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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in the shipyard but now has a retired life with his dogs. He was under treatment as a case of COPD, but maximal therapy for COPD failed to bring him any relief. On re-evaluation, his chest X-ray showed fine reticular opacities in the lower zones. A CT scan of his thorax showed interstitial thickening, with some ground glass opacity in the upper lungs.
      Pleural plaques were absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asbestosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Interstitial Lung Diseases: A Case Study

      The patient in question presents with dyspnoea and a history of smoking. While COPD is initially suspected, the radiograph and CT findings do not support this diagnosis. Instead, the patient may be suffering from an interstitial lung disease. RB-ILD is a possibility, given the presence of pigmented macrophages in the lung. Asbestosis is also considered, but the absence of pleural plaques makes this less likely. Pneumoconiosis and histoplasmosis are ruled out based on the patient’s history and imaging results. Treatment for interstitial lung diseases can be challenging, with steroids being the primary option. However, the effectiveness of this treatment is debatable. Ultimately, a lung biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination, clubbing of the fingers is observed. What medical condition is commonly associated with clubbing?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive airways disease (COAD)

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory and Other Causes of Clubbing of the Fingers

      Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the tips of the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. This condition is often associated with respiratory diseases such as carcinoma of the lung, bronchiectasis, mesothelioma, empyema, and pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is not typically associated with chronic obstructive airway disease (COAD). Other causes of clubbing of the fingers include cyanotic congenital heart disease, inflammatory bowel disease, and infective endocarditis.

      In summary, clubbing of the fingers is a physical manifestation of various underlying medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing of the fingers in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after being sat at home.
      An arterial blood gas (ABG) is performed and shows the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.48 7.35–7.45
      pO2 7.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 3.9 kPa 4.6–6 kPa
      HCO3 24 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Which one of the following conditions is most likely to account for these investigation results?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Respiratory Failure: Causes and ABG Interpretation

      Respiratory failure is a condition where the lungs fail to adequately oxygenate the blood or remove carbon dioxide. There are two types of respiratory failure: type I and type II. Type I respiratory failure is characterized by low levels of oxygen and normal or low levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Type II respiratory failure, on the other hand, is characterized by low levels of oxygen and high levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory acidosis.

      Pulmonary embolism is the only cause of type I respiratory failure. This condition results in reduced oxygenation of the blood due to a blockage in the pulmonary artery. The ABG of a patient with pulmonary embolism would show low levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as respiratory alkalosis.

      Hypothyroidism, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and myasthenia gravis are all causes of type II respiratory failure. Hypothyroidism can result in decreased ventilatory drive, while Guillain–Barré syndrome and myasthenia gravis can cause respiratory muscle weakness, leading to hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis.

      Opiate overdose is another cause of type II respiratory failure. Opiates act on the respiratory centers in the brain, reducing ventilation and causing respiratory acidosis.

      In summary, understanding the causes and ABG interpretation of respiratory failure is crucial in identifying and managing this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis over the last 2 days. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis over the last 2 days. He has had a productive cough for 7 years, which has gradually worsened. Over the last few winters, he has been particularly bad and required admission to hospital. Past medical history includes pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) at age 20. On examination, he is cyanotic and clubbed, and has florid crepitations in both lower zones.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Bronchiectasis vs. Asthma vs. Pulmonary Fibrosis vs. COPD vs. Lung Cancer

      Bronchiectasis is the most probable diagnosis for a patient who presents with copious sputum production, recurrent chest infections, haemoptysis, clubbing, cyanosis, and florid crepitations at both bases that change with coughing. This condition is often exacerbated by a previous history of tuberculosis.

      Asthma, on the other hand, is characterized by reversible obstruction of airways due to bronchial muscle contraction in response to various stimuli. The absence of wheezing, the patient’s age, and the presence of haemoptysis make asthma an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

      Pulmonary fibrosis involves parenchymal fibrosis and interstitial remodelling, leading to shortness of breath and a non-productive cough. Patients with pulmonary fibrosis may develop clubbing, basal crepitations, and a dry cough, but the acute presentation and haemoptysis in this case would not be explained.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive disorder characterized by airway obstruction, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema. However, the absence of wheezing, smoking history, and acute new haemoptysis make COPD a less likely diagnosis.

      Lung cancer is a possibility given the haemoptysis and clubbing, but the long history of productive cough, florid crepitations, and previous history of TB make bronchiectasis a more likely diagnosis. Overall, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and medical history is necessary to accurately diagnose respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner complaining of feeling unwell for the...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner complaining of feeling unwell for the past two days. He reports having a sore throat, general malaise, and nasal congestion, but no cough or fever. During the examination, his pulse rate is 70 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.3 °C. The doctor notes tender, swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes. What investigation should the doctor consider requesting?

      Your Answer: Throat swab

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Upper Respiratory Tract Infections: A Case Study

      When a patient presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, it is important to consider appropriate investigations to differentiate between viral and bacterial causes. In this case study, a young boy presents with a sore throat, tender/swollen lymph nodes, and absence of a cough. A McIsaac score of 3 suggests a potential for streptococcal pharyngitis.

