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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure a few days after completing her final exams. The discharge summary and follow-up letter from the neurologist both indicate that this was an alcohol-related seizure. Despite having normal CT and EEG results, the student admits to consuming a large amount of alcohol before the seizure. She denies any previous alcohol misuse and has normal liver function tests. She has not consumed alcohol since the episode and has been advised to inform the DVLA. As a motorcyclist, she is concerned about any potential restrictions. How long should she refrain from using her motorcycle after experiencing a single alcohol-induced seizure?

      Your Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Fitness to Drive

      The DVLA provides guidance on fitness to drive, which takes into account different types of seizures, including those caused by alcohol. In this case scenario, the seizure is solitary and alcohol-induced, and the driver holds a Group one entitlement for cars and motorcycles.

      The DVLA distinguishes between different types of seizures, and provides specific conditions for the return or issue of a driving licence when there is a background of substance misuse or dependence. Independent medical assessment and consultant reports are usually necessary in these cases.

      It is important to note that the driving restrictions for Group one entitlement drivers, such as the student in this scenario, are the same as those for car drivers. However, if the student held a Group two entitlement for heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles, their licence would have been revoked for a minimum of five years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 2 - At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation...

    Incorrect

    • At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation for Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 15 months of age

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Understanding Immunisation Schedules

      Immunisation schedules are crucial to understand, especially with recent changes to UK guidance in January 2020. One significant change relates to the timing of pneumococcal immunisation. Additionally, hepatitis B vaccination is routinely available as part of the NHS vaccination schedule. It is offered to all babies at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, as well as those at increased risk of hepatitis B or its complications.

      It is essential to memorise the latest schedule, as it may feature in your exam. We have included a reference to a summary guide below for your convenience. Understanding immunisation schedules is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccinations at the correct time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents with concerns about excessive facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents with concerns about excessive facial hair growth. Despite switching to co-cyprindiol, there has been no improvement. Upon examination, hirsutism is noted on her moustache, beard, and temple areas. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical eflornithine

      Explanation:

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.

      Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his wife passed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his wife passed away recently. He shares that he woke up this morning thinking she was lying next to him and heard her voice calling his name. He acknowledges that this is not feasible, but it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he might be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health

      Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.

      Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.

      The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.

      In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3 days. She reports feeling increasingly unwell and feverish over the last 24 hours. What symptom would suggest 'red flag' sepsis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 136/min

      Explanation:

      In recent years, there has been a push to enhance the handling of septic patients in secondary healthcare settings. This endeavor is now shifting towards primary care and aims to enhance the identification and prompt treatment of such patients.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.

      Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 6 - An 8-year-old boy who suffers with partial seizures has been started on levetiracetam...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy who suffers with partial seizures has been started on levetiracetam by the paediatricians following a recent outpatient appointment.

      Following initiation in secondary care the paediatricians have advised he continue taking the levetiracetam at a maintenance dose of 20 mg/kg twice daily.

      His current weight is 30 kg. Levetiracetam oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 100 mg/ml.

      What is the correct dosage of levetiracetam in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 ml BD

      Explanation:

      Calculating Levetiracetam Dose

      When calculating the dose of Levetiracetam oral solution, it is important to consider the patient’s weight and the recommended dosage of 25 mg/kg BD. For example, if the patient weighs 24 kg, the total daily dose would be 600 mg BD. Since the oral solution is 100 mg/ml, this would equate to 6 ml BD. It is crucial to accurately calculate the dose to ensure the patient receives the appropriate amount of medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 7 - A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint pains in his knees and ankles. In the last four weeks, he has experienced recurrent fevers reaching up to 39.5ºC that resolve spontaneously without the use of antipyretics. His mother also notes the emergence of a transient pink rash during the fevers. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is characterized by joint symptoms, high fevers that quickly return to normal, and a salmon pink rash. Other symptoms include lymph node enlargement, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and serositis (pericarditis, pleuritis, peritonitis).

