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  • Question 1 - A 5-year-old child with a suspected squint is referred to an ophthalmologist by...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old child with a suspected squint is referred to an ophthalmologist by her General Practitioner. The ophthalmologist makes a diagnosis of amblyopia (lazy eye) and suggests occlusion therapy.
      What is occlusion therapy and how is it used to treat amblyopia in a 5-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Covering the normal eye with a patch

      Explanation:

      Different Treatment Options for Amblyopia and Squint

      Amblyopia and squint are two common eye conditions that can affect children. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to manage these conditions. Here are some of the most common treatments:

      1. Occlusion therapy: This involves covering either the normal or abnormal eye with a patch to force the child to use the other eye. This helps to strengthen the muscles in the weaker eye and improve vision.

      2. Penalisation therapy: If a child is non-compliant with occlusion therapy, atropine drops can be used in the normal eye to blur vision. This forces the child to use the weaker eye and improve its strength.

      3. Corrective glasses: Glasses can be used to correct any refractive errors that may be contributing to the squint. This can help to improve the alignment of the eyes.

      4. Surgical management: In some cases, surgery may be necessary to correct the misalignment of the eyes. This involves shortening or altering the insertion point of the extra-ocular muscles.

      By using one or a combination of these treatments, children with amblyopia and squint can improve their vision and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the eye casualty department complaining of a gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the eye casualty department complaining of a gradual decline in her vision over the past 8 years. She reports difficulty reading books due to this issue. Upon examination, a central visual impairment is observed, and the patient displays metamorphopsia when using an Amsler grid. Fundoscopy reveals small yellow deposits in the macula. What is the most suitable medical treatment for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Photodynamic therapy

      Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation

      Explanation:

      Medical treatment cannot cure dry AMD. However, administering high doses of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc can help slow down the progression of visual impairment.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of sensitivity to light...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of sensitivity to light and a red right eye that began an hour ago. Upon examination, the right eye is painful, red, and has an irregularly-shaped pupil, while the left eye appears normal. The patient is referred to ophthalmology for further evaluation. What is the probable medical treatment that the patient received?

      Your Answer: Steroid and pilocarpine drops

      Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic drops

      Explanation:

      The most common treatment for anterior uveitis involves using a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops. This is because the symptoms of photophobia and a small, irregularly-shaped pupil are indicative of anterior uveitis. Steroids are administered to reduce inflammation, while cycloplegics such as atropine or cyclopentolate are used to dilate the pupil and alleviate pain and sensitivity to light. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that is typically used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis without the need for steroids. Acetazolamide, on the other hand, is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to manage acute angle-closure glaucoma. Pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist, is used to treat primary open-angle glaucoma and acute closed angle glaucoma.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      46.4
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  • Question 4 - A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day history of left-sided headache, retro-orbital pain, and dull facial pain on the left side. He has a medical history of hypertension and migraine and is currently taking ramipril 2.5mg. Upon examination, he displays partial ptosis and enophthalmos of the left eye, with anisocoria and miosis of the same eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and the rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable, with normal sweating bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Syringomyelia

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition that typically presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the same side of the body. The degree of anhidrosis can help determine the location of the lesion along the sympathetic pathway. In cases where anhidrosis is absent, it may indicate a postganglionic lesion, such as in the case of carotid artery dissection. This condition can cause a partial Horner’s syndrome with ptosis and miosis, but without anhidrosis. While this is a rare presentation of carotid artery dissection, it is important to recognize to prevent further neurological complications, such as an ischemic stroke. Preganglionic lesions, such as a cervical rib or Pancoast tumor, can cause anhidrosis of just the face, while central lesions, such as a stroke or syringomyelia, can cause anhidrosis of the head, arm, and trunk in addition to ptosis and miosis.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      331.7
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  • Question 5 - Which one of the following statements regarding macular degeneration is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding macular degeneration is true?

