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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man is undergoing routine screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is undergoing routine screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm. He reports no symptoms. During the ultrasound, the diameter of his abdominal aorta is measured as 4.6cm. What should be the next course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 3 months

      Explanation:

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 9-year-old is admitted with suspected appendicitis and undergoes a laparoscopic appendicectomy. He...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old is admitted with suspected appendicitis and undergoes a laparoscopic appendicectomy. He is given 0.45% sodium chloride for postoperative care. Upon review by the surgical team, he presents with symptoms of headache, confusion, and gait disturbance. The following laboratory results are obtained: Na+ 128 mmol/l, K+ 4.0 mmol/l, urea 5 mmol/l, creatinine 60µmol/l, and glucose 4.0mmol/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemic encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s low sodium levels can be attributed to two factors. Firstly, the excessive intake of water has diluted the sodium chloride in the body. Secondly, stress and trauma are known to cause SIADH, which in turn leads to the secretion of ADH. This hormone opens up aquaporin channels, allowing water to enter the bloodstream and further lowering sodium levels.

      Guidelines for Post-Operative Fluid Management

      Post-operative fluid management is a crucial aspect of patient care, and the composition of intravenous fluids plays a significant role in determining the patient’s outcome. The commonly used intravenous fluids include plasma, 0.9% saline, dextrose/saline, and Hartmann’s, each with varying levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, and lactate. In the UK, the GIFTASUP guidelines were developed to provide consensus guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids.

      Previously, excessive administration of normal saline was believed to cause little harm, leading to oliguric postoperative patients receiving enormous quantities of IV fluids and developing hyperchloraemic acidosis. However, with a better understanding of this potential complication, electrolyte balanced solutions such as Ringers lactate and Hartmann’s are now preferred over normal saline. Additionally, solutions of 5% dextrose and dextrose/saline combinations are generally not recommended for surgical patients.

      The GIFTASUP guidelines recommend documenting fluids given clearly and assessing the patient’s fluid status when they leave theatre. If a patient is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic, oral fluid intake should be restarted as soon as possible. Patients with urinary sodium levels below 20 should be reviewed, and if a patient is oedematous, hypovolaemia should be treated first, followed by a negative balance of sodium and water, monitored using urine Na excretion levels.

      In conclusion, post-operative fluid management is critical, and the GIFTASUP guidelines provide valuable guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate fluid management, leading to better outcomes and reduced complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall on the dry ski slope. She fell with her thumb outstretched and caught it in the matting on the slope surface.
      Upon examination, the thumb is swollen and bruised, and she experiences difficulty making a pinching movement between her index finger and thumb. A palpable mass is present on the ulnar aspect of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. A plain X-ray shows no fracture or dislocation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured ulnar collateral ligament (UCL)

      Explanation:

      Common Hand Injuries and Diagnostic Considerations

      Ruptured Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL):
      The UCL provides stability to the ulnar side of the MCP joint of the thumb. Injuries typically occur from forced abduction of the thumb or repetitive abduction movements. Diagnosis is made through X-ray to rule out associated fractures and lateral stress testing. Ultrasound or MRI may be required for further evaluation. Surgical repair is necessary due to the functional importance of the UCL, although partial tears may be managed with a thumb spica splint and physiotherapy.

      Ruptured Radial Collateral Ligament (RCL):
      The mechanism of injury is more consistent with a UCL injury, and swelling is localized to the ulnar aspect of the MCP joint.

      Scaphoid Fracture:
      Typically caused by a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand (FOOSH), scaphoid injuries present with tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain on axial compression of the thumb, tenderness over the scaphoid tubercle, or pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist.

      Simple Thumb Dislocation:
      The thumb is bruised and swollen but not deformed. X-ray does not show any fracture or dislocation.

      Undisplaced Proximal Phalanx Fracture:
      The X-ray shows no evidence of fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with symmetrical...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with symmetrical reticulated, violaceous patches. These patches become more prominent in cold weather and involve both lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Livedo reticularis

      Explanation:

      Livedo Reticularis

      Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. This occurs due to the dilation of capillary blood vessels and the stagnation of blood within these vessels. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.

      Livedo reticularis can be idiopathic, meaning it has no known cause, or it can be secondary to other conditions such as malignancy, vasculitis, SLE, or cholesterol embolization. The condition is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries, which leads to the discoloration of the skin.

      In summary, livedo reticularis is a skin condition that causes a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. It is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries and can be idiopathic or secondary to other conditions. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman (an immigrant from India) complained of lower back and pelvic...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman (an immigrant from India) complained of lower back and pelvic pain, as well as weakness when climbing stairs. Her physician suspects that she may have a vitamin D deficiency.
      Which of the following blood tests would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium 7.9 mg/dl (8.4–10.2 mg/dl)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Laboratory Results of Vitamin D Deficiency

      Vitamin D deficiency can lead to various health problems, including hypocalcaemia and osteoporosis. To diagnose this deficiency, laboratory tests are conducted to measure the levels of different substances in the blood. Here is an explanation of some of the common laboratory results associated with vitamin D deficiency:

      – Serum calcium: A low level of serum calcium is a common indicator of vitamin D deficiency. This is because vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestine and its reabsorption in the kidneys.
      – Alkaline phosphatase: Vitamin D deficiency can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism, which leads to increased bone turnover. This, in turn, results in high levels of alkaline phosphatase.
      – Serum phosphate: Due to secondary hyperparathyroidism, there is phosphaturia, which causes low levels of serum phosphate.
      – 25-(OH) D3 level: The best way to diagnose vitamin D deficiency is by measuring the levels of 25-(OH) D3 in the blood. Normal levels would exclude vitamin D deficiency.
      – Magnesium level: Magnesium and vitamin D levels are correlated, but the mechanism for this is still unknown. In vitamin D deficiency, magnesium levels tend to be low or normal, but they are never high.

