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdomen is diffusely soft with no peritonism. A stool culture is negative. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Mesalazine suppository
Explanation:For a patient experiencing mild-to-moderate symptoms of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is topical (rectal) aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine suppositories. This is particularly effective for patients with left-sided disease, such as proctitis or proctosigmoiditis. While budesonide foam enema is sometimes used as an additional treatment for mild-to-moderate disease, it is generally less effective at inducing remission. Oral azathioprine is not recommended for inducing remission, but may be used to maintain remission in patients who have had multiple inflammatory exacerbations or if remission is not maintained by aminosalicylates alone. Oral mesalazine is less effective than topical mesalazine for mild or moderate proctitis, but may be offered as an additional treatment if symptoms persist after 4 weeks of topical mesalazine. For patients with pancolitis or extensive disease, oral mesalazine may be offered as a first-line treatment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50 year-old obese man with type 2 diabetes and schizophrenia is seeking advice regarding a personal issue. He reports difficulty ejaculating during sexual intercourse. Which medication could potentially be causing this side effect?
Your Answer: zuclopenthixol
Explanation:Antipsychotic medication can lead to sexual dysfunction due to their ability to block dopamine and increase prolactin levels. This can result in a decrease in libido. Additionally, some antipsychotics can block alpha1-adrenoreceptors, leading to erectile dysfunction and difficulty with ejaculation.
Commonly prescribed antipsychotics such as risperidone and haloperidol are known to cause sexual dysfunction. Treatment options include reducing the dosage or switching to a different antipsychotic medication. (Source: BNF)
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A woman with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia underwent splenectomy because she did not respond to immunosuppression and chemotherapy.
What is the most likely long-term risk factor after splenectomy?Your Answer: Infections
Explanation:The Risks and Benefits of Splenectomy
Splenectomy, or the surgical removal of the spleen, is a common procedure for various medical conditions. However, it is not without risks. One of the most significant risks is overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), which can be fatal. Patients who have had a splenectomy are at a lifetime risk of 5% for OPSI, with the most common causative organism being the pneumococcus. Therefore, it is crucial for these patients to receive vaccinations and prophylactic antibiotics.
While splenectomy is not typically performed for cancer or liver fibrosis, it may be beneficial for certain haematological disorders such as autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and hereditary spherocytosis. In rare cases, splenectomy may also be indicated for patients with Hodgkin’s disease who are refractory to medical therapy.
Overall, the decision to undergo splenectomy should be carefully considered, weighing the potential benefits against the risks. Close monitoring and appropriate preventative measures should be taken to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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As part of a research project, you are investigating whether the use of pacifiers in toddlers is associated with sleep disturbances. What study design would be most suitable for this inquiry?
Your Answer: Cohort study
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:A case-control design is more suitable for studying sudden infant death syndrome due to its low incidence compared to a cohort study. This design compares a group with the disease to a group without, analyzing their past exposure to a potential causal agent for the condition.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman expecting her first child attends the Obstetrics Outpatient Clinic at 12 weeks' gestation. She is normally well, is prescribed no medications, doesn't smoke or drink alcohol, and uses cocaine most weekends. Her body mass index (BMI) is 24 kg/m2.
What intervention is most likely to be recommended?Your Answer: Ultrasound (US) assessment of fetal size and Umbilical Artery Doppler at 26 weeks' gestation
Explanation:Assessment and Management of a Pregnant Cocaine User
Assessment and management of a pregnant woman who uses cocaine requires careful consideration of potential risks to both the mother and the developing fetus. In this case, the following interventions are considered:
Ultrasound (US) assessment of fetal size and Umbilical Artery Doppler at 26 weeks’ gestation: This is indicated to screen for small gestational age (SGA) babies in those with one or more major risk factors, including cocaine use. As such, this woman would be offered an US for fetal growth and wellbeing at 26 weeks’ gestation.
Aspirin 75 mg daily until delivery: Aspirin is used to reduce the risk of developing pre-eclampsia in pregnancy, where there are risk factors. However, cocaine use is not a risk factor, and none of the other risk factors apply to this patient, so this is not indicated.
No additional intervention: Cocaine use is a risk factor for fetal growth restriction, so additional scans to assess fetal growth and wellbeing are indicated.
Tinzaparin from 28 weeks gestation: Tinzaparin is prescribed as prophylaxis for venous thromboembolism (VTE) where risk factors are present. However, cocaine use is not a risk factor for VTE in pregnancy, and this woman has no additional risk factors, so tinzaparin would not be indicated.
