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Question 1
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A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of blood-tinged sputum, fever, night sweats and weight loss. At presentation he is haemodynamically stable, has a fever of 37.7°C and appears cachectic. On examination, there are coarse crepitations in the right upper zone of lung. Chest radiograph reveals patchy, non-specific increased upper zone interstitial markings bilaterally together with a well-defined round opacity with a central lucency in the right upper zone and bilateral enlarged hila.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Subacute Presentation of Pulmonary Symptoms
Tuberculosis is a growing concern, particularly in Eastern European countries where multi-drug resistant strains are on the rise. The initial infection can occur anywhere in the body, but often affects the lung apices and forms a scarred granuloma. Latent bacteria can cause reinfection years later, leading to post-primary TB. Diagnosis is based on identifying acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Treatment involves a 6-month regimen of antibiotics. Staphylococcal and Klebsiella pneumonia can also present with pneumonia symptoms and cavitating lesions, but patients would be expected to be very ill with signs of sepsis. Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a possibility but less likely in this case. Primary pulmonary lymphoma is rare and typically occurs in HIV positive individuals, with atypical presentation and radiographic findings. Contact screening is essential for TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient visits his GP complaining of a dry cough that has persisted for 3 months. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past 12 years and has no other medical history. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found, and his vital signs, including pulse rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, temperature, and oxygen saturation, are all normal. Spirometry results reveal a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 3.6 litres (predicted = 3.55 litres) and a forced vital capacity of 4.8 litres (predicted 4.72 litres). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a dry cough in a young patient
A dry cough is a common symptom that can have various underlying causes. In a young patient with a ten-pack-year history of smoking and a 3-month duration of symptoms, several possibilities should be considered and ruled out based on clinical evaluation and diagnostic tests.
One possibility is asthma, especially if the cough is the main or only symptom. In this case, spirometry may be normal, but peak flow monitoring before and after inhaled steroid therapy can help confirm the diagnosis by showing an improvement in peak flow rate and/or a reduction in variability.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is less likely in a young patient, but spirometry can reveal obstructive patterns if present.
Community-acquired pneumonia is unlikely given the chronicity of symptoms and the absence of typical signs such as productive cough and inspiratory crackles.
Angina is an uncommon cause of a dry cough, and it usually presents with chest tightness on exertion rather than at night.
Bronchiectasis can cause a productive cough and crackles on auscultation, which are not present in this case.
Therefore, based on the available information, asthma seems to be the most likely diagnosis, but further evaluation may be needed to confirm it and exclude other possibilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with worsening shortness of breath during his visit to Respiratory Outpatients. This is his fifth episode of this nature since his diagnosis. In the past, he has responded well to tapered doses of oral steroids. What initial test would be most useful in evaluating his current pulmonary condition before prescribing steroids?
Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor
Explanation:Pulmonary Function Tests with Transfer Factor in Sarcoidosis: An Overview
Sarcoidosis is a complex inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, with respiratory manifestations being the most common. Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor are a useful tool in assessing the severity of sarcoidosis and monitoring response to treatment. The underlying pathological process in sarcoidosis is interstitial fibrosis, leading to a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests with reduced transfer factor. While steroids are often effective in treating sarcoidosis, monitoring transfer factor levels can help detect exacerbations and assess response to treatment. Other diagnostic tests, such as arterial blood gas, chest X-ray, serum ACE levels, and HRCT of the chest, may also be useful in certain situations but are not always necessary as an initial test. Overall, pulmonary function tests with transfer factor play a crucial role in the management of sarcoidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of increased wheezing, breathlessness, and a dry cough. He is able to speak in complete sentences.
During the examination, the following observations are made:
Temperature 37.2 °C
Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
Blood pressure 130/70 mmHg
Heart rate 90 bpm
Oxygen saturations 96% on room air
He has diffuse expiratory wheezing.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Exacerbation of COPD
When a patient presents with evidence of an acute non-infective exacerbation of COPD, treatment with oral corticosteroids is appropriate. Short-acting bronchodilators may also be necessary. If the patient’s observations are not grossly deranged, they can be managed in the community with instructions to seek further medical input if their symptoms worsen.
Antibiotics are not indicated for non-infective exacerbations of COPD. However, if the patient has symptoms of an infective exacerbation, antibiotics may be prescribed based on the Anthonisen criteria.
