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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation inappropriate for calculating an individual's eGFR, assuming the patient is 65 years old?
Your Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:During pregnancy, GFR typically experiences an increase, although this may not be reflected in the eGFR.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.
CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination, the GP suspects a testicular tumour rather than epididymo-orchitis. What finding is most likely to have led to this suspicion?
Your Answer: A painless testicular swelling
Explanation:Testicular Tumours and Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Testicular tumours can present as painless or painful lumps or enlarged testicles, often accompanied by a dragging sensation and pain in the lower abdomen. Inflamed testicles are very tender, while malignant ones may lack normal sensation. Ultrasound is usually used to confirm the diagnosis.
Acute epididymo-orchitis, on the other hand, is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, often caused by infections spreading from the urethra or bladder. Symptoms may include urethral discharge, hydrocele, erythema, oedema of the scrotum, and pyrexia. Orchitis, limited to the testis, is less common.
The differential diagnosis of a testicular mass includes not only tumours and epididymo-orchitis but also testicular torsion, hydrocele, hernia, hematoma, spermatocele, and varicocele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to see his General Practitioner with sudden onset of severe right flank pain that radiates to his groin and vomiting. He has no medical history. During examination, his heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/79 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5 °C. He is well hydrated. A urine dipstick shows microscopic haematuria but nothing else. The doctor suspects renal colic. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe pethidine as an analgesic
Correct Answer: Management of the patient from home
Explanation:Management of Renal Colic at Home
When managing a patient with renal colic at home, it is important to ensure that there are no urgent indications for admission, such as signs of sepsis or dehydration. If the patient is well hydrated and responding to analgesia, home treatment may be appropriate. However, urgent renal imaging should be arranged within 24 hours to confirm the diagnosis. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be offered as the first-line analgesic, but if contraindicated, intravenous paracetamol or opioid analgesia can be considered. Antibiotics are not necessary in the absence of infection, and prophylactic use should be avoided. It is important to monitor the patient’s symptoms and seek urgent medical attention if there is any deterioration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he should undergo a digital rectal examination to assess his prostate.
For which of the following would it be most appropriate to conduct a digital rectal examination (DRE) to assess prostate size and consistency?Your Answer: In an asymptomatic man whose grandfather died of prostate cancer in his 80s
Correct Answer: In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
Explanation:Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing: Important Considerations
In patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), it is important to consider the possibility of locally advanced prostate cancer causing obstructive LUTS. Therefore, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test and digital rectal exam (DRE) should be offered to men with obstructive symptoms.
While family history is a significant risk factor for prostate cancer, a grandfather’s history of the disease may not be as significant as a first-degree relative’s (father or brother) history.
If a man presents with symptoms of urinary tract infection, it is important to investigate and treat the infection before considering any PSA testing. Prostate cancer typically doesn’t cause symptoms of urinary tract infection.
Currently, there is no formal screening program for prostate cancer. However, men may choose to request a PSA test after being informed of the potential benefits and risks. It is important to note that DRE alone should not be used for screening.
Prior to testing for PSA, it is recommended to perform DRE at least a week prior as it can falsely elevate PSA levels.
Key Considerations for Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with painless left testicular enlargement. He reports noticing it approximately 3 weeks ago and denies any urinary symptoms or penile discharge.
What is the most suitable plan of action?Your Answer: Refer to urology on a suspected cancer pathway
Explanation:Urgent Referral Pathway for Suspected Testicular Cancer
Any painless enlargement of the testis should be referred urgently to urology for investigation of testicular cancer. The patient should be seen within 2 weeks, and an ultrasound should be arranged urgently. While serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a tumour marker associated with testicular cancer, it should not be used alone to exclude a tumour. AFP can also be used in staging. A mid-stream specimen of urine (MSU) is not necessary unless there are urinary symptoms or signs of infection. Antibiotics are not indicated for painless swelling without signs of infection or epididymo-orchitis. While prompt investigation is necessary, urgent urological admission is not required unless the patient is acutely unwell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after experiencing a bout of gastroenteritis last week. She reports no other symptoms and no longer has diarrhea or vomiting. Upon examination, her blood pressure is normal at 128/72 mmHg and her pulse is 92 beats per minute. The following investigations are conducted:
Haemoglobin (Hb) - 129 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
Sodium (Na+) - 143 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+) - 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Cr) - 80 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
Urea - 9.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute kidney injury
Correct Answer: Mild dehydration
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Mild Dehydration
A patient presents with a slightly raised urea level and normal creatinine (Cr) level, along with mild fatigue. The most likely diagnosis is mild dehydration, which could be caused by gastroenteritis. No further treatment may be necessary, but the patient should ensure adequate nutrition and hydration in the next few days/weeks.