      Oligoarticular JIA may also cause joint symptoms, but it doesn’t explain the fever or rash. Osgood-Schlatter disease typically presents with knee pain, but it doesn’t account for the other symptoms reported in this scenario. Osteochondritis Dissecans may cause aching and swollen joints that worsen with activity, but it doesn’t explain the fevers or pink rash. Septic arthritis is less likely in this case since there is no specific joint that is red and swollen, and the child doesn’t appear to be generally unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 8 - A 21 year old vegan patient presents at 10 weeks gestation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old vegan patient presents at 10 weeks gestation. She has a history of febrile seizures and anxiety but is not on any regular medications. She is seeking advice on whether she should take any vitamin supplements during her pregnancy. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D 10mcg and Folic acid 400mcg

      Explanation:

      All pregnant women are now advised to take 10mcg of vitamin D throughout their pregnancy. Additionally, low dose folic acid is recommended for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy for all women. However, those with pregnancies at a higher risk of neural tube defects should take 5mg of folic acid during the first 12 weeks. This includes couples where either partner has a neural tube defect or a family history of such defects, those who have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or women with coeliac disease, diabetes mellitus, sickle-cell anaemia, or who are taking antiepileptic medication.

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 9 - A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports a history of abscess in the other axillae which required incision and drainage, and now wants to prevent it from happening again. She also complains of frequently having spots and pustules in the groin area. Upon examination of the affected axillae, there is a small inflamed pustule, along with a few other nodules and scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa

      Explanation:

      Hidradenitis suppurativa is a skin disorder that is chronic, painful, and inflammatory. It is characterized by the presence of nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in areas where skin folds overlap, such as the armpits, groin, and inner thighs.

      This condition is more common in women, smokers, and individuals with a higher body mass index. Over time, the lesions can lead to the development of scars and sinus tracts.

      Acanthosis nigricans, on the other hand, is a skin condition characterized by thickening and discoloration of the skin in skin folds. It is often a sign of an underlying disease such as diabetes or malignancy.

      Acne vulgaris is another skin condition that can present with papules and pustules, but it typically affects the face, upper back, and chest rather than the areas affected by hidradenitis suppurativa.

      Rosacea is a skin condition that causes redness and inflammatory papules on the face, particularly on the cheeks and nose.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the right lumbar region, but her abdomen is soft. She has no fever.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Presentations of Various Kidney Conditions

      Kidney conditions can present with a variety of symptoms and presentations. Renal colic, caused by the passage of stones into the ureter, is characterized by severe flank pain that radiates to the groin, along with haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Acute pyelonephritis presents with fever, costovertebral angle pain, and nausea/vomiting, while acute glomerulonephritis doesn’t cause severe loin pain. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease can cause chronic loin pain, but it is not as severe as renal colic unless there is a stone present. Renal cell carcinoma may present with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass, but the pain is not as severe as in renal colic and pyrexia is only present in a minority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) in which he experiences a left hemiparesis. He is found to have a right carotid bruit, and carotid stenosis is suspected.
      What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgery reduces the risk of stroke if he has severe carotid stenosis

      Explanation:

      Carotid Endarterectomy and Stenting for Severe Carotid Stenosis

      Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure recommended by NICE for patients with moderate or severe carotid stenosis. It is most beneficial for those with severe stenosis, reducing the risk of stroke by up to 30% over three years. However, the presence of a carotid bruit alone is not enough to confirm or exclude significant stenosis or its severity.

      Carotid endarterectomy is indicated for patients with recent stroke or transient ischaemic attack, but surgery should be carried out within seven days of symptom onset for maximum benefit. While stenting with an emboli protection device may be as effective as endarterectomy, there may be a higher risk of stroke initially post-procedure.