      Your Answer: Wet macular degeneration carries the worst prognosis

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.1
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  • Question 6 - A parent brings her daughter in for surgery suspecting a squint. She believes...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings her daughter in for surgery suspecting a squint. She believes her left eye is 'turned inwards'. You conduct a cover test to gather more information. What result would indicate a left esotropia?

      Your Answer: On covering the right eye the left eye moves medially to take up fixation

      Correct Answer: On covering the left eye the right eye moves laterally to take up fixation

      Explanation:

      Squints can be categorized based on the direction in which the eye deviates. If the eye turns towards the nose, it is called esotropia. If it turns towards the temporal side, it is called exotropia. If it turns upwards, it is called hypertropia, and if it turns downwards, it is called hypotropia. For instance, when the left eye is covered, the right eye may move laterally from its esotropic position towards the center to focus on an object.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      154.1
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man presents for a routine optometry exam to assess his overall...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents for a routine optometry exam to assess his overall eye health. He has a medical history of diabetes but has not been consistent with his medication and rarely monitors his blood sugar levels. During the fundoscopy, diffuse neovascularization and cotton wool spots were observed. What is the recommended treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors only

      Correct Answer: Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors + pan-retinal photocoagulation laser

      Explanation:

      The treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy may involve the use of intravitreal VEGF inhibitors in combination with panretinal laser photocoagulation.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      40.1
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  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old man visited his GP complaining of sudden, painless vision loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visited his GP complaining of sudden, painless vision loss in his right eye that occurred 2 hours ago. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes requiring insulin, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Upon further inquiry, he mentioned experiencing brief flashes of light before a dense shadow that began in the periphery and moved towards the center. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition that can cause a sudden and painless loss of vision. It is characterized by a dense shadow that starts in the peripheral vision and gradually moves towards the center, along with increased floaters and flashes of light.

      Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is a condition where the blood flow to the retina of one eye is blocked, resulting in sudden loss of vision in that eye. This is usually caused by an embolus and does not typically present with floaters, flashing lights, or dense shadows.

      Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion can cause sudden vision loss in one eye, but it is often described as blurry or distorted vision rather than the symptoms seen in retinal detachment.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
      On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
      Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 bpm
      Respiratory rate 12
      Temperature 36.7 °C
      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study

      Upon examination of a patient with eye symptoms, it was determined that the presentation pointed towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This was due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      57.8
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old patient complains of a painful lump on their eyelid. The lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient complains of a painful lump on their eyelid. The lump has been present for about 3 days and is gradually increasing in size. Upon examination, a tender, smooth lump measuring approximately 3 mm in diameter is observed, originating from the outer edge of the left upper eyelid. There is no redness in the eye, no orbital or periorbital erythema, and normal visual acuity.

      What would be the most suitable approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient to Eye Casualty for incision and drainage

      Correct Answer: Provide advice on application of hot compresses and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Stye or Hordeolum: Hot Compresses and Simple Analgesia

      A stye or hordeolum is a common condition that presents as an acute and painful swelling of the eyelid, usually around a single eyelash follicle. While it does not affect visual acuity, it can make the eye watery. The first-line management for a stye is the application of warm compresses a few times a day, which can help the stye resolve or drain. Incision and drainage is rarely used and should only be considered if symptoms do not resolve and needs to be performed by an experienced individual in the hospital setting/Eye Casualty. There is no indication to prescribe systemic antibiotics, as the patient is well and there are no signs of cellulitis over the eyelid. Topical antibiotics are not recommended in the absence of conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old female visits her doctor with a vesicular rash on the right-side...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old female visits her doctor with a vesicular rash on the right-side of her face and tip of her nose, and is diagnosed with herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO). What is the most probable complication for this patient?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson’s sign, which is characterized by vesicles that spread to the tip of the nose, is a strong indicator of shingles-related ocular involvement. As a result, the patient is at risk of developing anterior uveitis.
      Treatment for herpes zoster ophthalmicus typically involves the use of antivirals and/or steroids. Given the likelihood of ocular involvement in this case, an urgent ophthalmology review is necessary.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      85.4
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  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of painful eye movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of painful eye movements and swelling in his left eye. He has a history of chronic sinusitis but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, his left eye is completely swollen shut with significant eyelid swelling and redness that extends from his cheekbone to his eyebrow. When the eye is opened manually, there is chemosis. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical chloramphenicol