Other possible diagnoses include acute gastrointestinal bleeding, acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, and malnutrition due to gastroenteritis. However, the patient’s normal hemoglobin level makes acute GI bleeding unlikely, while the absence of an elevated Cr level rules out acute kidney injury and CKD. Malnutrition is also unlikely given the short duration of gastroenteritis symptoms and lack of other indications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of overactive bladder symptoms. After a thorough investigation, you decide to initiate medication for his symptoms. His blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, his pulse is 72 bpm and regular. Urodynamic studies reveal no urinary retention, and recent blood tests show normal renal and liver function. The patient is currently taking medications for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. However, due to his age and medication regimen, you want to avoid prescribing a medication with a high anticholinergic burden. What medication would you consider starting for this patient's overactive bladder symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirabegron
Explanation:Mirabegron, a beta 3 agonist, is recommended by NICE as a second option medication for overactive bladder symptoms, following antimuscarinics. However, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as hypertension (including severe cases) and tachycardia. The other drugs listed are also used for overactive bladder symptoms, but they are anticholinergics.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about measuring the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It doesn't need to be adjusted for different racial groups
Explanation:Understanding Renal Function: Estimating Glomerular Filtration Rate
Renal function is a crucial aspect of overall health, and it is typically measured by estimating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). There are various equations available to calculate GFR, but the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) creatinine equation is recommended by NICE. This equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and race.
It is important to note that laboratories often assume a standard body surface area, which can lead to inaccurate results in individuals with extreme muscle mass. For example, bodybuilders, amputees, and those with muscle wasting disorders may have an overestimated or underestimated GFR.
Additionally, certain factors can affect serum creatinine levels and thus impact the accuracy of eGFR results. For instance, consuming a cooked meat meal can temporarily increase serum creatinine concentration, leading to a falsely lowered eGFR. Conversely, strict and long-term vegetarians may have a reduced baseline eGFR.
If an eGFR result is less than 60 ml/min/1.73m2 in someone who has not been previously tested, it is recommended to confirm the result by repeating the test in two weeks.
Finally, it is worth noting that creatinine clearance is sometimes used as a rough measurement of GFR, but it has limitations. This method involves a 24-hour urine collection and a serum creatinine measurement during that time period. However, accurate urine collection can be challenging, and this method tends to overestimate GFR and is time-consuming.
Overall, understanding how to estimate GFR and interpret the results is crucial for assessing renal function and identifying potential health concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts you over the phone, requesting antibiotics for a suspected UTI. She complains of dysuria and frequency for the past two days and had a confirmed UTI with the same symptoms last year. As per GMC guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibiotics can be prescribed, with normal safeguards and advice
Explanation:GMC Guidelines for Prescribing and Managing Medicines and Devices
Prescribing and managing medicines and devices is a crucial aspect of a doctor’s role. The General Medical Council (GMC) has published guidelines for good practice in prescribing medicines, which were last updated in 2008. The principles of prescribing include only prescribing drugs to meet the identified needs of patients and avoiding treating oneself or those close to them. Doctors with full registration may prescribe all medicines except those in Schedule 1 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.
To ensure that doctors prescribe in patients’ best interests, the guidelines recommend keeping up to date with the British National Formulary (BNF), National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), and Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN). Doctors should also report adverse reactions to medicines to the Committee on the Safety of Medicines through the Yellow Card Scheme. If a nurse or other healthcare professional without prescribing rights recommends a treatment, the doctor must ensure that the prescription is appropriate for the patient and that the professional is competent to have recommended it.