      In addition to surgical intervention, the best medical management includes lowering blood pressure, treatment with statins, and antiplatelet therapy. It is important to start treatment as soon as possible to maximize the benefits of surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A parent is concerned about her 9-month-old child’s prominent ears. ...

    Incorrect

    • A parent is concerned about her 9-month-old child’s prominent ears.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delay operation until the age of 8

      Explanation:

      Prominent Ears: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options

      Prominent ears affect a small percentage of the population and are usually inherited. This condition arises due to the lack or malformation of cartilage during ear development in the womb, resulting in abnormal helical folds or lateral growth. While some babies are born with normal-looking ears, the problem may arise within the first three months of life.

      Before six months of age, the ear cartilage is soft and can be molded and splinted. However, after this age, surgical correction is the only option. Pinnaplasty or otoplasty can be performed on children from the age of five, but the ideal age for the procedure is around eight years old. This allows enough time to see if the child perceives the condition as a problem, while also avoiding potential teasing or bullying at school.

      While some prominent ears may become less visible over time, it is best not to delay corrective procedures. Younger ears tend to produce better results after surgery, and waiting too long may increase the risk of bullying at school. Overall, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment options for prominent ears can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he consumes over 60 units of alcohol per week. The GP conducts an assessment to ascertain if the patient has alcohol dependence syndrome.
      If the diagnosis is accurate, what is the most probable indication?
      Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: Symptoms and Behaviors

      Alcohol dependence syndrome is a serious condition that can have a significant impact on an individual’s life. Withdrawal symptoms are a common occurrence when someone tries to stop drinking, including feeling sick, trembling, sweating, and craving for alcohol. In some cases, convulsions and delirium tremens may occur. It is not uncommon for an individual to find it difficult to stop drinking due to these symptoms.

      Alcohol dependence syndrome can also have a negative impact on an individual’s family and career. The individual may find it difficult to function in both roles due to exhaustion and decreased sleep quality. Additionally, tolerance to alcohol tends to increase rather than decrease, requiring larger quantities to achieve the same effect.

      Reinstatement after a period of abstinence, commonly referred to as falling off the wagon, is a significant and common problem in addictive behavior. However, preferential drinking of spirits over beer is not necessarily an indication of alcohol dependence syndrome. It is important to understand the symptoms and behaviors associated with alcohol dependence syndrome to seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 14 - A 39-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling of the metacarpo-phalangeal joints and...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling of the metacarpo-phalangeal joints and the proximal inter-phalangeal joints of both hands. She reports that the symptoms are worse in the morning and her hands are very stiff. The symptoms have been present for eight weeks. Her rheumatoid factor is reported as weakly positive.
      What is the most suitable course of action for a general practitioner? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis

      If a patient presents with persistent synovitis of unknown cause, it is important to consider the possibility of rheumatoid arthritis. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary if the small joints of the hands or feet are affected, more than one joint is affected, or symptoms have been present for three months or longer before presentation. This referral should be made even if the patient’s erythrocyte sedimentation rate is normal and they are negative for rheumatoid factor and anticyclic citrullinated peptide.

      While a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug may be prescribed by a general practitioner for pain control, the urgent referral to a rheumatologist is the most appropriate option. In secondary care, a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) such as methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine should be started as soon as possible, ideally within three months of the onset of persistent symptoms. Short-term bridging treatment with glucocorticoids may also be considered when starting the DMARD.

      In summary, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary for suspected rheumatoid arthritis, even if certain diagnostic markers are negative. Prompt treatment with a DMARD is crucial for managing the disease and preventing long-term joint damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and currently has a BP of 155/95 mmHg. She has noted that her face has become more rounded over the years and she is having increasing trouble with both acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has revealed impaired glucose tolerance. There has also been increasing trouble with abdominal obesity and she has noticed some purple stretch marks appearing around her abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing Syndrome: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Cushing syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by hypercortisolaemia, which leads to a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common features include a round, plethoric facial appearance, weight gain (especially truncal obesity, buffalo hump, and supraclavicular fat pads), skin fragility, proximal muscle weakness, mood disturbance, menstrual disturbance, and reduced libido. Hypertension is present in more than 50% of patients, impaired glucose tolerance in 30%, and osteopenia, osteoporosis, and premature vascular disease are common consequences if left untreated.

