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Question 1
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He reports being tackled with a boot to the lateral side of his upper leg. X-ray examination shows a fracture at the neck of the fibula.
What is the structure that is most likely impacted by this injury?Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa: Nerves and Vessels
The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped area located at the back of the knee joint. It contains several important nerves and vessels that are vulnerable to injury. Here is a brief overview of the anatomy of the popliteal fossa:
Common Peroneal Nerve: This nerve runs around the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula and divides into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. Damage to this nerve can result in foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex and evert the foot.
Popliteal Artery: The popliteal artery is the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa and can be injured in penetrating injuries to the back of the knee.
Popliteal Vein: This vein travels with the popliteal artery and lies superficial and lateral to it.
Small Saphenous Vein: This vein begins at the lateral aspect of the dorsal venous arch of the foot, winds posteriorly around the lateral malleolus, and travels up the lateral aspect of the leg. It enters the popliteal fossa between the two heads of the gastrocnemius to join the popliteal vein.
Tibial Nerve: This nerve lies deep in the popliteal fossa and can be injured by deep lacerations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever. His father informs the admitting doctor that the child has had a temperature for three days, has been irritable, and is quite inactive. The child has also mentioned that his right leg has been sore, and has been reluctant to walk, although there has been no history of injury.
On examination, the child has a temperature of 39 oC, and the doctor notes an area of swelling and redness over the right shin. Following investigation, a diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis is made.
Which one of the following is true about acute osteomyelitis in children?Your Answer: Bone scans can pick up abnormalities while X-rays cannot
Correct Answer: The most common site is metaphysis of the femur
Explanation:Understanding Osteomyelitis: Common Sites, Risk Factors, and Causative Organisms
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria spreading through the bloodstream, local cellulitis, or penetrating trauma. The most common site of infection in children is the metaphysis of the long bones, while in adults, it is the vertebrae, followed by the humerus, maxilla, and mandibular bones. X-rays may not show abnormalities in the early stages, but bone scans can provide more detailed imaging. Intravenous drug usage is a significant risk factor, and Salmonella species are the most common causative organism in patients with sickle-cell anaemia, while S. aureus, group A Streptococcus species, Haemophilus influenzae, and Enterobacter species are common in adults and children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a hot swollen joint. The physician suspects septic arthritis and decides to perform synovial fluid analysis. Can you name another type of synovial joint?
Your Answer: Inferior tibiofibular joint
Correct Answer: Atlantoaxial joint
Explanation:Different Types of Joints in the Human Body
Joints are the points where two or more bones meet and allow movement. There are different types of joints in the human body, each with its own unique characteristics.
Synovial Joints: These are the most mobile joints in the body and have a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid. Examples include the Atlantoaxial joint, knee, hip, shoulder, elbow, some carpals, and the first metacarpal. Inflammation or infection of the synovial fluid can cause pain, stiffness, and limited movement.
Fibrous Joints: These joints are immovable and are held together by fibrous tissue. The skull vault sutures are an example of this type of joint, which fuse by around the age of 20 years.
Syndesmosis: This is a type of fibrous joint where two bones are linked by ligaments and a membrane. The inferior tibiofibular joint is an example of a syndesmosis.
Cartilaginous Joints: These joints are held together by cartilage. The joint between the first rib and the sternum is an example of a synchondrosis, which is composed of hyaline cartilage. The pubic symphysis is an example of a secondary cartilaginous joint, made of hyaline cartilage and fibrocartilage connecting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones at the midline.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of joints in the human body is important for diagnosing and treating joint-related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing pain in his left upper leg over the past 4 months. After conducting a thorough examination and taking a detailed medical history, the GP decides to order a set of blood tests and an X-ray of the left femur. Upon reviewing the results, the GP notices that the X-ray report indicates an area of cotton-wool calcification. What condition is cotton-wool calcification on an X-ray typically linked to?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Correct Answer: Chondrosarcoma
Explanation:Different Types of Bone Tumours and their Characteristics
Bone tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of bone tumours and their features:
Chondrosarcoma: This is a malignant tumour that arises from cartilage. It is commonly found in long bones and is characterized by popcorn or cotton wool calcification. Paget’s disease is also associated with cotton wool calcification.
Osteoid osteoma: This is a benign, isolated lesion that is usually less than 2 cm in size and has an ovoid shape.
Osteosarcoma: This is the most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by sun-ray spiculations and Codman’s triangle. Codman’s triangle is a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when the periosteum is raised away from the bone by an aggressive bone lesion.
Ewing’s sarcoma: This is the second most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by onion skin periostitis and Codman’s triangle.
Osteoclastoma: This is a well-defined, non-sclerotic area that is usually not malignant.
In summary, bone tumours can have different characteristics and features, and their classification can help in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her right femur. Fracture of the femoral neck may lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head as a result of the interruption of which artery?
Your Answer: Lateral circumflex femoral
Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral
Explanation:Arteries of the Lower Body: Functions and Importance
The lower body is supplied with blood by various arteries, each with its own specific function. The medial circumflex femoral artery, for instance, is responsible for providing blood to the femoral neck. However, in cases of femoral neck fractures, this artery may be ruptured, leading to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
The first perforating branch of the deep femoral artery, on the other hand, supplies the posterior compartment of the thigh, including the hamstrings. Meanwhile, the inferior epigastric artery, a branch of the external iliac artery, is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall.