The guidelines also address doctors’ interests in pharmacies, emphasizing the importance of ensuring that patients have access to information about any financial or commercial interests the doctor or their employer may have in a pharmacy. When it comes to prescribing controlled drugs for oneself or someone close, doctors should avoid doing so whenever possible and should be registered with a GP outside their family. If no other person with the legal right to prescribe is available, doctors may prescribe a controlled drug only if it is immediately necessary to save a life, avoid serious deterioration in the patient’s health, or alleviate otherwise uncontrollable pain.
Finally, the guidelines provide recommendations for remote prescribing via telephone, email, fax, video link, or a website. While this is supported, doctors must give an explanation of the processes involved in remote consultations and provide their name and GMC number to the patient if they are not providing continuing care. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they prescribe and manage medicines and devices in the best interests of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man received a kidney transplant for end-stage renal disease. After four weeks, he experiences fever, night sweats, and myalgia. He visits his General Practitioner and is referred to the Nephrology Clinic. His CXR reveals bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Post-Transplant Infections: Common Causes and Symptoms
Renal transplant patients are at risk for various infections due to immunosuppressive therapy. One of the most common infections is caused by cytomegalovirus, which typically presents with nonspecific symptoms such as fever and myalgia. A chest X-ray may reveal bilateral interstitial or reticulonodular infiltrates that start in the lower lobes and spread outwards. Epstein-Barr virus can also cause complications post-transplant, leading to lymphoproliferative disease. However, this tends to develop months to years after transplantation and would not account for the CXR results. Herpes simplex virus usually results in oral or anogenital lesions, while Mycobacterium tuberculosis can present with fever and night sweats but would not explain the diffuse CXR findings. Varicella-zoster virus is more likely to cause a classic Chickenpox rash or shingles-type rash. It is important to monitor for these infections and promptly treat them to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man has been referred under the 2-week rule due to frank haematuria. He underwent a flexible cystoscopy and biopsies, which revealed a small superficial bladder tumour. He is a non-smoker. What is the most suitable advice you can give this patient regarding his bladder tumour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The majority of tumours involve only the urothelium and are non-invasive
Explanation:Bladder Cancer: Facts and Figures
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the pelvis that stores urine. Here are some important facts and figures about bladder cancer:
– The majority of bladder tumours involve only the urothelium (the lining of the bladder) and are non-invasive.
– Transitional-cell tumours account for 90% of bladder cancers in the UK. About 70% of patients have superficial disease at diagnosis.
– The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer is typically less than 50%. However, patients with superficial tumours have a 5-year survival rate of 80-90%, while those with muscle-invasive tumours have a rate as low as 30-60%.
– Although smoking is a risk factor for bladder cancer, it is linked to only about 50% of cases, meaning that it is still common in non-smokers.
– Most non-invasive bladder tumours are managed with transurethral resection of the bladder tumour (TURBT). Radical cystectomy (removal of the bladder) may be necessary for invasive tumours.
– The most common symptom of bladder cancer is painless haematuria (blood in the urine). Voiding symptoms are more likely to occur in advanced disease.Bladder cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of bladder cancer, such as blood in the urine or changes in urination patterns, you should see a doctor right away.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, with a gradual worsening of symptoms. He infrequently seeks medical attention and has no prior medical history.
What is the predominant organic etiology for this particular symptom?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vascular causes
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual activity. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition.
Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors. Among these, vasculogenic causes are the most common and are often linked to cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery.
The risk factors for ED are similar to those for cardiovascular disease and include obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for cardiovascular disease and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 250 men
Explanation:Prostate Cancer in England and Wales
Approximately 10,000 men die of prostate cancer each year in England and Wales, making it the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men after lung cancer. The lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 14 men. However, one of the difficulties with investigating and diagnosing prostate cancer in older men is that as we age, most men have detectable prostate cancer. But, three-quarters of them will grow older and die of something else, and the prostate cancer itself will not impact their life expectancy.
