00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge incontinence (UI) for the past year. She denies any stress incontinence and has been ruled out for infection. What is the initial recommended treatment for urge incontinence?

      Your Answer: Bladder training for a minimum of six weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Urge Incontinence

      Urge incontinence is a condition where urine leakage occurs involuntarily, often preceded by a sudden urge to urinate. According to NICE guidance on Urinary incontinence (CG171), women with urge incontinence or mixed incontinence should be offered bladder training as a first-line treatment for at least six weeks. This involves learning techniques to control the urge to urinate and gradually increasing the time between visits to the toilet. If bladder training is not effective, immediate release oxybutynin may be offered as an alternative treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a consultation regarding contraception after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a consultation regarding contraception after giving birth to her son via emergency caesarean section 3 weeks ago. She is eager to start contraception as soon as possible.

      She is currently breastfeeding and supplementing with formula at night. She has previously used the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) without any issues and is willing to resume it.

      What is the most suitable initial contraception option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Restart combined oral contraceptive pill in 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Offer the progestogen-only implant

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate management option for this patient is to offer the progestogen-only implant, as it can be safely inserted immediately after delivery and provides a long-term contraception option. Advising her that she doesn’t require contraception is not appropriate, as she is using a top-up formula and not exclusively breastfeeding. Offering the Mirena coil or restarting the combined oral contraceptive pill immediately are also not appropriate options, as they have specific timing requirements and potential risks for postpartum women.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      70.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man with oesophageal cancer is having difficulties with taking regular oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with oesophageal cancer is having difficulties with taking regular oral morphine medications. After consulting with the oncology team, it is decided to switch him to transdermal fentanyl patches. He is currently taking 50 mg twice daily of modified-release oral morphine which has been effectively managing his pain. You prescribe a fentanyl '25' patch which provides the same level of pain relief. What instructions do you give the patient when starting to use the patches?

      Your Answer: Leave a 24 hour washout period and start the patch 24 hours after the last oral morphine dose

      Correct Answer: Continue to use the oral modified-release morphine for 72 hours following patch initiation

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Drug Delivery in Palliative Care

      Drug delivery is a crucial aspect to consider in palliative care, as patients may have difficulties with certain formulations or preparations. For instance, some patients may have trouble swallowing medication due to dysphagia, while others may be intolerant to specific preparations. In such cases, transdermal fentanyl and buprenorphine can be used as alternatives.

      However, it’s important to note that transdermal preparations may not be suitable for patients who require treatment for acute pain or those with variable pain relief needs. This is because the route of administration affects the pharmacokinetics, resulting in a delay in achieving a steady state.

      When switching from oral morphine preparations to transdermal fentanyl, the British National Formulary (BNF) provides a section on equivalent doses. For example, 60 mg daily of oral morphine equates to the fentanyl ’25’ patch. However, if the opioid problem is hyperalgesia, it’s recommended to cut the dose of the new opioid by one quarter to one half of the equivalent dose.

      It’s essential to consult the palliative care section in the BNF for further details on other dose equivalencies. Fentanyl patches should be applied every 72 hours, and patients may require extra analgesia for up to 24 hours after the patch is started due to its slow onset of action. Doses of the patch can be adjusted at 72-hour intervals.

      If a patient is taking a long-acting 12-hourly morphine, the patch should be applied when the last dose is given. On the other hand, if a patient is taking a short-acting morphine, it should be continued four hourly for the first 12 hours of patch use. By considering these drug delivery factors, healthcare professionals can provide effective pain relief for patients in palliative care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      121.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents to his General Practitioner and is found to have familial hypercholesterolaemia. He is a non-smoker and is normotensive. He is given lifestyle and dietary advice and prescribed a high-intensity statin. His lipid results are reviewed after two months.
      Investigations before and after being on a maximum dose of the statin:
      Investigation Result Result after two months Normal value
      Cholesterol concentration 10.2mmol/l 6.8 mmol/l <5.1 mmol/l
      LDL-cholesterol 8.1 mmol/l 5.3 mmol/l <3.1 mmol/l
      HDL-cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l 1.3 mmol/l >1.1 mmol/l
      Fasting triglycerides 1.9 mmol/l 1.0 mmol/l <1.6 mmol/l
      Which of the following is the single most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer: Adding a fibrate to his medication

      Correct Answer: Adding ezetimibe to his medication

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia

      Primary hypercholesterolaemia requires appropriate treatment to reduce LDL-cholesterol levels. In this case, the patient’s LDL-cholesterol reduction is only 35%, which is below the recommended reduction of >40% with the statin alone. Therefore, adding ezetimibe, an inhibitor of cholesterol absorption from the gut, is the treatment of choice. This is the only further primary care intervention before specialist intervention is required.

      Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      107.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old man presents with flashing lights in his right eye followed by...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents with flashing lights in his right eye followed by a curtain descending across his vision.
      Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is correct?.

      Your Answer: On examination there is a stormy sunset appearance with venous engorgement and large flame haemorrhages in the affected eye

      Correct Answer: It may be a sign of malignant melanoma

      Explanation:

      Retinal Detachment: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Retinal detachment is a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. It occurs when the retina, the thin layer of tissue at the back of the eye responsible for transmitting visual information to the brain, separates from its underlying support tissue. Here are some important facts about retinal detachment:

      Causes: Retinal detachment can result from a variety of factors, including a posterior vitreous detachment, myopia, severe acute hypertension, inflammation, or neoplastic effusions.

      Symptoms: Symptoms of retinal detachment include sudden onset of floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain-like shadow over the visual field. However, some patients may not experience any symptoms at all.

      Treatment: Retinal tears and holes are treated with cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation. Most actual detachments require surgery to flatten the retina. Patients who do not have immediate surgery may have strict bedrest and to hold the head in a particular position to prevent progression of the detachment. The retina is successfully reattached in around 85% of cases. In cases where the macula is not involved, 90% of patients have 20/40 vision or better after reattachment surgery.

      Understanding Retinal Detachment: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment three months after being...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment three months after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. He has a BMI of 31 kg/m2 and has lost 6 kg since his diagnosis. However, his morning blood sugars are still elevated at 10 mmol/l and his HbA1c level is 72 mmol/mol. He also has hypertension and is taking lisinopril, and his triglycerides are high while his HDL cholesterol is low. What would be the best initial therapy option for this patient's diabetes? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Initial Therapy for Type 2 Diabetes: Metformin

      Metformin is the first-line drug of choice for the treatment of type 2 diabetes, particularly in overweight and obese individuals with normal kidney function. It is recommended to start with a dose of 500 mg per day and gradually increase to a total daily dose of 1.5-2 g (divided into morning and evening doses) over a few weeks.

      The UKPDS study showed that metformin was superior to sulfonylurea or insulin in reducing macrovascular risk, with a statistically significant risk reduction for myocardial infarction compared to conventional therapy. Metformin works as a partial insulin sensitiser, reducing hepatic glucose output and having anti-inflammatory effects, particularly on plasminogen-activator inhibitor 1 (PAI-1), which is associated with an increased tendency to blood clotting and may increase vascular risk.

      While sulfonylureas like gliclazide can be an option if metformin is contraindicated or as a potential adjunct to metformin if diabetic control is not adequate, they have a higher risk of hypoglycaemia. Acarbose delays the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose, while glibenclamide is a long-acting sulfonylurea that is more likely to cause hypoglycaemia than other sulfonylureas. Pioglitazone is an alternative to metformin if the latter is contraindicated or as a potential adjunct to metformin if diabetic control is not adequate, reducing peripheral insulin resistance and blood glucose concentration.

      In summary, metformin is the best initial therapy for type 2 diabetes, with other options available if metformin is contraindicated or if diabetic control is not adequate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      130.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment. During the consultation, she is advised to visit her GP for vaccination but cannot recall which vaccines were recommended. She has received all her childhood and school immunizations but has not had any vaccinations since becoming pregnant.

      What vaccines should be offered to this patient?

      Your Answer: influenza vaccine

      Correct Answer: Pertussis and influenza vaccine

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should receive both influenza and pertussis vaccines. The pertussis vaccine is typically part of the diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccination and is important for preventing severe illness and death in newborns. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.

      A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is...