      Throat swab is a useful investigation to differentiate between symptoms of the common cold and streptococcal pharyngitis. Sputum culture may be indicated if there is spread of the infection to the lower respiratory tract. A chest X-ray is not indicated as a first-line investigation, but may be later indicated if there is a spread to the lower respiratory tract. Full blood count is not routinely indicated, as it is only likely to show lymphocytosis for viral infections. Viral testing is not conducted routinely, unless required for public health research or data in the event of a disease outbreak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the pleural fluid analysis reveals the following results:
      Pleural fluid Pleural fluid analysis Serum Normal value
      Protein 2.5 g/dl 7.3 g/dl 6-7.8 g/dl
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 145 IU/l 350 IU/l 100-250 IU/l
      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Heart failure

      Explanation:

      Causes of Transudative and Exudative Pleural Effusions

      Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can be classified as transudative or exudative based on Light’s criteria. The most common cause of transudative pleural effusion is congestive heart failure, which can also cause bilateral or unilateral effusions. Other causes of transudative effusions include cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome. Exudative pleural effusions are typically caused by pneumonia, malignancy, or pleural infections. Nephrotic syndrome can also cause transudative effusions, while breast cancer and viral pleuritis are associated with exudative effusions. Proper identification of the underlying cause is crucial for appropriate management of pleural effusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness and right posterior lower chest pain. This occurs three weeks after undergoing right total hip replacement surgery. The patient has a medical history of bronchiectasis and asthma, but denies any recent change in sputum colour or quantity. On air, oxygen saturation is 89%, but rises to 95% on (35%) oxygen. The patient is apyrexial. Chest examination reveals coarse leathery crackles at both lung bases. Peak flow rate is 350 L/min and chest radiograph shows bronchiectatic changes, also at both lung bases. Full blood count is normal.

      What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: CT-pulmonary angiography

      Explanation:

      CT Pulmonary Angiography as the Preferred Diagnostic Tool for Pulmonary Embolism

      Computerised tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the most suitable diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. This is particularly true for patients with chronic lung disease, as a ventilation perfusion scan may be difficult to interpret. In this case, the patient almost certainly has a pulmonary embolism, making CT pulmonary angiography the investigation of choice.

      It is important to note that while ventilation perfusion scans are useful in diagnosing pulmonary embolisms, they may not be the best option for patients with underlying lung disease. This is because the scan can be challenging to interpret, leading to inaccurate results. CT pulmonary angiography, on the other hand, provides a more accurate and reliable diagnosis, making it the preferred diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty breathing, and chills lasting for 4 days. Upon examination, bronchial breathing is heard at the left lower lung base. Inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest X-ray shows consolidation in the left lower zone. What is the most frequently encountered pathogen linked to community-acquired pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Common Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a lung infection that can be categorized as either community-acquired or hospital-acquired, depending on the likely causative pathogens. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, a type of Gram-positive coccus. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia typically affects older individuals, often after they have had the flu, and can result in cavitating lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause cavitating lung disease, which is characterized by caseating granulomatous inflammation. This type of pneumonia is more common in certain groups, such as Asians and immunocompromised individuals, and is diagnosed through sputum smears, cultures, or bronchoscopy. Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative bacteria that can cause meningitis and pneumonia, but it is much less common now due to routine vaccination. Finally, Neisseria meningitidis is typically associated with bacterial meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old woman is admitted with renal failure. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is admitted with renal failure. She has a history of congestive heart failure and takes ramipril 10 mg daily and furosemide 80 mg daily.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 520 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray: no significant pulmonary oedema
      Peripheral fluid replacement is commenced and a right subclavian central line is inserted. She complains of pleuritic chest pain; saturations have decreased to 90% on oxygen via mask.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subclavian artery haematoma

      Correct Answer: Iatrogenic pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pleuritic Chest Pain and Desaturation after Subclavian Line Insertion

      Subclavian line insertion carries a higher risk of iatrogenic pneumothorax compared to other routes, such as the internal jugular route. Therefore, if a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be considered as the most likely diagnosis. Urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary, and formal chest drain insertion is the management of choice.

      Other complications of central lines include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax. However, these complications would not typically present with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation.

      Developing pulmonary oedema is an important differential, but it would not explain the pleuritic chest pain. Similarly, lower respiratory tract infection is a possibility, but the recent line insertion makes iatrogenic pneumothorax more likely. Costochondritis can cause chest pain worse on inspiration and chest wall tenderness, but it would not explain the desaturation.

      In conclusion, when a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be the primary consideration, and urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man with severe emphysema visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with severe emphysema visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his yearly check-up. He reports experiencing increasing breathlessness over the past six months and inquires about the potential benefits of long-term oxygen therapy. His recent routine blood work came back normal, and upon respiratory examination, there is a noticeable decrease in air entry. However, his cardiovascular examination appears to be normal. What would be an appropriate indication for prescribing this patient LTOT?

      Your Answer: Severe breathlessness

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      When to Prescribe Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients: Indications and Limitations

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive respiratory condition that can lead to hypoxia, or low oxygen levels in the blood. Oxygen therapy is a common treatment for COPD patients with hypoxia, but it is not appropriate for all cases. Here are some indications and limitations for prescribing oxygen therapy for COPD patients:

      Indication: PaO2 < 7.3 kPa when stable or PaO2 > 7.3 and < 8 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia, nocturnal hypoxaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension present. Patients should meet the criteria on at least two blood gases taken when stable at least three weeks apart. Limitation: Oxygen therapy would have no impact on the frequency of acute exacerbations and would not be appropriate to prescribe for this indication. Indication: Symptomatic desaturation on exertion. Ambulatory oxygen may be prescribed if the presence of oxygen results in an increase in exercise capacity and/or dyspnoea. Limitation: There is no evidence that oxygen therapy is of benefit in patients with severe breathlessness who are not significantly hypoxic at rest or on exertion. Management options would include investigating for other potential causes of breathlessness and treating as appropriate, or reviewing inhaled and oral medication for COPD and pulmonary rehabilitation. Indication: PaO2 < 8.5 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension present. There is no evidence of survival benefit if patients with a PaO2 > 8 kPa are prescribed oxygen therapy.

      In summary, oxygen therapy is a valuable treatment for COPD patients with hypoxia, but it should be prescribed with caution and based on specific indications and limitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      36.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (4/10) 40%
Passmed