The five-year survival rate from prostate cancer in the UK is 81%, which is relatively high compared to other types of cancer. However, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of the symptoms of prostate cancer and to undergo regular screenings, especially if they are at higher risk due to factors such as age, family history, or ethnicity. By detecting prostate cancer early, men can receive timely treatment and improve their chances of survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence. She reports frequent urine leakage and a strong urge to urinate that she cannot control. She denies experiencing dysuria or hematuria and has no gastrointestinal symptoms. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen, and urinalysis is normal. The patient drinks seven glasses of water per day and avoids caffeinated beverages. She has a BMI of 20.2 and is a non-smoker. If non-pharmacological interventions fail, what is the first-line medication for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Treatment options for Urinary Urge Incontinence
Urinary urge incontinence is a common condition that can be treated with supervised bladder training for at least six weeks. This training can be provided by a continence nurse, physiotherapist, or urology clinic. If symptoms persist, an Antimuscarinic drug can be prescribed, with the lowest effective dose used and titrated upwards if necessary. It may take up to four weeks for the drug to take effect, and side effects such as dry mouth and constipation may occur. First-line drugs include oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin.
It is important to note that diuretics such as furosemide can potentially worsen symptoms of urinary urge incontinence. Amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition, as it is primarily used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis. Duloxetine may be used as a second-line treatment for stress incontinence, but it is not included in NICE guidelines for urinary urge incontinence. Desmopressin is typically used for other conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and bleeding disorders.
In summary, supervised bladder training and Antimuscarinic drugs are effective treatment options for urinary urge incontinence. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results of a 75-year-old man. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his results are as follows:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 92 µmol/l
You look back through his notes and see that he had blood taken as part of his annual review two weeks ago when his eGFR was at 58 (mL/min/1.73 m2). These current blood tests are a repeat organised by another doctor.
He takes 10 mg of Lisinopril for hypertension but he has no other past medical history.
You plan to have a telephone conversation with him regarding his renal function.
What is the correct information to give this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 90 days you can then diagnose CKD
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where there is an abnormality in kidney function or structure that lasts for more than three months and has implications for health. Diagnosis of CKD requires an eGFR of less than 60 on at least two occasions, separated by a minimum of 90 days. CKD can range from mild to end-stage renal disease, with associated protein and/or blood leakage into the urine. Common causes of CKD include diabetes, hypertension, nephrotoxic drugs, obstructive kidney disease, and multi-system diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment of CKD aim to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to end-stage renal disease. Testing for CKD involves measuring creatinine levels in the blood, sending an early morning urine sample for albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) measurement, and dipping the urine for haematuria. CKD is diagnosed when tests persistently show a reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. This requires an eGFR persistently less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and/or ACR persistently greater than 3 mg/mmol. To confirm the diagnosis of CKD, a repeat blood test is necessary at least 90 days after the first one. For instance, a lady needs to provide an early morning urine sample for haematuria dipping and ACR measurement, and another blood test after 90 days to confirm CKD diagnosis.
Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following indicate the presence of authentic stress incontinence (GSI)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Passage of large amounts of urine
Explanation:Understanding Urinary Incontinence
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many people, particularly women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, and each has its own set of symptoms. Genuine stress incontinence is characterized by the loss of urine during physical activity such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or intercourse. The urine loss is immediate and often described as a squirt of urine.
On the other hand, detrusor dyssynergia (DD) is characterized by a sudden urge to urinate that may occur while at rest or after physical activity. This is followed by a large loss of urine. Dysuria, or painful urination, may indicate an infection of the bladder and urethra or irritation of the vulval and perineal epithelium due to the dribbling of urine.
In some cases, urinary incontinence may be associated with other pelvic relaxation problems such as cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis. What is the most common long-term complication for patients receiving haemodialysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Cardiovascular Disease and Other Complications in End-Stage Renal Disease Patients
End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients are at high risk for cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Atherosclerosis is present in all long-term dialysis patients, and premature cardiac death occurs at a much higher rate than in the general population. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease and is often poorly controlled in ESRD patients.
In addition to cardiovascular disease, ESRD patients may also develop β2 microglobulin amyloidosis, which can cause physical handicaps and even life-threatening cervical spinal cord compression. This condition typically appears after 5 years or more of hemodialysis and can affect any joint, but is especially common in the sternoclavicular joint and hips. Clinical features include periarthritis of the shoulders, carpal tunnel syndrome, and spondyloarthropathy.
Kidney transplant recipients may also face complications, including an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and skin cancers due to prolonged immunosuppressive therapy. However, there is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term dialysis.