    Incorrect

    • Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is essential.
      Select from the list the single elderly patient who satisfies the criteria for urgent referral (2-week rule).

      Your Answer: A 40-year-old multiparous woman who has intermittent bright red rectal bleeding for 12 months with blood on the toilet paper

      Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man who has had loose stools for 6 weeks but no rectal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients over 50 years old with unexplained rectal bleeding or over 60 years old with a change in bowel habit should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks for suspected colorectal cancer. However, other conditions can also cause similar symptoms, and differential diagnosis is important to ensure appropriate management.

      Rectal Bleeding in a Multiparous Woman

      Rectal bleeding is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions, including haemorrhoids. In a 40-year-old multiparous woman, routine referral would be appropriate if piles could not be identified.

      Change in Bowel Habit in a 60-Year-Old Man

      A change in bowel habit in a 60-year-old man is more likely to be caused by an acute infection, such as enterohaemorrhagic E. coli or Shigella. Investigations should be directed to finding the cause.

      Constipation in an 80-Year-Old Woman

      Constipation is a common symptom in the elderly, and dietary factors may play a role. In an 80-year-old woman with intermittent constipation and no teeth, the symptom is likely to be longstanding and not indicative of colorectal cancer.

      Anal Fissure in a 70-Year-Old Man

      Anal fissure is a possible cause of rectal bleeding in a 70-year-old man. Further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.

      Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      341.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman has advanced breast cancer with bone metastases. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has advanced breast cancer with bone metastases. She is currently taking co-codamol 30/500 two tablets six hourly and ibuprofen 400 mg three times a day. Despite this, she is still struggling with pain.
      What is the most appropriate next course of action? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Diamorphine by subcutaneous infusion

      Correct Answer: Modified-release morphine and an oral solution of morphine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Opioid Analgesic for Pain Management: A Guide

      When codeine is no longer effective in controlling pain, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends prescribing morphine. To ensure optimal pain relief, it is important to convert the patient’s current codeine dose to an equivalent dose of morphine and prescribe it as a modified-release preparation. However, an immediate-release preparation of morphine should also be prescribed for breakthrough pain.

      While transdermal fentanyl can be useful in certain situations, it takes up to 72 hours to reach a steady state, making it difficult to titrate doses as needed. Subcutaneous analgesia with diamorphine is not necessary in this scenario, as the patient doesn’t exhibit any signs of drowsiness or difficulty swallowing.

      For acute pain relief, oxycodone immediate-release tablets can be prescribed as needed. However, for regular use, a modified-release preparation of oxycodone would be more appropriate. By carefully considering the patient’s needs and the characteristics of each opioid analgesic, healthcare providers can choose the most effective and safe option for pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      186.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old retired teacher who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old retired teacher who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung cancer. Some ten years ago, he was treated with surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy for bladder cancer. His brother had oesophageal cancer, aged 66, and another brother had prostate cancer in his 70s. His 55-year-old daughter was recently diagnosed with breast cancer.
      What is the most likely explanation for the cancers in this patient?

      Your Answer: A hereditary cancer predisposition syndrome

      Correct Answer: Exposure to tobacco smoke

      Explanation:

      Possible causes of multiple malignancies

      Exposure to tobacco smoke and other factors that increase cancer risk

      It is not uncommon for a person to develop more than one cancer in their lifetime. In this case, the most likely explanation is exposure to tobacco smoke, which is a known carcinogen for both lung and bladder cancer. Other factors that can increase cancer risk include exposure to asbestos, aniline dyes, and certain chemicals, as well as a hereditary cancer predisposition syndrome. However, there is no evidence of these factors in this case, except for a family history of common cancers. It is also possible, although less likely, that the second tumor is a late complication of chemotherapy, which has been linked to some types of secondary cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      599.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old Greek man is found to have a mild microcytic anaemia on...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old Greek man is found to have a mild microcytic anaemia on routine screening. His red cells have low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Serum ferritin is normal. He has no symptoms.
      What is the most appropriate next management step?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin Electrophoresis: Diagnosis of Thalassaemia Minor

      Thalassaemia is an autosomal-recessive inherited disorder that affects globin chain production, resulting in decreased or absent α or β chains of the normal adult haemoglobin molecule. Homozygous states result in thalassaemia major, which can be fatal. Inheritance of only one affected gene results in a carrier state, called thalassaemia minor or a thalassaemia trait.

