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  • Question 1 - A 87-year-old woman presents with disorientation and restlessness. She has a history of...

    Correct

    • A 87-year-old woman presents with disorientation and restlessness. She has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, polymyalgia rheumatica, osteoarthritis and a hiatus hernia. Her current medications include bisoprolol, digoxin, amlodipine, omeprazole, prednisolone and as required paracetamol. She lives independently and is usually mentally alert. She has been increasingly unwell for the past week, complaining of increased pain in her shoulders, so her GP has increased the dose of prednisolone from 5mg to 30mg daily and added codeine 30mg four times a day. Physical examination and blood tests are unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Polypharmacy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Delirium in the Elderly: A Case Study

      This patient is most likely experiencing delirium, which is a common condition among the elderly. One of the leading causes of delirium in this population is polypharmacy, which refers to taking multiple medications. In this case, the patient’s unremarkable physical examination and blood tests suggest that polypharmacy is the most likely explanation for her symptoms. Steroids and opioids, which she recently started taking, are known to cause delirium, especially in older adults. Patients with dementia or mild cognitive impairment are particularly vulnerable to the effects of polypharmacy.

      Accidental poisoning is also a possibility, but the patient’s usual independence and mental alertness make this less likely. Additionally, her symptoms have been present for a week, which suggests a longer process than accidental poisoning. A chest infection could also cause delirium, but the patient’s examination and blood tests do not support this diagnosis.

      Alcohol withdrawal is another potential cause of disorientation and restlessness, but there is no indication in the patient’s history that she is misusing alcohol. Finally, Alzheimer’s disease is unlikely given the short duration of the patient’s symptoms and her usual mental alertness. Overall, polypharmacy is the most probable cause of this patient’s delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - Which one of the following is not a recognized feature of anorexia nervosa...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a recognized feature of anorexia nervosa in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Correct Answer: Reduced growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is characterized by low levels of various substances, including growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, and carotene.

      Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that is characterized by a number of clinical signs and physiological abnormalities. The most notable feature of this disorder is a reduced body mass index, which is often accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. In addition, individuals with anorexia nervosa may experience enlarged salivary glands, which can cause discomfort and difficulty swallowing.

      Physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include hypokalaemia, which is a deficiency of potassium in the blood, as well as low levels of FSH, LH, oestrogens, and testosterone. Individuals with anorexia nervosa may also have raised levels of cortisol and growth hormone, impaired glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolaemia, hypercarotinaemia, and low T3.

      Overall, anorexia nervosa is a complex disorder that can have a significant impact on an individual’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important for individuals who are struggling with this disorder to seek professional help in order to receive the support and treatment they need to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - You assess a 50-year-old woman who has developed a dependence on temazepam, which...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 50-year-old woman who has developed a dependence on temazepam, which was initially prescribed as a sleep aid. She expresses a desire to overcome her addiction to temazepam and seeks assistance. Her current dosage is 20 mg per day. What would be the most suitable approach?

      Your Answer: Switch to the equivalent zopiclone dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 months

      Correct Answer: Switch to the equivalent diazepam dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 months

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which inhibits brain activity. They are used for various purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and seizure prevention. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for a short period of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, which can include insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Barbiturates are another type of drug that affect GABA, but they work differently than benzodiazepines by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports that she has a 2-year history of progressive memory impairment (especially for recent events), worsening apathy and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. She scores 22/30 on the Mini-Mental State Examination. Her BP is 140/90, and pulse 70 and regular. She is a non-smoker. She takes medication for hypertension.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Dementia

      Dementia is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia, accounting for over 60% of cases. It typically starts with memory impairment, particularly affecting recent events, and gradually progresses to language and visuospatial dysfunction, apathy, and behavioural problems.

      Vascular dementia is the second most common type of dementia, and it is often associated with a history of cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease. Depression can also cause memory impairment and apathy, but the characteristic pattern of memory disturbance seen in Alzheimer’s disease makes it a more likely diagnosis in this case.