      The annual incidence of Cushing syndrome is approximately two per million, and it is more common in women. The cause of the disease is hypercortisolaemia, and in 68% of cases, it is due to a pituitary adenoma producing adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). Ectopic ACTH production is the cause in 12% of cases (most commonly small-cell carcinoma of the lung and bronchial carcinoid tumours), adrenal adenoma in 10%, and adrenal carcinoma in 8%.

      Diagnosis of Cushing syndrome is made based on the results of the 24-hour urinary free-cortisol assay or the 1 mg (low-dose) overnight dexamethasone suppression test.

      Differential diagnosis includes multiple endocrine neoplasia, essential hypertension, phaeochromocytoma, and simple obesity. However, multiple endocrine neoplasia is less likely due to the rarity of the syndrome and lack of other features. Essential hypertension may respond to two agents but cannot explain the other symptoms and signs. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that secretes catecholamines and presents with headache, sweating, palpitations, tremor, and hypertension. Simple obesity is a differential diagnosis but cannot explain the other features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic with multiple itchy skin lesions on...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic with multiple itchy skin lesions on his arms and trunk. The lesions appear scaly and have a coppery brown color. The doctor suspects pityriasis versicolor. What is the best treatment option for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor can be treated with ketoconazole shampoo.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - You assess a 65-year-old heavy smoker who has just been diagnosed with cancer...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old heavy smoker who has just been diagnosed with cancer and is hesitant to undergo surgery. He is interested in exploring the option of radiotherapy. Which tumour from the following list is most suitable for potentially curative treatment with RADIOTHERAPY ALONE? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laryngeal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Curative Treatment Options for Various Types of Cancer

      Laryngeal Carcinoma:
      The management of laryngeal cancer involves preserving the larynx whenever possible. For early-stage disease, transoral laser microsurgery or radiotherapy is used. For more advanced disease, radiotherapy with concomitant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice. Total laryngectomy may still be required for some cases.

      Breast Cancer:
      Radiotherapy is used as an adjuvant to primary surgery in breast cancer. It significantly reduces breast-cancer-related deaths and local recurrence rates.

      Colonic Carcinoma:
      Surgical resection of the tumor is the main curative treatment for colonic carcinoma in patients with localized disease. Radiotherapy is limited by the risk of damage to surrounding structures.

      Gastric Carcinoma:
      Partial or total gastrectomy is the only curative treatment for gastric carcinoma. Radiotherapy is ineffective.

      Lung Cancer:
      Surgical excision is the curative treatment for localised non-small cell carcinoma. Radiotherapy with curative intent may be offered to patients unsuitable for surgery with stage I, II or III non-small cell carcinoma and good performance status if there is no undue risk of normal tissue damage.

      Curative Treatment Options for Different Types of Cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man with a history of gout presents with an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of gout presents with an itchy rash on his trunk. He reports starting ampicillin for a recent chest infection and another medication for his gout, but cannot recall the name of the gout medication. What is the likely cause of his rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfinpyrazone

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol and Rash Risk

      Allopurinol, a medication commonly used to treat gout, can cause an itchy maculopapular rash in 2% of patients. However, when taken with ampicillin or amoxicillin, the risk of developing a rash increases. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential interaction and to monitor patients closely for any signs of rash when prescribing these medications together. By doing so, they can help prevent and manage any adverse reactions that may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat and occasional hoarseness that has been bothering him for a few months. He expresses concern that there may be something lodged in his throat, but he is able to swallow without difficulty. He denies any significant weight loss and has no notable medical or family history.