The internal pudendal artery, on the other hand, is the primary source of blood to the perineum. Lastly, the lateral circumflex femoral artery supplies the lateral thigh and hip, although the primary supply to the head of the femur usually comes from the medial femoral circumflex. Understanding the functions and importance of these arteries is crucial in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to the lower body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are an orthopaedic senior house officer and are seeing a patient referred by her general practitioner. He has stated in his letter that the patient has vertebral tenderness at the level of the spine of her scapula, which you confirm by examination.
What level is this vertebrae if the patient is in her 60s?Your Answer: T2
Correct Answer: T3
Explanation:Identifying Vertebral Levels: Landmarks and Importance in Clinical Scenarios
Being able to identify the vertebral level is crucial in clinical scenarios, especially following trauma. It allows for effective communication with clinicians who may not be on site or at a distant tertiary center. To identify the level of the vertebral spine, certain landmarks can be used. The spine of the scapula is at T3, the most inferior aspect of the scapula is at T7, the most superior aspect of the iliac crest is at L4, and the posterior superior iliac spine is at S2. C7 is the level of the vertebra prominens, making it a useful landmark for orientation. The spine of the scapula is not found at T1, but it is found at T2. Knowing these landmarks and their corresponding vertebral levels is essential for effective communication and diagnosis in clinical scenarios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The patient notes that she also has symptoms of numbness and tingling of her right hand and wrist, which seem to be worse at night, but improve when she hangs her arm down by the side of the bed. She has also had some difficulty gripping objects and finds it increasingly difficult opening bottles and jars. The clinician suspects that she may have carpal tunnel syndrome.
These clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome are due to compression of which structure?Your Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Related Nerves and Arteries
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, a canal located on the anterior side of the wrist. The tunnel is composed of carpal bones, with the flexor retinaculum forming its roof. The median nerve and tendons of flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus pass through this tunnel. Inflammation of the ulnar bursa sheath can compress the median nerve, leading to pain and weakness in the hand. However, the radial and ulnar arteries and nerves do not pass through the carpal tunnel. Compression of the radial or ulnar artery can result in ischaemic symptoms, while the ulnar nerve may become entrapped in the cubital tunnel, causing cubital tunnel syndrome. Understanding the anatomy and related conditions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of wrist and hand pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his left hip, lumbar spine, and ribs, more recently associated with confusion, weakness, and falls. Routine investigations reveal low hemoglobin, high mean corpuscular volume, low white cell count, low platelets, high sodium, high urea, high creatinine, high corrected calcium, low PO42-, high alkaline phosphatase, and high erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Based on this presentation and blood results, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Confusion
A patient presents with bone pain, confusion, pancytopenia with macrocytosis, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, and an ESR >100 mm/hour. The most likely diagnosis is multiple myeloma, as lytic bone lesions are causing the pain and hypercalcaemia is causing the confusion. Further testing for myeloma should be done, including radiographs, urinary Bence-Jones proteins, and serum electrophoresis.
Other possible diagnoses include small cell carcinoma of the lung, but the pancytopenia and renal impairment make multiple myeloma more likely. Chronic myeloid leukaemia could also cause a raised white cell count, but fever and night sweats are more common symptoms. Hyperparathyroidism is unlikely due to the presence of pancytopenia, and myelofibrosis is a rare diagnosis that may also present with bone pain and pancytopenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his right foot is ‘dropping’ as he walks. Upon examination, you observe that he is unable to dorsiflex his foot, although plantar flexion is normal. Additionally, he exhibits weakness of ankle eversion and some loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of his calf. After conducting a full systemic examination, you find no other abnormalities. The patient has no significant past medical history, except for a distal tibial fracture, which was in a plaster cast until 3 days ago. He works as a builder and consumes approximately 40 units of alcohol per week. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy
Explanation:Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Explanation: The patient in question is experiencing a foot drop, which is a classic symptom of common peroneal nerve palsy in the right foot. This nerve is responsible for the sensory aspect of the lateral calf and dorsal aspect of the foot, as well as the muscles that evert and dorsiflex the foot and dorsiflexion the toes. Patients with this condition are unable to walk on their heels.
Common causes of common peroneal nerve palsy include compression of the nerve at the head of the fibula, which is often superficial. In this case, the patient’s plaster cast following a fracture may have caused the compression.
Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are unlikely causes, as the patient has no joint pain. Peripheral neuropathy, which typically presents with numbness and tingling in a glove and stocking distribution, is also unlikely as the patient’s symptoms are localized to the common peroneal nerve.
A lateral ligament complex injury of the ankle may cause difficulty in eversion, but it would be preceded by an ankle injury and would be very painful, without any neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 78-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a fall at home. She is experiencing right-hip pain and has limited range of motion in the right hip. Although there is no apparent fracture of the right hip or pelvis on plain X-ray (AP lateral view), the patient is still in significant pain and cannot bear weight. What is the preferred diagnostic test for a suspected hidden fracture?
Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Hip Fractures and Bone Density Assessment
Hip fractures can be difficult to diagnose, especially if they are occult fractures that do not appear on initial X-rays. It is important to identify these fractures early to prevent long-term disability. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends using MRI as the imaging modality of choice if a hip fracture is suspected despite negative X-rays. If MRI is not available within 24 hours, a CT scan may be considered.
Ultrasound scans of the hip are commonly used to investigate developmental dysplasia of the hip, but they are not useful in diagnosing occult fractures. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans are used to assess bone density after a suspected fragility fracture, but they are not used in diagnosing occult fractures.
Positron-emission tomography (PET) scans use radioactive isotopes to detect areas of increased metabolic activity, such as rapidly growing tumors. They are not used in diagnosing hip fractures or assessing bone density.
The initial X-ray for a suspected hip fracture will include lateral views, as a fracture may be difficult to identify on one view but obvious on another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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