      A patient’s ethnic origin and blood picture can help diagnose thalassaemia minor, which is characterized by mild or absent anaemia, hypochromic and microcytic red cells with low MCV and MCH, and normal serum ferritin. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is a useful diagnostic tool that reveals haemoglobin types and their amounts. In people with β-thalassemia, there is reduced or absent production of β-globin chains, resulting in reduced or absent HbA, elevated levels of HbA2, and increased HbF (fetal haemoglobin).

      Other diagnostic tests, such as a barium enema, iron therapy, labelled red-cell scan, and upper and/or lower gastrointestinal endoscopy, are not indicated for thalassaemia minor unless there are coexisting conditions. Haemoglobin electrophoresis remains the gold standard for diagnosing thalassaemia minor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      200.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The School Principal is worried that the school is not fully compliant with...

    Incorrect

    • The School Principal is worried that the school is not fully compliant with the Child Protection Act. Which organization must the school register with?

      Your Answer: Independent NHS Data Monitoring Office

      Correct Answer: Information Commissioner's Office

      Explanation:

      Registration with the Information Commissioner’s Office is mandatory for all entities, such as a GP surgery, that handle personal information, in accordance with the Data Protection Act of 1998.

      Understanding the Data Protection Act

      The Data Protection Act is a crucial piece of legislation that governs the protection of personal data in the UK. It applies to both manual and computerised records and outlines eight main principles that entities must follow. These principles include using data for its intended purpose, obtaining consent before disclosing data to other parties, allowing individuals access to their personal information, keeping data up-to-date and secure, and correcting any factual errors.

      In 2018, the Data Protection Act was updated to include new provisions such as the right to erasure, exemptions, and regulation in conjunction with the GDPR. It is important for all entities that process personal information to register with the Information Commissioner’s Office and implement adequate security measures to protect sensitive data. By following the principles outlined in the Data Protection Act, entities can ensure that they are handling personal information in a responsible and ethical manner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      118.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrizinamide) for pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient also takes sertraline for a history of depression. The patient reports a decline in vision, specifically a decrease in color vibrancy. Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      139.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You refer a 50-year-old patient with suspected dementia to the Memory clinic after...

    Correct

    • You refer a 50-year-old patient with suspected dementia to the Memory clinic after a mini-mental state exam indicates mild cognitive impairment. A dementia blood screen performed by yourself is normal. What is the most appropriate role of neuroimaging in the evaluation of patients with suspected dementia?

      Your Answer: Neuroimaging is required in all cases

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE guidelines, neuroimaging is necessary for the diagnosis of dementia. Structural imaging, such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scanning, should be used to rule out other cerebral pathologies and to aid in determining the subtype diagnosis. MRI is preferred for early diagnosis and detecting subcortical vascular changes. However, in cases where the diagnosis is already clear in individuals with moderate to severe dementia, imaging may not be necessary. It is important to seek specialist advice when interpreting scans in individuals with learning disabilities.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 37-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was previously seen by a neurologist three months ago due to regular and debilitating headaches. The pain was short-lasting (lasting only a few minutes) and located behind her right eye. She experienced right-sided tearing and nasal congestion, but no sensitivity to light. The attacks occurred over thirty times and could happen up to eight times a day. The neurologist prescribed indomethacin, which has successfully stopped the attacks. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paroxysmal hemicrania

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal hemicrania can be effectively treated with indomethacin, with complete responsiveness.

      The symptoms of paroxysmal hemicrania are typical, and it is more prevalent in women. However, idiopathic intracranial hypertension is more common in overweight women and usually causes bilateral symptoms that worsen when lying flat. Treatment for this condition typically involves lumbar puncture or acetazolamide, rather than indomethacin.

      Migraines typically last for several hours and are accompanied by photophobia and nausea.

      Sinus-related headaches cause pain around the sinuses and are usually associated with a history of sinusitis. These headaches tend to persist while the sinusitis is present, rather than occurring as multiple discrete episodes throughout the day.