      During your examination, you observe mild redness in the oropharynx, but the neck appears normal and there are no palpable masses.

      What would be the best course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a trial of a proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux

      Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.

      Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.

      In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old sales representative comes in for a routine check-up and reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old sales representative comes in for a routine check-up and reports a 2-week history of a droopy left eyelid with forehead weakness. Upon examination, the symptoms are confirmed and there are no abnormalities found in the eyes or ears.

      What is a crucial aspect of the treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Night-time eyelid coverings

      Explanation:

      Proper eye care is crucial in Bell’s palsy, and measures such as using drops, lubricants, and night-time taping should be considered. However, the most important step is to cover the eyelids during the night to prevent dryness and potential corneal damage or infection. antiviral treatment alone is not a recommended treatment for Bell’s palsy, and antibiotics are unnecessary as the condition is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Immediate referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for a simple case of Bell’s palsy, but may be warranted if symptoms persist beyond 2-3 months.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 21 - You assess a 79-year-old male patient's hypertensive treatment and find that his current...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 79-year-old male patient's hypertensive treatment and find that his current medication regimen of losartan and amlodipine is not effectively controlling his blood pressure. What would be the most suitable course of action, assuming there are no relevant contraindications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add indapamide MR 1.5mg od

      Explanation:

      For poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, it is recommended to add a thiazide-like diuretic. However, NICE advises against using bendroflumethiazide and suggests alternative options. It is important to note that patients who are already taking bendroflumethiazide should not be switched to another thiazide-type diuretic. In this case, the patient is currently taking losartan, which is an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker. This may be due to previous issues with ACE inhibitor therapy, such as a dry cough. It is generally not recommended for patients to take both an ACE inhibitor and an A2RB simultaneously.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - Which mental health disorder has the strongest and most established association with family...

    Incorrect

    • Which mental health disorder has the strongest and most established association with family history as a risk factor in the index case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Strongest and Most Established Link in Mental Health Disorders

      A family history is particularly associated with depressive disorder and schizophrenia. For schizophrenia, the average lifetime risk is about 5-10% among first-degree relatives of schizophrenics. However, monozygotic twin studies do not show 100% concordance, suggesting that environmental factors also play a part, although the nature of these is not clear.

      The cause of Asperger’s syndrome is unclear, and there is no known heredity involved. Similarly in OCD there is no clear familial link, although some studies have noted higher frequency of OCD in the first-degree relatives of children and adults with OCD.

      Borderline personality disorder is not inherited, although may be associated with traumatic early life experiences, particularly physical and sexual abuse in childhood.

      MRCGP questions may include options that are plausible but less appropriate than the correct answer. There may be genetic factors involved in OCD and Tourette’s, but the associations are complex and less clear cut than with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old woman seeks your guidance regarding the possibility of developing osteoporosis after...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman seeks your guidance regarding the possibility of developing osteoporosis after her friend experienced a hip fracture. Assuming she has average risk based on her age and gender, what is her likelihood of having osteoporosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.

      If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habit. She has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habit. She has noticed that over the past four to six weeks she has been opening her bowels two to three times a day with very loose stools. On a few occasions there have been small amounts of fresh blood in the stools. She has attributed this fresh blood to haemorrhoids which she has had in the past. Prior to this recent four to six week period she had typically opened her bowels once a day with well-formed stools.

      There is no reported family history of bowel problems. A stool sample was sent to the laboratory two to three weeks after the looser stools started and stool microscopy was normal, as are her recent blood tests which show she is not anaemic. Clinical examination is unremarkable with normal abdominal and rectal examinations. Her weight is stable.

      She tells you that she is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about a month ago she submitted her bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that her screening tests were negative.

      What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient that in view of the negative bowel screening she doesn't require any further investigation but should continue to participate in screening every two years

      Explanation:

      Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms

      Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in at-risk populations. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to falsely reassure themselves with negative screening results. In the case of a 68-year-old woman with persistent changes in bowel habit and rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary.