      Mild cognitive impairment is a condition where memory impairment is present, but other cognitive domains and activities of daily living are preserved. It is estimated that between 5 and 20% of people over 65 have MCI, and about 30% of them will develop dementia within two years.

      Lewy-body dementia is another type of dementia that accounts for about 20% of cases. It typically presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations, which are not present in this vignette.

      Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristic features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong desire for sugary foods during the winter months. He reports that his symptoms are more severe in the winter than in the summer. He has no history of other mental health issues or physical problems. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Seasonal Affective Disorder from Other Depressive Disorders

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs in a regular temporal pattern, typically beginning in autumn or winter and ending in spring or summer. Unlike classic major depression, SAD is characterized by symptoms of hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and weight gain. The cause of SAD is believed to be a malfunction of the light-sensitive hormone melatonin during winter. Treatment involves phototherapy, which exposes individuals to bright light for several hours a day.

      Reactive depression, on the other hand, is a subtype of major depression that occurs as a result of an external event, such as a relationship breakdown or bereavement. There is no indication of a stressful life event in the presented vignette.

      Bipolar affective disorder is characterized by distinct episodes of depression and mania, which is not evident in the vignette. Dysthymia is a persistent depression of mood that does not fully meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depression and does not have a definite seasonal variation like SAD.

      Finally, double depression occurs when one or more episodes of major depression occur on a background of dysthymia. It is important to differentiate SAD from other depressive disorders to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?

      Your Answer: Hamilton Depression Rating Scale

      Correct Answer: Edinburgh Scale

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation...

    Correct

    • As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation where a teenage patient has become uncontrollable and tried to assault a staff member. The patient is currently being restrained in the prone position on the floor, but is still struggling and attempting to break free. The restraint has been in place for approximately 10 minutes. What steps should you take in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Give him rapid tranquillisation

      Explanation:

      To avoid prolonged manual restraint, it is recommended to consider rapid tranquillisation or seclusion as alternatives. Prolonged physical restraint poses both physical and emotional risks for both patients and staff. Handcuffs and other mechanical restraints should only be used in exceptional circumstances in high-secure settings. It is important to avoid releasing an agitated patient from restraint as it could be dangerous for staff and other patients. Patients should not be carried during any kind of restraint.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has cautioned that which category of...

    Incorrect

    • The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has cautioned that which category of medication may be linked to a higher incidence of venous thromboembolism in older individuals?

      Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Correct Answer: Atypical antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      Elderly individuals taking antipsychotics are at a higher risk of experiencing stroke and VTE.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by one of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by one of his caregivers. He is currently taking clozapine and procyclidine. The caregiver reports that he seems more fatigued than usual and generally not feeling well. She also suspects that he may have gained weight. What is the most crucial examination to conduct?

      Your Answer: Blood sugar

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Monitoring FBC is crucial to detect agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal adverse reaction of clozapine. Additionally, patients taking this medication often experience weight gain.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient...

    Incorrect

    • A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient drug rehabilitation programme. What advice will you give him to maintain sobriety?

      Your Answer: Before attending a party, plan a definite number of drinks

      Correct Answer: Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group

      Explanation:

      Strategies for Preventing Alcohol Relapse

      For individuals with alcohol-use disorders, preventing relapse is crucial for maintaining sobriety. Here are some strategies that can help:

      1. Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group or other self-help groups that require total abstinence. Active participation in these groups can offer the best chance of preventing relapses.

      2. Limit consumption to socially appropriate amounts. Even small amounts of alcohol can trigger a relapse, so individuals who have completed a detoxification program are encouraged not to drink at all.

      3. Take disulfiram as prescribed. This medication can cause unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed, making it a deterrent for those who struggle with alcohol use. However, it should only be taken in the context of an appropriate alcohol detoxification program.

      4. Take naltrexone as prescribed. This medication can help reduce cravings for alcohol, but it should not be taken as a deterrent before attending a party.

      5. Plan a definite number of drinks before attending a party. However, individuals who have completed a detoxification program are still encouraged not to drink at all to prevent relapse.