      Tension headaches cause pressure symptoms on both sides of the forehead and are often triggered by stress, fatigue, and dehydration.

      Understanding Paroxysmal Hemicrania

      Paroxysmal hemicrania (PH) is a type of headache that is characterized by severe, one-sided pain in the orbital, supraorbital, or temporal region. These attacks are often accompanied by autonomic symptoms and typically last for less than 30 minutes. PH can occur multiple times a day and is classified as a trigeminal autonomic cephalgia, a group of disorders that also includes cluster headaches. However, unlike cluster headaches, PH can be effectively treated with indomethacin.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PH is important for individuals who experience frequent headaches. By seeking medical attention and receiving a proper diagnosis, individuals with PH can receive the appropriate treatment and find relief from their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      145.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 9-year-old girl presents with her mother. She has an itchy scalp and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with her mother. She has an itchy scalp and you diagnose head lice. You recommend malathion - the mother inquires about potential side effects. What is a typical side effect of malathion?

      Your Answer: Skin irritation

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Malathion and Head Lice Treatment

      Malathion, a common treatment for head lice, can cause skin irritation, especially if alcoholic lotions are used instead of aqueous solutions in those with eczema. If the scalp itself is eczematous or secondarily infected, irritation is more likely, which may affect compliance with the treatment regimen. However, in the author’s experience as a seasoned GP, the main issue with lotions in the treatment of head lice is their ineffectiveness.

      Parents should be advised to regularly inspect their child’s hair for eggs and live lice, and regular wet combing can be effective. Keeping the hair short, where practical, can also help. Unfortunately, children are often at the mercy of their classmates’ diligence, as re-infection is common. Therefore, it is important for parents to be vigilant and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of head lice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - If a 6-year-old boy is diagnosed with absence seizures, what is the likelihood...

    Correct

    • If a 6-year-old boy is diagnosed with absence seizures, what is the likelihood that he will become seizure-free by the time he turns 17?

      Your Answer: 90-95%

      Explanation:

      Absence seizures have a favorable prognosis.

      Absence seizures, also known as petit mal, are a type of epilepsy that is commonly observed in children. This form of generalised epilepsy typically affects children between the ages of 3-10 years old, with girls being twice as likely to be affected as boys. Absence seizures are characterised by brief episodes that last only a few seconds and are followed by a quick recovery. These seizures may be triggered by hyperventilation or stress, and the child is usually unaware of the seizure. They may occur multiple times a day and are identified by a bilateral, symmetrical 3Hz spike and wave pattern on an EEG.

      The first-line treatment for absence seizures includes sodium valproate and ethosuximide. The prognosis for this condition is generally good, with 90-95% of affected individuals becoming seizure-free during adolescence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A mother brings her two-year-old daughter in to the General Practice Surgery for...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her two-year-old daughter in to the General Practice Surgery for review, as she is concerned about her frequent ear and chest infections. She was born full term with no complications. Her mother reports that she tried to breastfeed but ended up converting to formula as she was failing to thrive, and she still often brings food up through her nose.
      On examination, she has low-set ears, hypertelorism (wide-set eyes) and hooded eyelids. She makes some babbling noises but doesn't say any words yet. A set of blood tests reveal low calcium. There is no family history of recurrent infections.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between immunodeficiency disorders in a pediatric patient

      This patient presents with symptoms of immunodeficiency, including hypocalcaemia, developmental delay, facial dysmorphism, and feeding difficulties. The differential diagnosis includes DiGeorge syndrome, selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency, Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia, common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), and physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a genetic syndrome that commonly presents with mild immunodeficiency due to reduced thymus function or absence of a thymus. Facial dysmorphism, such as low-set ears, hypertelorism, and hooded eyelids, is also common.

      Selective IgA deficiency is the most common primary antibody deficiency and may be associated with autoimmune disease or allergies. It is not associated with characteristic facies or low calcium.

      Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia is an X-linked immunodeficiency that presents with severe respiratory tract infections in male infants. It is unlikely in this case as the patient is female with a different clinical picture.

      CVID is the most common primary immunodeficiency in adults and presents with recurrent bacterial infections. It is not associated with the characteristic facies described here or developmental delay, feeding difficulties, or hypocalcaemia.

      Physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy is a common phenomenon where babies gradually lose their mother’s immunoglobulin G and replace it with their own. It is not associated with any additional facial features, blood abnormalities, or developmental or feeding delay.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation and testing are necessary to differentiate between these immunodeficiency disorders in this pediatric patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of intermittent shortness of breath. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of intermittent shortness of breath. He reports experiencing wheezing and coughing while on the job. The possibility of occupational asthma is being considered. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this condition?

      Your Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old gentleman presents to you with a recent diagnosis of mild obstructive...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old gentleman presents to you with a recent diagnosis of mild obstructive sleep apnoea (AHI<15). He holds a group 1 driving licence and is seeking advice regarding driving. Upon reviewing the specialist's letter, you note that the patient has been prescribed night time continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) ventilation. What recommendations should you provide to the patient regarding driving?

      Your Answer: He can only drive once satisfactory control of his symptoms has been attained

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that is often overlooked, but it can have serious consequences for driving safety. Excessive daytime sleepiness caused by OSA has been linked to numerous road traffic accidents. Both group 1 and group 2 license holders have restrictions on driving if OSA continues to cause excessive awake time sleepiness. For group 1 drivers, they can resume driving once their symptoms are under control.

      The main issue is not treatment compliance, but rather the control of symptoms to eliminate excessive awake time sleepiness. Group 1 license holders do not require specialist approval to drive, and the method of treatment is not a determining factor. The DVLA uses the Apnea Hypopnea Index (AHI) to assess OSA, which may be unfamiliar to some. However, it is important to be familiar with it and interpret the latest DVLA guidance accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for a check-up. She is anxious about his flat feet and is worried that he may experience foot pain and gait problems in the future. During the examination, the child walks normally, but an absent medial arch of the feet and genu valgum are observed when he stands still.

      What recommendations should be provided to the mother?

      Your Answer: Abnormal findings at this age, refer for orthopaedic assessment

      Correct Answer: Common findings at this age, reassure

      Explanation:

      Flat feet (pes planus) and ‘knock knees’ (genu valgum) are common in children of this age and typically resolve on their own between the ages of 4-8 years. Therefore, reassurance should be given to the mother and orthopaedic or podiatry assessment is not necessarily required. However, if the parents are highly anxious, a paediatrician can be consulted for further reassurance. Additionally, physiotherapy is not necessary as there is no significant musculoskeletal abnormality to correct.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year old male presented to the emergency department with a 4 month...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old male presented to the emergency department with a 4 month history of bilateral paraesthesias and twitching in his thumb, first finger, and lateral forearm. He reported no history of trauma. An MRI scan of his spine showed cervical canal stenosis with mild cord compression. He was discharged and instructed to follow up with his primary care physician. What is the most suitable initial step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to spinal surgery services

      Explanation:

      Patients initially diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome who later underwent surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy should be managed by specialist spinal services, such as neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery. Decompressive surgery is the primary treatment option and has been shown to halt disease progression. While physiotherapy and analgesia may be used alongside surgical intervention, they do not replace the need for surgical opinion. Nerve root injections are not effective in managing this condition. A study by Behrbalk et al. (2013) highlights the importance of timely diagnosis by primary care physicians.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.

    The neurologist decides to observe him...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.

      The neurologist decides to observe him off treatment but two months later he has another seizure.

      What percentage of people who have two seizures will go on to have a third if they do not receive any treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Likelihood of Successive Seizures

      Once a person experiences a second seizure, there is a high probability that they will have a third event, with around 75% of untreated individuals experiencing this. As a result, it is crucial to consider treatment options at this stage. This question aims to test a candidate’s understanding of the likelihood of successive seizures by providing broad ranges of percentages. This knowledge is essential for GPs who often counsel patients on their management and need to make informed decisions about whether to escalate treatment based on the likelihood of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options

      Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.

      First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.

      Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.

      Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine for her consistently high blood pressure. She appears distressed and informs you that she is already taking 10 mg of ramipril daily. You discontinue nifedipine and record her intolerance in her medical history. Upon further inquiry, you discover that she had previously experienced leg swelling with amlodipine and a rash with verapamil. Unfortunately, her blood pressure rises again after discontinuing amlodipine. What alternative medication can be prescribed next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and cannot tolerate calcium channel blockers, the next line of therapy is a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide. It is important to note that drug intolerance refers to the inability to tolerate adverse effects of a medication, while tolerance refers to the ability to tolerate adverse effects and continue taking the medication. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line intervention depending on the patient’s potassium levels, but they are no longer part of initial hypertension management. Candesartan should not be co-prescribed with an ACE inhibitor like ramipril unless directed by a specialist. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is also not recommended as the patient has been found to be intolerant to this class of medication.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman has a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is increasingly distressed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is increasingly distressed by the malodorous discharge from the affected breast, which is causing considerable social embarrassment.

      From the list below, choose the single treatment which would help alleviate this symptom.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allevyn dressings

      Explanation:

      Managing Foul Odors in Palliative Care

      In palliative care, managing foul odors is an important aspect of providing comfort to patients. One approach is to use metronidazole, which can improve smells caused by anaerobic organisms that infect fungating tumors. Another option is to use charcoal dressings, which absorb malodorous substances. It is recommended to familiarize oneself with the British National Formulary (BNF) section on prescribing in palliative care, as it contains valuable information that is often tested in exams. By utilizing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate unpleasant odors and improve the quality of life for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit....

    Incorrect

    • Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: What percentage of patients taking ACE inhibitors have their U&E checked in a year?

      Explanation:

      Clinical Care Audit

      A clinical care audit is a process that evaluates the performance of healthcare providers against specific guidelines on therapy. The aim is to determine if the care provided meets a pre-specified standard. For instance, a typical audit may assess if all patients taking ACE inhibitors have had at least a yearly U&E. The standard is set high, at around 90%+, and if not met, measures are implemented to improve performance. These measures may include adding reminders to GP prescription systems, education sessions on the use of ACE inhibitors, and more.

      Closing the loop is an essential part of the audit process. This involves reassessing the percentage of clinical episodes that meet the audit standard to determine if improvements have been made. By conducting clinical care audits, healthcare providers can identify areas for improvement and implement measures to enhance the quality of care provided to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents for follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents for follow-up. He underwent ileostomy surgery six years ago, which has been successful until recently. He is currently experiencing significant pain in the area around the stoma site. Upon examination, a deep erythematous ulcer with a ragged edge is observed, along with swollen and erythematous surrounding skin. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Pyoderma gangrenosum, which can be observed around the stoma site, is linked to inflammatory bowel disease. Surgery is not recommended as it may exacerbate the condition, and immunosuppressants are typically used for treatment. It is important to consider malignancy as a possible alternative diagnosis, and lesions should be referred to a specialist for evaluation and potential biopsy. While irritant contact dermatitis is a common occurrence, it is unlikely to result in such a profound ulcer.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.

      Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain. The pain has developed spontaneously without any apparent cause. She reports that the pain is more severe on the outer side of the hip and is particularly bothersome at night when she lies on her right side.

      Upon examination, there is a complete range of motion in the hip joint, including internal and external rotation. However, deep palpation of the lateral aspect of the right hip joint reproduces the pain.

      An x-ray of the right hip reveals the following findings:

      Right hip: Slight narrowing of the joint space, but otherwise normal appearance.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Trochanteric bursitis is now referred to as greater trochanteric pain syndrome. Although joint space narrowing is visible in the x-ray, it is a common occurrence and doesn’t necessarily indicate osteoarthritis. Additionally, the pain is palpable and the symptoms have not been present for a long period, making osteoarthritis less likely.

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can cause pain in the morning, systemic symptoms, and elevated inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is often seen in women aged 50-70 and is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and results in a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis can have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and causes pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, causing groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, with elevated ESR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 52-year-old woman complains of bothersome hot flashes and night sweats. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman complains of bothersome hot flashes and night sweats. She had her last menstrual period 10 months ago and has no significant medical history. Which of the following treatment options is not recommended for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen (oral)

      Explanation:

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.

      HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.

      Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/4) 25%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Consulting In General Practice (1/1) 100%
Passmed