      It is important to note that relying on recent negative screening results can be inadequate and should not delay necessary medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - What medical condition in a child would require circumcision? ...

    Incorrect

    • What medical condition in a child would require circumcision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent balanitis

      Explanation:

      Patients who suffer from chronic balanitis or recurrent episodes of the condition should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Recurrent balanitis can lead to phimosis, a condition where the foreskin becomes tight and difficult to retract, and in some cases, circumcision may be necessary to prevent further complications.

      • Ambiguous Genitalia:
        • Description: Ambiguous genitalia is a condition where a newborn’s external genitals do not appear to be clearly male or female. It can be part of a disorder of sex development (DSD).
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is generally not performed as part of initial management for ambiguous genitalia. The condition requires careful evaluation, diagnosis, and sometimes gender assignment surgery, which may include or exclude circumcision.
      • Cryptorchidism:
        • Description: Cryptorchidism refers to undescended testes, where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum.
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is not indicated for cryptorchidism. The standard treatment is orchidopexy, a surgical procedure to move the undescended testicle into the scrotum.
      • Recurrent Balanitis:
        • Description: Balanitis is inflammation of the glans penis, often associated with infection. Recurrent episodes can lead to discomfort, infection, and difficulty in hygiene.
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is often recommended for recurrent balanitis to prevent further episodes. Removal of the foreskin reduces the risk of infection and improves hygiene.
      • Hypospadias:
        • Description: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis rather than at the tip.
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is not performed in infants with hypospadias as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair of the urethra (urethroplasty). Surgery to correct hypospadias is typically done between 6-18 months of age.
      • Non-retractile Foreskin in a 4-year-old Child:
        • Description: Non-retractile foreskin (physiological phimosis) is normal in young children and usually resolves by age 5-7 as the foreskin becomes more retractable.
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is not recommended for physiological phimosis in young children unless there are complications such as recurrent infections or significant ballooning during urination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 26 - You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in first grade. He is worried because a classmate has been absent for a week due to whooping cough, but the classmate's twin brother is still attending school while taking antibiotics. The father wants to know if his son could catch the illness from the twin brother and if he needs to take antibiotics as well.

      His son has received all the recommended vaccinations up to this point.

      What is your response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recommend the boy is excluded until he has finished his antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Guidelines for Asymptomatic Contacts

      Asymptomatic contacts of suspected or confirmed pertussis do not need exclusion from school or nursery, even if they are being treated with antibiotics. It is important to follow current guidelines and advise parents accordingly. Prophylactic antibiotics are only recommended for close contacts, which include household contacts and those sharing a room overnight with a case. Antibiotics are only recommended if there is a vulnerable contact and the onset of illness in the case is within 21 days.

      If more cases of pertussis were to be diagnosed at the nursery, this would constitute an outbreak, and advice may then change at the discretion of the outbreak control team. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants born to symptomatic mothers, infants under 1-year-old who have received less than three doses of DTaP/IPV/Hib, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to ten years, women in the last month of pregnancy, adults who work in a healthcare, social care or childcare facility, immunocompromised individuals, and those with the presence of other chronic illnesses.

      It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as outlined in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 15.8. By following these guidelines, we can ensure the best possible care for our patients and prevent the spread of pertussis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man who has sex with men comes to you with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who has sex with men comes to you with complaints of general malaise, right upper quadrant pain and yellowing of the eyes. He has had multiple casual sexual partners in the past few months and has not always used protection. He has not traveled abroad recently. During the physical examination, you notice that he is jaundiced, tender in the right upper quadrant, and has a palpable liver edge. What is the most probable infection in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hepatitis in a Middle-Aged Man