      By implementing these strategies, individuals with alcohol-use disorders can increase their chances of maintaining sobriety and preventing relapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. What is the most significant indicator of an ongoing high risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: Made efforts to avoid herself being found by friends and family

      Explanation:

      Although deliberate self-harm is more prevalent among females, completed suicide is more prevalent among males.

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - Sarah is a 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia who has had multiple admissions under...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia who has had multiple admissions under the Mental Health Act (1983).
      Her consultant has utilized a Section of the Mental Health Act that permits Sarah to be brought back to the hospital for treatment if certain conditions are not met, such as if she declines to take her depot antipsychotic.
      What is the name of this Section?

      Your Answer: Section 17a (Community Treatment Order)

      Explanation:

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old man is sent to your office for evaluation by his family....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is sent to your office for evaluation by his family. The patient recently graduated from university and has had trouble adapting and fitting in. His parents note that he has always been a loner, preferring to stay in his room. They hoped graduation would bring him out of his shell. He has not made any new friends, but only his parents are bothered by this. Instead of socialising, he seems to have continued to stay alone in his room.
      On interview, he is withdrawn and quiet. His range of affect is restricted, and he displays no clear happiness or joy when discussing activities that he reports enjoying. He denies any auditory or visual hallucinations and has no suicidal or homicidal intent. He reports that he has no change in his sleep, appetite, energy or concentration.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizoid Personality Disorder: Differentiating from Other Psychiatric Conditions

      Personality disorders are characterized by enduring patterns of perception, processing, and engagement that become ingrained, inflexible, and maladaptive. Schizoid personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that falls under the weird cluster of disorders. Patients with this disorder are withdrawn loners with flat affects, but they do not have weird/magical thinking (schizotypal) or psychotic symptoms (schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder). They classically have a very flat affect and no interest in interpersonal relationships, preferring to work and play alone. It is important to differentiate schizoid personality disorder from other psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia, avoidant personality disorder, schizoaffective disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder, as they have distinct features and treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman is seen by her general practitioner. She has lost 8...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seen by her general practitioner. She has lost 8 kg in weight; her previous weight was 70 kg, and she now weighs 60 kg. She has a fear of gaining weight, but no further symptoms are elicited. On examination, she appears underweight and her skin looks dry; there is evidence of thin, soft, unpigmented hair on her back; her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her heart rate is 65 bpm.
      What is your preferred diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Anorexia Nervosa from Other Mental Disorders

      Anorexia nervosa (AN) is a mental disorder characterized by deliberate weight loss induced and sustained by the patient. In this scenario, a woman presents with a fear of gaining weight and has lost more than 15% of her body weight, suggesting a diagnosis of AN. Other physical symptoms such as dry skin, lanugo hair, hypotension, and bradycardia help confirm the diagnosis. However, a more detailed history, a full assessment of her mental state, and clinical investigations are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and inform management.

      While weight loss can also be present in other mental disorders such as generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), depression, schizophrenia, and bulimia nervosa (BN), they are not accompanied by a fear of gaining weight. Patients with GAD experience persistent anxiety that affects several aspects of their lives, while depression is characterized by a persistent feeling of sadness and hopelessness. Schizophrenia involves self-neglect and/or delusional beliefs around food, while BN is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors.

      It is worth noting that eating disorders have the highest mortality among all mental disorders, with AN being no exception. The excess mortality is explained by the associated physical complications and increased risk of suicide. Psychological interventions are the mainstay of treatment for all eating disorders, but antidepressants have a role in some types (e.g., BN), and a multidisciplinary approach is recommended in any case.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 9-year-old patient is brought to General Practitioner by his parents because he...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old patient is brought to General Practitioner by his parents because he has been disruptive at school. His teachers report that he does not pay attention in class, bullies other classmates and takes their food during lunchtime without their permission. One teacher also reported that the patient was seen hurting the class hamster.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Behavioral Disorders in Children and Adults

      Conduct Disorder:
      Conduct disorder is a behavioral disorder that affects individuals under the age of 18. It is characterized by repetitive behavior that violates the rights of others, including bullying and torture of animals.