Overall, ESRD patients require careful monitoring and management to prevent and address these potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 1.5 g/24 hours and a serum creatinine level of 153 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:Nephropathies and their Clinical Presentations
Membranous glomerulonephritis and diabetic nephropathy rarely present with macroscopic haematuria, but rather with greater proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in adults. On the other hand, IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is characterized by IgA deposition in the glomerulus and often presents with macroscopic haematuria, which may be triggered by an upper respiratory tract infection. It usually presents asymptomatic haematuria and/or proteinuria and is a nephritic syndrome, but can also rarely present with nephrotic syndrome. Henoch-Schönlein purpura, a variant of IgA nephropathy, is associated with a petechial rash and systemic vasculitis. Although progression is slow, 20-30% of patients may eventually develop end-stage renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man undergoes renal function testing and obtains an eGFR result of 54 ml/min. What is the most probable factor that accounts for this lower-than-expected outcome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large muscle mass secondary to body building
Explanation:Individuals with extreme muscle mass, such as body builders, may frequently receive an inaccurate eGFR result, which may indicate a lower than expected value.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.
CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with haematuria. Investigations confirm the presence of a bladder carcinoma.
In his occupational history, select the single substance exposure which would be a significant risk factor for his current diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aromatic amines
Explanation:Occupational and Environmental Carcinogens: A Brief Overview
Exposure to certain chemicals and substances in the workplace and environment can increase the risk of developing cancer. Bladder carcinoma, for example, is linked to exposure to aromatic amines found in various industries such as dyes, paints, and textiles. Smoking is also a major contributor to bladder cancer. Asbestos, commonly found in construction materials, increases the risk of lung cancer and mesothelioma. Vinyl chloride, used in plastic production and tobacco smoke, is associated with liver cancer, brain cancer, lung cancer, lymphoma, and leukemia. Arsenic exposure predisposes individuals to skin cancer, while nickel exposure increases the risk of squamous-cell carcinomas in the lung and nasal cavity. It is important for individuals to be aware of potential carcinogens in their workplace and environment to take necessary precautions and reduce their risk of developing cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of metformin 500 mg TDS, pioglitazone 30 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His latest HbA1c blood test result is 66 mmol/mol. His renal function shows an eGFR of >90 ml/min.
As part of his review his urine is dipstick tested and shows blood+. It is negative for glucose, protein, leucocytes, nitrites and ketones.
The patient feels well and denies any urinary symptoms or frank haematuria. His blood pressure is 126/82 mmHg.
You provide him with two urine containers and ask him to submit further samples in one and two weeks time for repeat testing. You also send a urine sample to the laboratory for microalbuminuria testing.
The repeat tests show persisting blood+ only. His urine albumin:creatinine ratio is 1.9 and there is a leucocytosis on blood testing.
What is the most appropriate approach in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Review his medications and refer urgently to a urologist
Explanation:Managing Microscopic Haematuria
Persistent microscopic haematuria should be considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative. Blood 1+ or more is significant. If a patient is aged 60 and over and has unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, referral to a Urologist as an urgent suspected cancer is advised according to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.
It is important to note that certain medications, such as clopidogrel, aspirin, and warfarin, should not be attributed to microscopic haematuria. Additionally, if the sample is painless, it must have 1+ of blood or more on at least 2 out of 3 occasions to be considered abnormal.
If a patient is on pioglitazone, which carries a small but significant increased risk of bladder cancer, it would be prudent to stop the medication at least until the microscopic haematuria has been investigated.
In summary, managing microscopic haematuria involves careful consideration of the frequency and amount of blood present in the sample, as well as referral to a specialist for further investigation in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15% abnormal forms is within normal limits
Explanation:Understanding Semen Analysis Results
Semen analysis is a crucial test that helps determine male fertility. According to the World Health Organisation guidelines, a sperm sample showing 15% or more sperm of normal morphology is considered normal. It is recommended to abstain from masturbation and/or intercourse for at least two days before the test.
Low volume is a common issue, often caused by missing the container. Motility below 40% is a cause for concern, and the pH should be between 7 and 8.5. The specimen should be examined within an hour, and a count below 20 million would be of some concern, while below 10 million would be clinically significant.