      Correct Answer: Intravenous antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the risk of intracranial spread and cavernous sinus thrombosis. This patient’s condition requires urgent treatment with IV antibiotics to prevent further complications and preserve their vision. Orbital cellulitis is classified according to Chandler’s classification, with preseptal cellulitis being the mildest form and cavernous sinus thrombosis being the most severe. Signs of orbital cellulitis include painful and restricted eye movements, reduced visual acuity and fields, abnormal pupillary responses, and the presence of chemosis and proptosis. IV antibiotics are the primary treatment for orbital cellulitis, and if there is evidence of intracranial spread or abscess, external drainage or neurosurgical intervention may be necessary. While a CT head is important to assess the extent of spread, treatment with antibiotics should not be delayed. Ophthalmology review is also crucial in managing orbital cellulitis, and patients are typically managed jointly by ENT and ophthalmology. Oral antibiotics are not appropriate for this infection, and IV administration is recommended.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      199.1
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  • Question 13 - A 7-year-old boy comes to your clinic with his mother. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to your clinic with his mother. He reports that for the past year, he has been experiencing intermittent episodes of red, itchy eyelids. These episodes usually resolve on their own, but the current flare has been ongoing for over a month. The boy has not experienced any changes in his vision.

      During the examination, the boy is cheerful and cooperative. His eyelids appear slightly red, and there is some foamy discharge on the lid margins with matting of the eyelashes. On the superior lid of his right eye, there is a small, tender, red lump in the medial canthus. However, his eye is not painful or red, and he has no fever.

      What is the best initial management option for this 7-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: Same-day referral to an ophthalmologist

      Correct Answer: Hot compresses to both eyes

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for blepharitis involves the use of hot compresses. Blepharitis is a common inflammatory condition that affects the margins of the eyelids. Symptoms of this condition include burning, itching, and crusting of the eyelids, which are often worse in the mornings and aggravated by makeup and wind. Both eyelids are typically affected, and patients may experience recurrent hordeolum or styes, as well as intolerance to contact lenses. While blepharitis cannot be cured, hot compresses and eyelid hygiene measures should be used twice daily to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses. Oral antibiotics are only used as a secondary option for patients who have not responded to hygiene measures and who have meibomian gland dysfunction and rosacea. If hygiene measures are ineffective, topical antibiotics like chloramphenicol may be prescribed. However, topical steroids such as dexamethasone drops are not recommended for the treatment of blepharitis.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      192.5
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of blurred vision in...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of blurred vision in her right eye for the past few months. She reports that straight lines appear crooked or wavy, but only in the center of her right visual field. She has never used glasses or contact lenses. During the examination, a central scotoma is observed in the right eye.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Age related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Vision can be affected by various eye disorders, with macular degeneration causing loss of central field and primary open-angle glaucoma causing loss of peripheral field.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      69.4
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  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice Clinic, reporting difficulty seeing distant objects. He is interested in the underlying pathophysiology of his condition as he is passionate about science. What is the most appropriate explanation for the pathophysiology of his myopia?

      Your Answer: Reduced axial length of the eye, meaning the focal point is posterior to the retina

      Correct Answer: Increased axial length of the eye, meaning the focal point is anterior to the retina

      Explanation:

      Understanding Refractive Errors: Causes and Effects

      Refractive errors are common vision problems that occur when the shape of the eye prevents light from focusing properly on the retina. This can result in blurry vision at various distances. Here are some common types of refractive errors and their effects:

      Myopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is increased, causing the focal point to be anterior to the retina. Myopia gives clear close vision but blurry far vision.

      Hyperopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is reduced, causing the focal point to be posterior to the retina. Hyperopia results in blurry close vision but clear far vision.