      Major Depression:
      Major depression is a mood disorder that is diagnosed when an individual experiences depressed mood along with at least five of the following symptoms: changes in sleep patterns, loss of interest in activities, feelings of guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, sluggishness, and suicidal thoughts.

      Antisocial Disorder:
      Individuals who exhibit signs of conduct disorder and are 18 years or older are diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.

      Manic Episode:
      Mania is a mood disorder characterized by elevated mood lasting for at least 7 days. Symptoms include increased energy, decreased need for sleep, risky sexual behavior, feelings of invincibility, distractibility, flight of ideas, agitation, and pressured speech.

      Oppositional Defiant Disorder:
      Oppositional defiant disorder is a behavioral disorder characterized by oppositional behavior towards authority figures. However, there is no violation of the rights of others or extreme behavior such as bullying or animal cruelty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain and an unusual posture. During the examination, it is observed that her neck is fixed in a backward and lateral position, and her eyes are deviated upwards. She is unable to control her gaze. The patient has a history of paranoid schizophrenia and is currently taking olanzapine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Catatonia

      Correct Answer: Acute dystonic reaction

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics have the potential to cause acute dystonic reactions, including oculogyric crises. Symptoms may also include jaw spasms and tongue protrusion. Treatment typically involves administering IV procyclidine and discontinuing the medication responsible for the reaction. Akathisia is another potential side effect, characterized by restlessness and an inability to sit still. Tardive dyskinesia is a long-term side effect that can develop after years of antipsychotic use, resulting in involuntary facial movements such as grimacing, tongue protrusion, and lip smacking. Parkinsonism is a term used to describe antipsychotic side effects that mimic Parkinson’s disease, such as bradykinesia, cogwheel rigidity, and a shuffling gait.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan of his abdomen, claiming that he is certain he has cancer despite previous negative test results. What type of disorder does this behavior exemplify?

      Your Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of paracetamol. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of paracetamol. He waited until his children had gone to school and his wife had left for work before taking 100 tablets. He did not drink any alcohol and rarely has any. He had taken annual leave from the steady job in a factory and had left a note. His wife had forgotten something so returned from work earlier than usual and found him semi-conscious.

      After treatment for his physical health he tells you that he does not regret the attempt but feels bad that he has put his children through enough seeing him in hospital. He is not religious. His wife is not very supportive of him and thinks he is 'attention-seeking'. He has no other family or friends locally. He has struggled with symptoms of depression for a number of months and has never sought help, but otherwise is physically well.

      During your assessment, you want to ascertain any protective factors.

      Which of the following is a protective factor in this case?

      Your Answer: She has children at home

      Explanation:

      Completed suicide can be prevented by certain protective factors such as having social support, religious beliefs, having children at home, and regretting a previous attempt. It is important to note that the duration of mental illness is not a determining factor, but having a mental illness, especially depression, increases the risk. Alcohol misuse is also a risk factor, but in this scenario, the fact that the person does not drink much alcohol is not particularly protective. The individual in the scenario lacks social support and is not religious, making those options incorrect. However, having children present at home is a protective factor.

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. He appears to be in distress, shivering and writhing on the trolley. Despite previous investigations for abdominal pain, no cause has been found. The patient insists that he will harm himself unless he is given morphine for the pain. Which of the following best describes this behavior?

      Your Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Fabricating or inflating symptoms for financial benefit is known as malingering, such as an individual who feigns whiplash following a car accident in order to receive an insurance payout.

      This can be challenging as the individual may be experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid abuse. Nevertheless, among the given choices, the most suitable term to describe the situation is malingering since the individual is intentionally reporting symptoms to obtain morphine.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six months ago, but stopped taking it five days ago due to perceived lack of efficacy. He has a history of asthma but no other significant medical history. Over the past two days, he has been experiencing heightened anxiety, sweating, headaches, and a sensation of needles in his head. During the appointment, he is restless and pacing. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor`discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      Compared to other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, paroxetine has a greater likelihood of causing discontinuation symptoms.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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