Uterine Artery Doppler at 20 weeks gestation: This is indicated to screen for SGA babies in those with three or more minor risk factors. However, this woman has just one of these risk factors and this is therefore not indicated.
Overall, careful assessment and management of pregnant women who use cocaine is essential to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant with her first baby comes to the clinic complaining of a headache. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. Her blood pressure reads 152/93 mmHg. A urine dip test shows proteinuria but no signs of infection.
What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer immediately to hospital
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia is characterized by a new-onset blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or higher after 20 weeks of pregnancy, along with either proteinuria or organ dysfunction. In this case, the patient has both high blood pressure and proteinuria, indicating a need for immediate evaluation by the obstetric team in secondary care. Hospitalization and Antihypertensive treatment may be necessary, and delivery may need to be expedited to resolve the condition and prevent complications such as eclamptic fits, coagulation problems, and liver dysfunction.
Given the potential for rapid deterioration, it is not appropriate for the patient to wait for a routine review with her midwife. While labetalol is commonly used to control blood pressure in women with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia, it should only be initiated and managed under the direction of a specialist. Bisoprolol is not typically used in the treatment of pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You see a 10-week-old baby boy with his father. He was born at 40+5 without complication. He is breastfeeding well but his father is concerned as he vomits small amounts of milk after most feeds, approximately a tablespoon full. He doesn't seem distressed by the vomiting and is growing along the 75th centile. He has wet and full nappies. He would like some treatment for the regurgitation.
What would be your initial recommendation for managing this infant's regurgitation?Your Answer: Offer a 1–2 week trial of feed thickeners such as a pre-thickened formula
Correct Answer: This infant requires observation but no treatment initially, and review if worsening or weight loss
Explanation:Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a common condition in infants that usually resolves by the age of one. If the infant is not bothered by the GOR and doesn’t experience any complications, observation is sufficient. However, parents should monitor for worsening symptoms, weight loss, or complications. If the infant is distressed or has complications, they may have gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) and require treatment. Alginate therapy, such as Gaviscon® Infant, is the first-line treatment for breastfed infants with GORD.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Correct
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You are assessing a 32-year-old woman who has recently given birth. She has a lengthy medical history of rheumatoid arthritis but did not take any disease-modifying medications during pregnancy as her symptoms were well managed. Regrettably, she has experienced a flare-up of her symptoms after giving birth. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:
- CRP 35 mg/L
Her infant is currently 3 weeks old, and she is currently breastfeeding. She is curious if she can resume taking methotrexate. What is the current guidance provided in the British National Formulary (BNF)?Your Answer: Methotrexate is contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers
Explanation:Breastfeeding is not recommended while taking Methotrexate.
Breastfeeding Contraindications: Drugs and Other Factors to Consider
Breastfeeding is generally recommended for infants as it provides numerous benefits for both the baby and the mother. However, there are certain situations where breastfeeding may not be advisable. One of the major contraindications is the use of certain drugs by the mother, which can be harmful to the baby. Antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as endocrine medications like levothyroxine, can be given to breastfeeding mothers. On the other hand, drugs like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, and benzodiazepines should be avoided.
Aside from drugs, other factors like galactosaemia and viral infections can also make breastfeeding inadvisable. In the case of HIV, some doctors believe that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of transmission, especially in areas where infant mortality and morbidity rates are high.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these contraindications and to provide appropriate guidance to mothers who are considering breastfeeding. By doing so, they can help ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 10
Correct
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Which patient from the list is the most suitable candidate for a benzodiazepine prescription?
Your Answer: A 55-year-old woman who is anxious about having to fly to Australia next week
Explanation:Benzodiazepines for Short-Term Treatment of Anxiety and Sleeping Disorders
Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed for short-term treatment of anxiety or sleeping disorders. For instance, patients with anxiety related to flying may benefit from a small number of diazepam tablets before and during the flight. However, long-term use of benzodiazepines can lead to tolerance and addiction, which are significant risks for patients with an anxious personality. Elderly patients are also at risk of daytime drowsiness, confusion, and falls, making the use of benzodiazepines discouraged. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of benzodiazepines before prescribing them for any patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity comes in for a visit after experiencing a late period. Upon taking a urinary hCG test, it comes back positive. She is currently taking the following medications:
- Orlistat 120mg three times a day
- Simvastatin 40 mg once a day
- Aspirin 75 mg once a day
- Metformin 1g twice a day
- Paracetamol 1g four times a day
- Aqueous cream as needed
Which medication should be discontinued immediately?Your Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A randomised controlled trial is conducted comparing a new medication or placebo for recovery from a certain illness.