      Astigmatism: This occurs when the cornea has an abnormal curvature, resulting in two or more focal points that can be anterior and/or posterior to the retina. Astigmatism hinders refraction and leads to blurred vision at all distances.

      Understanding the causes and effects of refractive errors can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 16 - A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a severe headache...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a severe headache that is concentrated on the right side, retro-orbitally. He reports a decrease in visual acuity in his right eye and says that it has been excessively tearing. Upon examination of the right eye, the conjunctiva appears red and the cornea looks hazy. The left pupil reacts normally to light, but the right pupil is non-reactive.
      What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the initial management plan?

      Your Answer: Direct parasympathomimetic and beta-blocker eye drops

      Explanation:

      The initial emergency medical management for acute angle-closure glaucoma often involves a combination of eye drops. The symptoms presented in this scenario, including a painful, non-reactive, and red left eye, along with corneal edema and loss of pupillary reaction to light, suggest that acute angle-closure glaucoma is the most likely diagnosis. This condition occurs when the iridocorneal angle, which is responsible for draining aqueous humor, becomes narrowed, leading to an increase in intraocular pressure. This pressure can cause optic neuropathy and vision loss.

      To manage acute angle-closure glaucoma, a combination of eye drops is used. Pilocarpine, a direct parasympathomimetic eyedrop, causes pupillary constriction, widening the iridocorneal angle and allowing for drainage of aqueous humor. Timolol, a beta-blocker eye drop, reduces the production of aqueous humor. Together, these two actions work to reduce intraocular pressure. It is not recommended to use beta-blocker eye drops alone, and an additional drug with a different mechanism of action is beneficial in managing acute glaucoma.

      Using beta-agonist medications would increase the production of aqueous humor, exacerbating acute glaucoma. A sympathomimetic agent would cause pupillary dilation, further narrowing the iridocorneal angle and worsening the condition. High flow oxygen is used to manage cluster headaches, but the lack of pupillary reactivity, corneal edema, and visual loss in this scenario suggest that acute angle-closure glaucoma is the primary diagnosis.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old male visits his eye doctor for evaluation. His brother has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male visits his eye doctor for evaluation. His brother has been diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma, and he is worried that he may also have the same condition as his eyesight is deteriorating. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and prostate cancer.
      What signs or symptoms would indicate a diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma in this patient?

      Your Answer: Red desaturation

      Correct Answer: Myopia

      Explanation:

      Myopia is commonly associated with primary open-angle glaucoma, while hypermetropia is associated with acute angle closure glaucoma. Astigmatism, which is characterized by a rugby ball-shaped cornea, can be linked to either myopia or hypermetropia. Central scotoma, a blurred vision point in the center of the visual field, is often observed in optic nerve glioma, multiple sclerosis, or alcohol-induced ophthalmic disease. Glaucoma, on the other hand, is more likely to cause peripheral or off-center scotoma.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man comes to the eye clinic complaining of bilateral redness around...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the eye clinic complaining of bilateral redness around the corneal limbus. He has been experiencing this for one day and is in a lot of pain, particularly when reading the newspaper. He also reports sensitivity to light and blurry vision. Additionally, he has a headache that is affecting his entire head and back pain that is more severe in the morning but improves throughout the day.

      During the examination, the patient's pupils are fixed and small, with an oval shape. There is no hypopyon, but his eyes are very watery.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: High flow oxygen and sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops. This patient exhibits typical symptoms of anterior uveitis, which may be caused by a systemic condition like ankylosing spondylitis. The patient experiences pain, redness, watering, blurry vision, and small, fixed, oval-shaped pupils in both eyes around the corneal limbus. Although hypopyon may not always be present, the patient’s back pain that improves throughout the day may suggest ankylosing spondylitis. Steroid and cycloplegic eye drops are the appropriate treatment options. Cyclopentolate helps relieve pain caused by muscle spasms controlling the pupil and prevents the formation of synechiae that may affect the pupils function. Steroids help treat the underlying inflammation. Bilateral laser iridotomy is not suitable for this patient, as it is most appropriate for acute closed-angle glaucoma. High flow oxygen and sumatriptan may seem like a possible treatment for cluster headaches due to the patient’s lacrimation, red eyes, and headache, but this presentation is more consistent with anterior uveitis. Topical sodium cromoglicate is not appropriate for this patient, as it is used to treat allergic conjunctivitis, which typically presents with watery, red, itchy eyes in patients with a history of atopy.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 19 - A 5-year-old girl is referred to the optometrist by her GP due to...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is referred to the optometrist by her GP due to her mother's concern about a squint. The optometrist diagnoses her with exotropia and offers treatment options, including intermittent eye patching. However, before any treatment can be started, the family moves to a different area and misses their follow-up appointments. The mother does not seek further attention for her daughter's exotropia.