Referral to a hospital medical team for admission is not necessary unless the patient is haemodynamically unstable, hypoxic, or experiencing respiratory distress.
A chest X-ray is not required unless there is suspicion of underlying pneumonia or pneumothorax. If the patient fails to respond to therapy or develops new symptoms, a chest X-ray may be considered at a later stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with worsening dyspnoea, dry cough, and low-grade fever. He has a medical history of hypertension and was hospitalized six months ago for an acute inferior myocardial infarction complicated by left ventricular failure and arrhythmia. His chest x-ray reveals diffuse interstitial pneumonia, and further investigations show an ESR of 110 mm/h, FEV1 of 90%, FVC of 70%, and KCO of 60%. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Side Effects of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication that is known to cause several side effects. Among these, pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis are the most common. These conditions are characterized by a progressively-worsening dry cough, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, and malaise. Other side effects of amiodarone include neutropenia, hepatitis, phototoxicity, slate-grey skin discolouration, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, arrhythmias, corneal deposits, peripheral neuropathy, and myopathy. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking amiodarone, and to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur. Proper monitoring and management can help to minimize the risk of serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman came to the Emergency Department complaining of severe dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. She had no history of occupational exposure to asbestos. Her husband worked in a shipyard 35 years ago, but he had no lung issues. She has never been a smoker. Upon thorax examination, there was reduced movement on the right side, with absent breath sounds and intercostal fullness.
What is the probable reason for the radiological finding?Your Answer: Massive consolidation
Correct Answer: Mesothelioma
Explanation:Pleural Pathologies: Mesothelioma and Differential Diagnoses
Workers who are exposed to asbestos are at a higher risk of developing lung pathologies such as asbestosis and mesothelioma. Indirect exposure can also occur when family members come into contact with asbestos-covered clothing. This condition affects both the lungs and pleural space, with short, fine asbestos fibers transported by the lymphatics to the pleural space, causing irritation and leading to plaques and fibrosis. Pleural fibrosis can also result in rounded atelectasis, which can mimic a lung mass on radiological imaging.
Mesothelioma, the most common type being epithelial, typically occurs 20-40 years after asbestos exposure and is characterized by exudative and hemorrhagic pleural effusion with high levels of hyaluronic acid. Treatment options are generally unsatisfactory, with local radiation and chemotherapy being used with variable results. Tuberculosis may also present with pleural effusion, but other systemic features such as weight loss, night sweats, and cough are expected. Lung collapse would show signs of mediastinal shift and intercostal fullness would not be typical. Pneumonectomy is not mentioned in the patient’s past, and massive consolidation may show air bronchogram on X-ray and bronchial breath sounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He reports feeling a sudden ‘pop’ followed by the onset of pain and shortness of breath.
Upon examination, the patient appears to be struggling to breathe with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute. Diminished breath sounds are heard on the right side of the chest during auscultation.
Diagnostic tests reveal a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa (normal range: 10.5-13.5 kPa) and a PaCO2 of 3.3 kPa (normal range: 4.6-6.0 kPa). A chest X-ray shows a 60% right-sided pneumothorax.
What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: 32F chest drain insertion with a cut-down
Correct Answer: 14F chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire
Explanation:Safe and Effective Chest Drain Insertion Techniques for Pneumothorax Management
Pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural cavity, can cause significant respiratory distress and requires prompt management. Chest drain insertion is a common procedure used to treat pneumothorax, but the technique used depends on the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Here are some safe and effective chest drain insertion techniques for managing pneumothorax:
1. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire: This technique is appropriate for large spontaneous pneumothorax without trauma. It involves inserting a narrow-bore chest drain over a Seldinger wire, which is a minimally invasive technique that reduces the risk of complications.
2. Portex chest drain insertion: Portex chest drains are a safer alternative to surgical chest drains in traumatic cases. This technique involves inserting a less traumatic chest drain that is easier to manage and less likely to cause complications.
3. Avoid chest drain insertion using a trochar: Chest drain insertion using a trochar is a dangerous technique that can cause significant pressure damage to surrounding tissues. It should be avoided.
4. Avoid repeated air aspiration: Although needle aspiration is a management option for symptomatic pneumothorax, repeated air aspiration is not recommended. It can cause complications and is less effective than chest drain insertion.