      Although hepatitis can be caused by various viruses, the likelihood of acute infection decreases with age. In the case of cytomegalovirus (CMV) and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), these viruses are typically encountered before the age of 55, making acute infection less probable. While hepatitis A is a possibility, it is unlikely without a history of travel. Although hepatitis C can be transmitted sexually, its prevalence among men who have sex with men is lower than that of hepatitis B. Additionally, hepatitis B is more easily transmitted through sexual contact, making it a more probable diagnosis. It is important to note that there is a 5-10% chance of becoming a chronic carrier of hepatitis B.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic, having just returned from living in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic, having just returned from living in Canada. He tells you he had a colonoscopy six months earlier; a polyp in the ascending colon was removed and this was classified as a Dukes' B tumour. He wonders if he needs further checks according to current guidance for surveillance after resection of colorectal cancer. What would you advise him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serial carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) monitoring

      Explanation:

      Post-Treatment Surveillance Strategies for Colorectal Cancer: The Role of CEA Monitoring, Colonoscopy, and CT Scans

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a protein that is elevated in the serum of patients with colorectal cancer. While not suitable for screening, CEA levels can be used to monitor disease burden and predict prognosis in patients with established disease. Additionally, elevated preoperative CEA levels should return to baseline after complete resection, and failure to do so may indicate residual disease. Serial CEA testing can also aid in the early detection of recurrences, which can increase the likelihood of a complete resection.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends regular serum CEA tests (at least every six months in the first three years) and a minimum of two CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis in the first three years after treatment. Surveillance colonoscopy should be performed one year after initial treatment, and if normal, another colonoscopy should be performed at five years. The timing of colonoscopy after adenoma should be determined by the risk status of the adenoma.

      While periodic colonoscopy is beneficial for detecting metachronous cancers and preventing further cancers via removal of adenomatous polyps, trials have failed to show a survival benefit from annual or shorter intervals compared to less frequent intervals (three or five years) for detecting anastomotic recurrences. Routine fecal occult blood testing is not recommended in post-treatment surveillance guidelines.

      In summary, post-treatment surveillance strategies for colorectal cancer should include serial CEA monitoring, CT scans, and colonoscopy at recommended intervals. These strategies can aid in the early detection of recurrences and improve the likelihood of a complete resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhoea for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhoea for the past 4 months. She has a history of perianal abscess. Her blood test shows hypochromic, microcytic anaemia and mild hypokalaemia. Although her liver function tests are normal, her albumin is reduced. Barium imaging reveals a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration extending into the colon, interspersed with normal looking mucosa ‘skipping’. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly affected sites are the ileocecal region and the colon. Patients with Crohn’s disease experience relapses and remissions, with symptoms including low-grade fever, prolonged diarrhea, right lower quadrant or periumbilical pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Perianal disease may also occur, with symptoms such as perirectal pain, malodorous discharge, and fistula formation. Extra-intestinal manifestations may include arthritis, erythema nodosum, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.

      To establish a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, ileocolonoscopy and biopsies from affected areas are first-line procedures. A cobblestone-like appearance is often seen, representing areas of ulceration separated by narrow areas of healthy tissue. Barium follow-through examination is useful for looking for inflammation and narrowing of the small bowel.

      Differential diagnosis for Crohn’s disease include coeliac disease, small bowel lymphoma, tropical sprue, and ulcerative colitis. Coeliac disease presents as a malabsorption syndrome with weight loss and steatorrhoea, while small bowel lymphoma is rare and presents with nonspecific symptoms such as abdominal pain and weight loss. Tropical sprue is a post-infectious malabsorption syndrome that occurs in tropical areas, and ulcerative colitis may be clinically indistinguishable from colonic Crohn’s disease but lacks the small bowel involvement and skip lesions seen in Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - How many doses of tetanus vaccine should a teenager receive as part of...

    Incorrect

    • How many doses of tetanus vaccine should a teenager receive as part of the routine UK immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses. This is considered to provide long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage. Tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment, wounds containing foreign bodies, and compound fractures. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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Consulting In General Practice (1/1) 100%
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