      What potential future health risks may this child be more susceptible to due to the lack of treatment for her exotropia?

      Your Answer: Amblyopia

      Explanation:

      If childhood squints are not corrected, it may result in amblyopia, also known as ‘lazy eye’. This condition is more likely to occur if the child has exotropia, where one eye deviates outward. However, it can be treated with patching. There is no increased risk of developing esotropia, hypermetropia, hypertropia, or hypotropia due to non-compliance with exotropia treatment, as these are different forms of squint.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the examination, the doctor examines the back of his eye using a slit lamp and observes the presence of cotton wool spots. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this finding?

      Your Answer: Retinal infarction

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina becomes separated from the normal structure of the eye, resulting in a large bullous separation in rhegmatogenous cases. On the other hand, retinal necrosis is an acute condition that causes an abrupt, one-sided, painful loss of vision. During a slit-lamp examination, multiple areas of retinal whitening and opacification with scalloped edges that merge together can be observed.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and arm pain that has been getting worse over the past week. The pain is now unbearable even with regular co-codamol. During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's left pupil is smaller than the other and the eyelid is slightly drooping. What question would be most helpful in determining the diagnosis for this woman?

      Your Answer: Recent flu-like illness

      Correct Answer: Smoking history

      Explanation:

      Smoking is responsible for the majority of cases of cancer that lead to Pancoast’s syndrome. The patient’s condition is not influenced by factors such as alcohol consumption, physical activity, or exposure to pathogens.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic 2 days after injuring his right...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic 2 days after injuring his right upper eyelid. He has a fever and feels generally sick. Upon examination, the eyelid is visibly swollen, red, and tender to the touch. The boy also has ptosis, but no pain when moving his eyes or visual impairment. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Periorbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Periorbital (preseptal) cellulitis can be distinguished from orbital cellulitis by the absence of painful eye movements, double vision, and visual impairment. These symptoms are indicative of orbital cellulitis, which is more severe and involves infection of the orbit. Children are more susceptible to both types of cellulitis. Dry eyes, or keratoconjunctivitis sicca, typically presents as a painful, gritty feeling in the eye with redness of the conjunctiva, similar to viral conjunctivitis.

      Understanding Preseptal Cellulitis

      Preseptal cellulitis, also known as periorbital cellulitis, is an infection that affects the soft tissues in front of the orbital septum. This includes the skin, eyelids, and subcutaneous tissue of the face, but not the contents of the orbit. Unlike orbital cellulitis, which is a more severe infection that affects the soft tissues behind the orbital septum, preseptal cellulitis is less serious. The infection typically spreads from nearby sites, such as breaks in the skin or local infections like sinusitis or respiratory tract infections. Common causative organisms include Staph. aureus, Staph. epidermidis, streptococci, and anaerobic bacteria.

      Preseptal cellulitis is most commonly seen in children, with 80% of patients under the age of 10 and a median age of presentation at 21 months. It is more prevalent in the winter due to the increased incidence of respiratory tract infections. Symptoms of preseptal cellulitis include a sudden onset of a red, swollen, and painful eye, often accompanied by fever.

      Clinical signs of preseptal cellulitis include erythema and edema of the eyelids, which can spread to the surrounding skin, as well as partial or complete ptosis of the eye due to swelling. It is important to note that orbital signs, such as pain on eye movement, restriction of eye movements, proptosis, visual disturbance, chemosis, and relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), should be absent in preseptal cellulitis. If these signs are present, it may indicate orbital cellulitis.