What term best describes the probability of obtaining a result by chance at least as extreme as the one that was observed, assuming that the null hypothesis of no difference between the medication and placebo is true?Your Answer: P value
Explanation:The P value represents the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is as extreme or more extreme than the one observed, assuming that the null hypothesis is true.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has a very poor memory. He makes up stories to account for gaps in his memory. He doesn't realise what he is doing.
On examination he seems apathetic and has an unsteady gait. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome
Correct Answer: Complex partial seizures
Explanation:Korsakoff’s Syndrome: A Case of Poor Memory and Confabulation
Looking at this case history, it is evident that the patient is experiencing poor memory, confabulation, lack of insight, apathy, and an ataxic gait. These symptoms are typical of Korsakoff’s Syndrome, which is commonly caused by alcohol abuse. The syndrome presents with a triad of symptoms, including mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Confabulation is a characteristic of Korsakoff’s, making it the most likely diagnosis of those given above. However, it can be prevented by administering thiamine.
In summary, Korsakoff’s Syndrome is a serious condition that can result in poor memory, confabulation, and other debilitating symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further damage and improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for heart failure. What is the most probable side effect that can be attributed to his new medication?
Your Answer: Urinary retention
Correct Answer: Sleep disturbances
Explanation:Insomnia may be caused by beta-blockers.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.
Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl presents with intermittent leg pains, which have been occurring for four weeks. They occur at night and wake her from sleep. The pain is relieved when her mother rubs her legs. The girl is otherwise well and examination is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Growing pains
Explanation:Understanding Childhood Musculoskeletal Conditions: Differential Diagnosis
Childhood musculoskeletal conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. One common condition is growing pains, which are episodic muscular pains that typically affect the legs and wake children from sleep. Another condition, Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), can cause joint pain, abdominal pain, and a purpuric rash on the legs and buttocks, as well as renal involvement. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia may also cause bone and joint pain, but patients usually deteriorate rapidly and become unwell. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is characterized by joint inflammation persisting for at least six weeks. Perthes’ disease, on the other hand, presents with pain in the hip and limited movement. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of breathlessness. He reports that a year ago he was able to do his gardening and play a round of golf, but in recent months he has been limited by breathlessness. He notes that the breathlessness settles with rest and denies any cough or chest pain. He doesn't take any prescribed medication but reports taking ibuprofen from the supermarket for his knees. He has a history of osteoarthritis of the knees and occasional gout.
Upon examination, the patient appears well but mildly out of breath upon entering the room. His pulse is 86 bpm in sinus rhythm, and his blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg. Peak flow is 470 L/min, and heart sounds are normal. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral basal end-inspiratory crackles, and there is mild bilateral pitting edema to mid-shin.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Arrange emergency admission
Correct Answer: Measure serum natriuretic peptide
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Symptoms of Heart Failure
This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of heart failure, which could have occurred de novo or been exacerbated by the non-steroidals he has been taking for his knees. While a pulmonary embolus, asthma, or COPD could also be potential causes, the lack of certain symptoms and signs make heart failure the most likely diagnosis.
To confirm this, the next step would be to measure serum natriuretic peptides. Checking spirometry is not incorrect, but it would not be the most appropriate next step. D-dimers and cardiac troponin are not appropriate investigations for heart failure, and there is no indication for emergency admission based on the information given in this scenario.
In addition to natriuretic peptide, further tests would include a 12-lead ECG, chest x-ray, urea and electrolytes, creatinine, full blood count, thyroid function, liver function, glucose, lipids, and urinalysis. These tests will help to rule out other potential causes and guide further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 65-year-old man who recently began taking simvastatin 40 mg at bedtime for hyperlipidemia. He presented last week with mild, nonspecific myalgia that appeared to have developed since starting the medication. Laboratory tests were performed to assess creatine kinase, liver function, renal function, and thyroid function. Today, he reports experiencing vague muscular symptoms that are not severe but have caused him some concern since they began after starting the new medication. The blood work indicates that his renal, liver, and thyroid function are normal, but his creatine kinase is twice the upper limit of normal. Despite the mild symptoms, he expresses a willingness to continue taking the statin. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his statin therapy?