When conducting semen analysis, the results should be compared with the WHO reference values. The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, pH should be 7.2 or more, sperm concentration should be 15 million spermatozoa per ml or more, and the total sperm number should be 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more. The total motility should be 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility, vitality should be 58% or more, and live spermatozoa sperm morphology should be 4% or more.
In conclusion, understanding semen analysis results is crucial in determining male fertility. It is important to follow the WHO guidelines and compare the results with the reference values to identify any potential issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with chronic renal failure has been diagnosed with renal osteodystrophy. A medical student is present and asks for an explanation of the mechanism for this.
Select the option that most accurately describes the changes involved.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased
Explanation:Understanding Renal Osteodystrophy: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Renal osteodystrophy is a condition that occurs as a result of hyperparathyroidism secondary to hyperphosphatemia combined with hypocalcemia. These conditions are caused by the decreased excretion of phosphate by the damaged kidney. Additionally, low activated vitamin D3 levels are a result of the damaged kidneys’ inability to hydroxylate vitamin D3 into its active form, calcitriol, which results in further hypocalcemia due to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Hyperparathyroidism then leads to increased osteoclastic activity, cyst formation, and bone marrow fibrosis.
Diagnosis of renal osteodystrophy usually occurs after treatment for end-stage renal disease begins. Blood tests will indicate decreased calcium and calcitriol and increased phosphate and parathyroid hormone. X-rays will also show bone features of renal osteodystrophy, such as chondrocalcinosis at the knees and pubic symphysis, osteopenia, and bone fractures.
Treatment for renal osteodystrophy involves increasing 25(OH)-vitamin D levels by taking alfacalcidol, which increases endogenous calcitriol production and can effectively suppress parathormone in the early stages of chronic kidney disease. Normal 25(OH)-vitamin D levels also prevent the development of osteomalacia. Gut phosphate binders, such as calcium salts and sevelamer (Renagel®), may help reduce phosphate levels.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment of renal osteodystrophy is crucial for managing this condition effectively. Early detection and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some recent results. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 25 ml/min/1.73 m2.
Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia
Explanation:Managing Calcium and Phosphate Metabolism in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, particularly in moderate to severe cases (stage 4 and 5). Patients with stage 4 CKD (eGFR 15-29 ml/minute/1.73 m2) should be referred for specialist assessment.
In stage 3+ CKD, the goal is to maintain normal calcium levels, serum phosphate at or below 1.8 mmol/l (reference range 0.7-1.4 mmol/l), and parathormone (PTH) below twice (to three times) the upper limit of normal. Low-normal or low calcium levels are common in renal failure, and high PTH levels are a physiological response to the low serum calcium and phosphate retention.
Dietary advice to reduce phosphate intake and phosphate binders taken with food may be necessary to keep phosphate levels within acceptable limits. Vitamin D derivatives (alfacalcidol, calcitriol) can correct hypocalcaemia resulting from reduced renal activation of vitamin D and suppress PTH secretion. However, initiation of these agents should be on the advice of specialists.
Hypercalcaemia in a patient with kidney disease may indicate that the cause of the renal problem is related to the hypercalcaemia or its underlying cause, such as oral calcium and vitamin D treatment or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Advanced CKD may also present with anaemia and hyperkalaemia.
In summary, managing calcium and phosphate metabolism is crucial in CKD, and referral to specialists may be necessary for severe disturbances in these levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin and LH levels should be measured
Explanation:Important Information about Erectile Dysfunction
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the population, with prevalence estimates ranging from 32 to 52%. It is important to measure both lipids and glucose in all patients, as early detection of ED may precede cardiovascular disease (CVD) symptoms by up to three years. While the causes of ED are multifactorial, it is recommended to only measure pituitary hormones if testosterone levels are low. Additionally, it is important to note that recreational drugs such as cocaine and heroin can also cause ED. Overall, it is crucial to be aware of the potential risk factors and causes of ED in order to properly diagnose and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to see you after his recent prostatectomy for localised prostate cancer. He was diagnosed after presenting with minimal symptoms and as such he is worried about relapse and recurrence of his prostate cancer.