      Diagnosis of preseptal cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation and blood tests showing raised inflammatory markers. A swab of any discharge present may also be taken. A contrast CT of the orbit may be performed to differentiate between preseptal and orbital cellulitis.

      Management of preseptal cellulitis involves referral to secondary care for assessment. Oral antibiotics, such as co-amoxiclav, are often sufficient for treatment. Children may require admission for observation. If left untreated, bacterial infection may spread into the orbit and evolve into orbital cellulitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 55-year-old woman who is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 55-year-old woman who is experiencing excruciating pain around her right eye. She has tried over-the-counter drops from the chemist, but they have not provided any relief. Although she has no significant medical history, she has been working 12-hour night shifts as a bank nurse. Upon examination, you notice a mild vesicular rash on the conjunctiva, but the eye itself appears normal under direct vision. Her visual acuity is normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: High dose oral steroids

      Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir and urgent ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action for suspected herpes zoster ophthalmicus is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist and a 7-10 day course of oral antivirals such as acyclovir. Prescribing high dose oral steroids or topical dexamethasone is not the appropriate treatment for this condition. While direct referral to the emergency department may result in eventual referral to ophthalmology and treatment, it is not the most efficient or effective approach.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering left eye after mowing the lawn. His daughter can see a grass seed visibly stuck near his cornea. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to ophthalmology immediately for assessment that day

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an organic foreign body in their eye, such as a grass seed, it is crucial to refer them immediately to ophthalmology for assessment due to the risk of infection. The removal of the foreign body should also be done on the same day as the assessment to prevent further complications. This is especially important in cases where the injury was caused by high-velocity objects, such as during grass cutting. Attempting to remove the foreign body in primary care or delaying the removal to the following day is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and prolong the patient’s discomfort. It is essential to seek specialist care to ensure proper treatment and avoid any potential complications.

      A corneal foreign body can cause eye pain, a sensation of something being in the eye, sensitivity to light, watering, and redness. If the injury was caused by high-velocity objects or sharp items, or if there is significant trauma to the eye or surrounding area, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist. If a chemical injury has occurred, the eye should be irrigated for 20-30 minutes before referral. Foreign bodies made of organic material, such as seeds or soil, also require referral due to a higher risk of infection and complications. If the foreign body is located in or near the center of the cornea, or if there are any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or reduced vision, referral is necessary. For more information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of painful redness in her left eye. The left eye has significantly reduced visual acuity compared to the right eye. During a slit-lamp examination, you observe the presence of pus in the anterior chamber.
      What is the most suitable treatment for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) acetazolamide

      Correct Answer: Steroid eye drops and cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid eye drops and cycloplegic eye drops. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of eye pain, redness, and decreased vision, along with sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the affected pupil may appear small and there may be pus in the front part of the eye. In case of suspected infective anterior uveitis, consultation with an ophthalmologist is necessary. Dorzolamide is a medication used to reduce aqueous production in primary open-angle glaucoma, while IV acetazolamide is indicated for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analogue that increases uveoscleral outflow and is also used in primary open-angle glaucoma. It is important to provide prompt treatment for anterior uveitis to prevent permanent vision loss.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 26 - A 59-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with progressive bilateral visual loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with progressive bilateral visual loss. Despite feeling well, he is worried about his ability to drive and grade his students' math assignments. He has no medical history but has a smoking history of 25 packs per year and does not drink alcohol. During the examination, drusen is observed and visual acuity is reduced. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravitreal anti-VEGF agents

      Correct Answer: High-dose beta-carotene and vitamins C and E

      Explanation:

      The use of high-dose corticosteroids is not recommended for the treatment of wet or dry AMD due to their anti-inflammatory properties, which are not effective in managing the disease. Additionally, these drugs can cause side effects such as cataracts and glaucoma. High-dose vitamin D and omegas 3 and 6 are also not associated with the treatment of dry AMD. Antioxidants such as beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc have been shown to slow the progression of dry AMD by approximately 25 percent. Intravitreal anti-VEGF agents are used to manage wet AMD, which is characterized by rapid onset and the growth of abnormal, leaky vessels in the subretinal space. The goal of intravitreal treatment is to slow the progression of the disease, but it is not indicated for the management of dry AMD.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

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      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of severe eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has no notable medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, his eye appears red, the pupil is fixed and dilated, and the cornea has a cloudy appearance.