Your Answer: The patient must discontinue the statin immediately and avoid future statin use
Correct Answer: Advise the patient to reduce the dose of simvastatin to 20 mg nocte and if he remains symptomatic after a further one to two weeks to reduce it further to 10 mg ON
Explanation:Management of Statin-Induced Muscle Injury
When a patient taking statins presents with elevated creatine kinase levels, it is important to consider other potential causes such as underlying muscle disorders or hypothyroidism. If the creatine kinase level is more than five times the upper limit of normal, the statin should be stopped immediately and renal function should be checked. Creatine kinase levels should be monitored every two weeks.
If symptoms resolve and creatine kinase levels return to normal, the statin may be reintroduced at the lowest dose with close monitoring. If creatine kinase levels are less than five times the upper limit of normal and the patient experiences muscular symptoms, the statin may be continued but closely monitored. If symptoms are severe or creatine kinase levels increase, the statin should be stopped.
In cases of mildly elevated creatine kinase levels with no symptoms, the statin may be continued with the patient advised to report any muscular symptoms immediately. Regular monitoring of creatine kinase levels is also recommended to ensure values do not increase. Overall, careful management and monitoring can help prevent and manage statin-induced muscle injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed this before and has not sought support for this in the past. He requests methadone substitution from his general practitioner.
What is the single most appropriate action?Your Answer: Offer referral to specialist drug-abuse service
Explanation:Managing Opioid Dependence: Recommended Actions for GPs
As a GP, managing patients with opioid dependence can be challenging. Here are some recommended actions to help you provide the best care for your patients:
1. Offer referral to a specialist drug-abuse service. NICE advises that doctors assess and manage people with opioid dependence within their competence and confidence, which for the majority would mean referral to a specialist service. Here, they have an MDT who can effectively assess, treat, and follow up patients like this.
2. Prescribe methadone at a dose indicated in the British National Formulary (BNF). It is possible for a GP to prescribe methadone, but this should only be done if they have received higher-level training, or they feel confident to do so and have input from a shared-care multidisciplinary team (MDT).
3. Avoid prescribing a reducing course of dihydrocodeine. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that dihydrocodeine should not be used in detoxification, except in specific circumstances within specialist care.
4. Avoid performing urine toxicology unless you are confident in managing this situation. Urine toxicology would not be of any benefit here if you are not confident in managing this situation.
5. Avoid arranging weekly review. This man is requesting care which requires specialist input, so arranging review in a week would only cause unnecessary delay.
By following these recommended actions, you can help your patients manage their opioid dependence effectively and safely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A researcher is studying the incidence of leptospirosis in the United Kingdom (UK). He finds that the annual numbers of reported cases of leptospirosis in the UK over the 15-year period from 1990 to 2005 were 60, 62, 78, 75, 120, 98, 72, 68, 65, 52, 45, 40, 35, 30 and 25.
What is the mean, median and modal number of cases per year?Your Answer: Mean = 56, median = 56, mode = 56
Correct Answer: Mean = 56, median = 53, mode = 54
Explanation:Understanding Measures of Central Tendency: Mean, Median, and Mode
When analyzing a set of data, it is important to understand the measures of central tendency: mean, median, and mode. The mean is calculated by summing all the values and dividing by the total number of values. The median is the middle value when the values are placed in order, and for an even number of values, it is the average of the two middle values. The mode is the value that appears most frequently in the data set.
However, it is important to note that these measures can differ depending on the distribution of the data. Skewness in the distribution can cause the mean, mode, and median to differ. It is also important to correctly identify each measure, as confusing the mode and median or assuming they are the same as the mean can lead to incorrect conclusions.
By understanding and correctly identifying the measures of central tendency, we can gain valuable insights from our data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of this being an innocent murmur.Your Answer: pansystolic murmur
Correct Answer: Heard during a febrile illness
Explanation:Understanding Innocent Heart Murmurs in Children
Innocent heart murmurs are common in children between the ages of 3 and 8 years. They occur when blood flows noisily through a normal heart, usually due to increased blood flow or faster blood movement. Innocent murmurs are typically systolic and vibratory in quality, with an intensity of 2/6 or 1/6. They can change with posture and vary from examination to examination. Harsh murmurs, pansystolic murmurs, late systolic murmurs, and continuous murmurs are usually indicative of pathology. Heart sounds in innocent murmurs are normal, with a split second heart sound in inspiration and a single second heart sound in expiration. It’s important to note that the absence of symptoms doesn’t exclude important pathology, and some murmurs due to congenital heart disease may not be easily audible at birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman, who reports sudden onset of dizziness that started four days ago. The dizziness has been constant since then and causes her to feel unsteady while walking. She has a medical history of migraines and rheumatoid arthritis but has never experienced similar episodes before. She consumes 21 units of alcohol per week and has never smoked.