In conclusion, chest drain insertion is an effective technique for managing pneumothorax, but the technique used should be appropriate for the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire and Portex chest drain insertion are safer alternatives to more invasive techniques. Chest drain insertion using a trochar and repeated air aspiration should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the pleural fluid analysis reveals the following results:
Pleural fluid Pleural fluid analysis Serum Normal value
Protein 2.5 g/dl 7.3 g/dl 6-7.8 g/dl
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 145 IU/l 350 IU/l 100-250 IU/l
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Breast cancer
Correct Answer: Heart failure
Explanation:Causes of Transudative and Exudative Pleural Effusions
Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can be classified as transudative or exudative based on Light’s criteria. The most common cause of transudative pleural effusion is congestive heart failure, which can also cause bilateral or unilateral effusions. Other causes of transudative effusions include cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome. Exudative pleural effusions are typically caused by pneumonia, malignancy, or pleural infections. Nephrotic syndrome can also cause transudative effusions, while breast cancer and viral pleuritis are associated with exudative effusions. Proper identification of the underlying cause is crucial for appropriate management of pleural effusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman is discovered outside in the early hours of the morning after falling to the ground. She is confused and uncertain of what happened and is admitted to the hospital. An abbreviated mental test (AMT) is conducted, and she scores 4/10. During the examination, crackles are heard at the base of her left lung.
Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal value
C-reactive protein (CRP) 89 mg/l < 10 mg/l
White cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 11.4 × 109/l 5–7.58 × 109/l
The remainder of her blood tests, including full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), and liver function test (LFT), were normal.
Observations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Respiratory rate 32 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation 90% on air
Heart rate (HR) 88 beats/min 60–100 beats/min
Blood pressure (BP) 105/68 mmHg Hypertension: >120/80 mmHg*
Hypotension: <90/60 mmHg*
Temperature 39.1°C 1–37.2°C
*Normal ranges should be based on the individual's clinical picture. The values are provided as estimates.
Based on her CURB 65 score, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Admit the patient and consider ITU
Explanation:Understanding the CURB Score and Appropriate Patient Management
The CURB score is a tool used to assess the severity of community-acquired pneumonia and determine the appropriate level of care for the patient. A score of 0-1 indicates that the patient can be discharged home, a score of 2 suggests hospital treatment, and a score of 3 or more warrants consideration for intensive care unit (ITU) admission.
In the case of a patient with a CURB score of 3, such as a 68-year-old with a respiratory rate of >30 breaths/min and confusion (AMT score of 4), ITU admission should be considered. Admitting the patient to a general ward or discharging them home with advice to see their GP the following day would not be appropriate.
It is important for healthcare professionals to understand and utilize the CURB score to ensure appropriate management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient came in with worsening shortness of breath. A CT scan of the chest revealed a lesion in the right middle lobe of the lung. The radiologist described the findings as an area of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser lung tissue.
What is the more common name for this sign?Your Answer: Signet ring sign
Correct Answer: Atoll sign
Explanation:Radiological Signs in Lung Imaging: Atoll, Halo, Kerley B, Signet Ring, and Tree-in-Bud
When examining CT scans of the lungs, radiologists look for specific patterns that can indicate various pathologies. One such pattern is the atoll sign, also known as the reversed halo sign. This sign is characterized by a region of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser tissue, forming a crescent or annular shape that is at least 2 mm thick. It is often seen in cases of cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (COP), but can also be caused by tuberculosis or other infections.
Another important sign is the halo sign, which is seen in angioinvasive aspergillosis. This sign appears as a ground-glass opacity surrounding a pulmonary nodule or mass, indicating alveolar hemorrhage.
Kerley B lines are another pattern that can be seen on lung imaging, indicating pulmonary edema. These lines are caused by fluid accumulation in the interlobular septae at the periphery of the lung.
The signet ring sign is a pattern seen in bronchiectasis, where a dilated bronchus and accompanying pulmonary artery branch are visible in cross-section. This sign is characterized by a marked dilation of the bronchus, which is not seen in the normal population.
Finally, the tree-in-bud sign is a pattern seen in endobronchial tuberculosis or other endobronchial pathologies. This sign appears as multiple centrilobular nodules with a linear branching pattern, and can also be seen in cases of cystic fibrosis or viral pneumonia.
Overall, understanding these radiological signs can help clinicians diagnose and treat various lung pathologies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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