      What are the initial treatment options for this condition?

      Your Answer: Cyclopentolate

      Correct Answer: Timolol

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of acute angle-closure glaucoma, the first step in emergency medical management often involves administering a combination of eye drops. This typically includes a beta-blocker or muscarinic receptor agonist, as well as an oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitor like acetazolamide and pain relief medication.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old nursing student is experiencing intense pain in their left eye after...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old nursing student is experiencing intense pain in their left eye after returning from a clinical placement in South America. When asked, they admitted to swimming with their contact lens in freshwater. Upon examination, their left eye appeared slightly red, but no other significant clinical signs were observed. What is the probable organism responsible for their symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acanthamoeba

      Explanation:

      Acanthamoebic keratitis is characterized by severe pain that is disproportionate to the clinical presentation, and is often associated with a history of recent freshwater swimming while wearing contact lenses. Other symptoms may include pseudodendritic ulcers, epithelial defects, anterior uveitis, and perforation in advanced cases. Cat scratch disease caused by Bartonella henselae typically presents with neuroretinitis and a macular star, as well as systemic symptoms and lymphadenopathy. Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi may result in a follicular conjunctivitis or panuveitis, and is often accompanied by a target rash and systemic symptoms. While HSV can cause keratitis, it typically presents with a dendritic ulcer.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman came in with complaints of photophobia and an enlarged left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman came in with complaints of photophobia and an enlarged left pupil that exhibited delayed and incomplete constriction to light. Accommodation appeared to be relatively normal. A positive pilocarpine test was observed and no other neurological abnormalities were detected.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Horner’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Holmes-Adie pupil

      Explanation:

      Holmes-Adie Pupil: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Holmes–Adie pupil is a condition characterized by a dilated pupil that shows a delayed and incomplete constriction in response to light. It is commonly observed in young females and may be associated with reduced deep tendon reflexes, which is then called Holmes–Adie syndrome. To confirm the diagnosis, low-dose pilocarpine testing can be carried out, which reveals hypersensitivity to the solution due to degeneration of postganglionic neurons.

      Differential diagnoses for Holmes–Adie pupil include Horner’s syndrome, which causes miosis due to damage to the sympathetic pathway responsible for pupil dilation, and third cranial nerve palsy, which presents with ptosis and reduced eye movements alongside the dilated pupil. Antimuscarinic drugs do cause pupil dilation, but they would not cause a delayed and incomplete constriction in response to light. Muscarinic agonists, on the other hand, cause miosis rather than pupillary dilation.

      In summary, Holmes–Adie pupil is a condition that presents with a dilated pupil showing a delayed and incomplete constriction in response to light. It is commonly observed in young females and may be associated with reduced deep tendon reflexes. Differential diagnoses include Horner’s syndrome and third cranial nerve palsy. Low-dose pilocarpine testing can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - A 78-year-old woman is presenting with a complaint of deteriorating vision that has...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman is presenting with a complaint of deteriorating vision that has been gradually worsening over the past few years. Upon examination, cataracts are evident in both eyes, but her best corrected visual acuity is only slightly diminished at 6/9. She has no prior history of eye problems.
      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Referral for cataract surgery

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that rationing cataract removal operations based on visual acuity is not recommended according to NICE guidelines. Delaying surgery can lead to increased risks of falls and other complications, making cataract surgery a cost-effective solution. Although cataracts are not an urgent issue, delaying surgery is not a wise decision. Additionally, it is important to note that corticosteroids are a cause of cataracts, not a treatment.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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