During the examination, she can stand and walk but requires support from furniture. You attempt to perform a Romberg test, but she starts to sway as soon as she closes her eyes. Both tympanic membranes appear normal. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable except for marked nystagmus on vertical gaze. The rest of her neurological examination is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Correct Answer: Cerebrovascular accident
Explanation:When experiencing sudden dizziness, it can be challenging to determine if it is caused by a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). To differentiate between central (related to the central nervous system) and peripheral (related to the inner ear) causes of vertigo, doctors look for the presence of vertical nystagmus. If present, it indicates a central cause. Other signs of a central cause include the presence of other neurological symptoms and risk factors for CVAs. Labyrinthitis and benign paroxysmal positional vertigo are peripheral causes of vertigo that would cause lateral nystagmus. A space occupying lesion may cause central vertigo, but symptoms would likely have a more gradual onset. Vestibular migraines are a central cause that can cause vertical nystagmus, but the vertigo typically lasts for 4-72 hours, so the persistence of symptoms would not fit this diagnosis.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are multiple comedones on his face and a handful of papules and pustules. There are no nodules or scarring. The treating doctor decides to start him on topical benzoyl peroxide combined with an antibiotic.
Which of the following is the single most appropriate topical antibiotic to use?Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mild to Moderate Acne: Clindamycin, Lymecycline, Flucloxacillin, Minocycline, and Trimethoprim
Acne is classified as mild to moderate if there are less than 35 inflammatory lesions and less than 2 nodules. For this type of acne, topical clindamycin is recommended as a first-line treatment, which can be combined with benzoyl peroxide, adapalene, or tretinoin. On the other hand, oral lymecycline is not recommended for mild to moderate acne but is effective for moderate to severe acne. Flucloxacillin is not used in acne treatment, while minocycline is effective but can cause liver problems and a lupus-like syndrome. Lastly, trimethoprim is used for people with moderate to severe acne who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to oral lymecycline or doxycycline. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment option for each individual case of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with bilateral blurring of vision accompanied by light sensitivity and eye pain. Upon examination, you observe that her eyes are injected. She also reports experiencing ankle pain and displays tender erythematous lesions on her shins. A chest X-ray reveals hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: Uveitis
Explanation:Uveitis in Sarcoidosis: A Common Ocular Manifestation
Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect various organs, including the eyes. Uveitis, a type of inflammation in the uvea (the middle layer of the eye), is a common ocular manifestation of sarcoidosis. It typically presents as granulomatous uveitis, which is often bilateral. Conjunctival nodules may also be present. Other ocular manifestations of sarcoidosis include episcleritis and scleritis, although they are less common than uveitis. It is important for patients with sarcoidosis to have regular eye exams to monitor for any ocular complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a dark red patch on their child's cheek that appears irregular. After examination, you diagnose it as a port wine stain. What should the parents know about this type of birthmark?
Your Answer: Associated with neurofibromatosis
Correct Answer: Tend to darken over time
Explanation:Understanding Port Wine Stains
Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.
Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that can help to fade the color and reduce the raised appearance of the stain. However, it’s important to note that multiple laser sessions may be required to achieve the desired results. Overall, understanding port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an unrelenting itch. Despite undergoing a thorough examination, blood tests, and a consultation with a dermatologist, no underlying cause has been identified. The patient reveals that she strongly believes in a particular explanation for her symptom.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:Delusional parasitosis is the correct term for a patient who has a fixed, false belief that they are infested by bugs. This condition is characterized by persistent itching and the belief that there are insects crawling on or under the skin. Capgras delusion, Cotard’s syndrome, and De Clerambault’s syndrome are all different psychological conditions that are not related to delusional parasitosis.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly seen, but it can be quite distressing for those who experience it. Essentially, it involves a person having a false belief that they are infested with some kind of bug or parasite, such as worms, mites, or bacteria. This belief is fixed and unshakeable, even in the face of evidence to the contrary.