He tells you that his specialist mentioned that he would have a PSA blood test performed periodically as a means of monitoring for recurrence. How often should he have his PSA checked?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At six weeks, then at least six monthly for two years, then at least annually thereafter
Explanation:Monitoring Prostate Cancer Patients
Patients who have had prostate cancer require regular monitoring to check for any signs of recurrence or progression. This is usually done through PSA blood tests, which can be done at the GP surgery. However, it is important to note that patients should be under the direction of a specialist for monitoring and follow-up appointments.
As a GP, it is important to have an understanding of the monitoring process so that you can effectively counsel and advise patients who may have concerns about recurrence. Fear of recurrence is a common issue amongst cancer survivors, and they may feel more comfortable discussing this with their GP.
NICE has provided guidance on active surveillance and monitoring post-treatment, which can help inform your consultations with patients. By understanding the necessary monitoring, you can provide better support and care for patients who have been affected by prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, reporting symptoms of frequent urination, weak urinary stream, and dribbling at the end of urination. He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately a year. Upon examination, his prostate is soft and normal in size, his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) falls within the normal range for his age, and his bladder and kidneys are not palpable. He has a history of renal colic and has previously undergone cystoscopic removal of a bladder stone. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urethral stricture
Explanation:Possible Causes of Urinary Symptoms: A Differential Diagnosis
Urinary symptoms can be caused by various conditions, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. One possible cause is urethral stricture, which refers to the narrowing of the urethra due to scarring from inflammation, trauma, infection, tumors, or surgery. Patients may experience no symptoms, mild discomfort, or complete urinary retention. Another possible cause is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which can cause urinary frequency, poor stream, and terminal dribbling, but normal examination findings make prostatic disease unlikely. Bladder stones can also cause urinary symptoms such as suprapubic pain, dysuria, intermittency, frequency, hesitancy, nocturia, and urinary retention, as well as terminal hematuria and sudden cessation of voiding with associated pain. Chlamydia infection can cause urethritis with urethral discharge and dysuria, and a possible late complication is a stricture. Prostatic carcinoma can also cause similar symptoms, but the patient’s young age and normal examination of the prostate and PSA result make this diagnosis unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and dysuria for the last 3 days. She denies vomiting or fevers and has no back pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions.
During the examination, she experiences mild suprapubic tenderness, but there is no renal angle tenderness. Her heart rate is 68 beats per minute, blood pressure is 134/80 mmHg, and tympanic temperature is 36.8 oC. Urinalysis reveals 2+ leucocytes, positive nitrites, and no haematuria.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send a urine culture and commence a 3 day course of nitrofurantoin immediately
Explanation:For women over 65 years old with suspected urinary tract infections, it is recommended to send an MSU for urine culture according to current NICE CKS guidance. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is common in older patients, so a urine dip is no longer recommended. However, a urine culture can help determine appropriate antibiotic therapy in this age group. Antibiotics should be prescribed for 3 days in women and 7 days in men with suspected urinary tract infections. Since the woman is experiencing symptoms, it is appropriate to administer antibiotics immediately rather than waiting for culture results.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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One of your elderly patients with chronic kidney disease stage 4 has undergone his annual blood tests:
Hb 9.4 g/dl
Platelets 166 * 109/l
WBC 6.7 * 109/l
He is currently receiving treatment from the renal team and has been prescribed erythropoietin. What is the target haemoglobin level for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10-12 g/dl
Explanation:The target for haemoglobin levels in CKD patients with anaemia should be between 10-12 g/dl.
Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.
There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.
To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has scheduled an appointment with you for a medication review. She is currently on ramipril 2.5mg once daily and amlodipine 5mg once daily. Her recent blood and urine tests are as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
eGFR 39 ml/min/1.73m²
Urine albumin:creatinine ratio = 73 mg/mmol.
Based on the above results, what is the target blood pressure for Samantha according to NICE guidelines?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:For patients with chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 or more, it is recommended to aim for a lower blood pressure target of <130/80 mmHg. This approach can provide advantages such as reducing the risk of cardiovascular complications and slowing the progression of the disease. However, if the patient’s ACR is less than 70 mg/mmol, the blood pressure target can be slightly higher at <140/90 mmHg. For individuals under 80 years old, the recommended target for home blood pressure readings is <135/85 mmHg. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease. Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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