It is important to note that delusional parasitosis can occur on its own, but it may also be a symptom of other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, many people with this condition are otherwise functional and able to carry out their daily activities. However, the belief can cause significant anxiety and distress, and may lead to behaviors such as excessive cleaning or avoidance of certain places or activities. Treatment for delusional parasitosis typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to address the underlying psychiatric condition and help the person manage their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 9.5
2 15.1
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Give advice about a diabetic diet + repeat OGTT in 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man comes to the out of hours GP complaining of sudden onset left sided scrotal pain, lower abdominal pain and vomiting. He mentions having symptoms of coryza for the past three days. During the examination, the left testicle is found to be swollen, tender and high riding.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the presumed diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly and doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10 days
Explanation:Testicular Torsion and Epididymo-orchitis
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that occurs when the testicle twists on the spermatic cord, leading to a compromised blood supply to the testicle. In such cases, immediate medical attention is required. Antibiotic treatment may be necessary if epididymo-orchitis is suspected, but only after torsion has been ruled out. These treatments may be appropriate if a sexually transmitted organism is suspected. In addition to medication, supportive care such as scrotal elevation and pain relief may help alleviate symptoms of epididymo-orchitis. It is important to note that the Alvarado score, a clinical scoring system used to diagnose appendicitis, is not applicable in this case. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing testicular torsion and epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with knee osteoarthritis comes in for a check-up. He has been taking paracetamol regularly to alleviate his symptoms, but he reports that it is not entirely effective. He experiences stiffness and significant discomfort in both knees after walking for extended periods. He inquires if there is another medication that can assist him in managing the pain flares. What is the most suitable next pharmacological approach in his treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in a topical NSAID
Explanation:Topical NSAIDs for Osteoarthritis Treatment
If you need further treatment for osteoarthritis after taking paracetamol, adding a topical NSAID is a good option, especially for knee or hand osteoarthritis. Topical NSAIDs have been proven effective in managing these conditions. Although they are relatively expensive, they can prevent or delay the need for oral NSAIDs, which can cause adverse effects such as gastrointestinal, cardiac, and renal problems. Therefore, in the long run, they are cost-effective.
Topical treatments also encourage self-management and help modify health behavior positively. Patients often use a topical NSAID on top of their oral paracetamol to deal with osteoarthritis flare-ups. The NICE guidelines on Osteoarthritis (CG177) recommend topical NSAIDs and/or paracetamol as a safe initial pharmacological option for knee and hand osteoarthritis. They should be considered ahead of oral NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, or opioids.
However, topical rubefacients are not recommended for osteoarthritis treatment. It is essential to counsel patients on the correct way to use topical NSAIDs, including the amount to be applied. Systemic effects may still arise, particularly in the elderly, where skin integrity may be compromised, and absorption is less predictable. Patients should also be cautioned about the concomitant use of topical and oral NSAIDs, as it can lead to inadvertent overdose and increased potential for side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are having a conversation about contraception with a 25-year-old patient via phone. She had the new Kyleena® intrauterine system (IUS) inserted yesterday at the local family planning clinic. She is not using any other form of contraception. Her menstrual cycle began 5 days ago.
She is curious to know if she requires additional contraception and for how long?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No further contraception is required
Explanation:No additional contraception is necessary if the Kyleena® IUS is inserted within the first seven days of a patient’s menstrual cycle. This form of intrauterine contraception contains a lower dose of levonorgestrel than the Mirena® IUS and is approved for use for up to five years.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A teenager is noticed to have palpable purpura on the elbows.
Which one of the following is most compatible with a diagnosis of Henoch-Schönlein syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Petechiae
Explanation:Clinical Manifestations of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura
Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) is a type of vasculitis that affects small blood vessels in the body. Its clinical manifestations include subcutaneous oedema of the feet, hands, scalp, and ears, as well as scrotal oedema. Pitting oedema up to the knees may indicate cardiac failure or nephrotic syndrome. Gastrointestinal bleeding may lead to bloody stools, while haematuria and proteinuria may occur. Abdominal pain, intussusception, and arthritis are also common features. Petechiae, purpura, and papules are commonly present in the thighs and buttocks. Notably, thrombocytopenia, haemolysis, and splenomegaly are absent, and clotting is normal. Understanding the clinical manifestations of HSP is crucial for its timely diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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