      In conclusion, understanding the laboratory results associated with vitamin D deficiency can help in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department at 37 weeks of pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department at 37 weeks of pregnancy with a chief complaint of feeling unwell and having a fever. Upon examination, she is found to have a temperature of 38ºC and a heart rate of 110 bpm. The fetus is also tachycardic. The patient reports experiencing urinary incontinence three weeks ago, followed by some discharge, but denies any other symptoms. What is the probable cause of her current condition?

      Your Answer: Chorioamnionitis

      Explanation:

      When dealing with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM), it’s important to consider the possibility of chorioamnionitis in women who exhibit a combination of maternal pyrexia, maternal tachycardia, and fetal tachycardia. While other conditions like pelvic inflammatory disease and urinary tract infections may also be considered, chorioamnionitis is the most probable diagnosis. Immediate cesarean section and intravenous antibiotics will likely be necessary.

      Understanding Chorioamnionitis

      Chorioamnionitis is a serious medical condition that can affect both the mother and the foetus during pregnancy. It is caused by a bacterial infection that affects the amniotic fluid, membranes, and placenta. This condition is considered a medical emergency and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It is more likely to occur when the membranes rupture prematurely, but it can also happen when the membranes are still intact.

      Prompt delivery of the foetus is crucial in treating chorioamnionitis, and a cesarean section may be necessary. Intravenous antibiotics are also administered to help fight the infection. This condition affects up to 5% of all pregnancies, and it is important for pregnant women to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may have chorioamnionitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are observing an antenatal clinic and your next patient is a 26-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are observing an antenatal clinic and your next patient is a 26-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant with her first child. Take a brief history of this patient.

      The patient has a past medical history of coeliac disease and hypothyroidism. She takes no regular medications and has no known drug allergies. Her family history is relevant for her father has type 1 diabetes. She has never smoked and since pregnancy, has stopped drinking alcohol.

      What additional tests, if any, should be arranged for this patient based on her medical history?

      Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a first-degree relative with diabetes should be screened for gestational diabetes with an OGTT at 24-28 weeks. No further tests are required, but thyroid function tests should be done in each trimester for those with an existing diagnosis of hypothyroidism. OGTT should not be done at 18-22 weeks.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old male arrived at the emergency department with a humeral shaft fracture...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male arrived at the emergency department with a humeral shaft fracture after falling from a rooftop during a party. He admits to taking recreational drugs before the incident but is unsure of what he consumed. After receiving analgesia, he undergoes surgery to fix his fracture with a coaptation splint and functional brace. The next day, he reports suprapubic pain and difficulty urinating, leading to a diagnosis of acute urinary retention. What drug is the probable cause of his urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Morphine sulfate

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention is a common side effect of opioid analgesia, with morphine sulfate being a frequent culprit. While cannabis contains THC, which produces a psychoactive effect, it is not typically associated with acute urinary retention. Cocaine overdose can cause cardiovascular and sympathetic effects, but not an increased risk of urinary retention. Ketamine use may lead to ketamine bladder syndrome, which causes urinary frequency and urgency rather than retention.

      Drugs that can cause urinary retention

      Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 4-week-old baby girl is brought to the GP with feeding difficulties, increased...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old baby girl is brought to the GP with feeding difficulties, increased respiratory effort, and poor weight gain over the past two weeks. During the examination, the GP notes a parasternal heave and a loud systolic murmur at the lower left sternal border.
      What is the true statement about this condition?

      Your Answer: Following closure of this defect, the patient is no longer considered at high risk of developing infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

      Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart condition where there is a hole in the wall separating the two lower chambers of the heart. Here are some important points to know about VSD:

      Closure of the defect reduces the risk of infective endocarditis: Once the VSD is surgically repaired, the patient is no longer considered at high risk of developing infective endocarditis. Therefore, prophylactic antibiotics are not required before high-risk procedures.

      Cardiac catheterisation is not always necessary for diagnosis: While cardiac catheterisation was previously used to diagnose VSD, echocardiography methods have advanced, making it less invasive and more accurate.

      Prophylactic antibiotics are not always necessary for dental procedures: Patients with surgically repaired VSD are not considered at high risk of developing infective endocarditis following dental work, so prophylactic antibiotics are not indicated. However, immunocompromised patients may require antibiotics.

      Spontaneous closure is more common in infants: VSDs in infants under one year of age are more likely to close spontaneously. After the age of two, spontaneous closure is less likely.

      Surgical repair is indicated for uncontrolled heart failure: If a patient with VSD shows signs of uncontrolled heart failure, including poor growth, surgical repair may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man comes in for his routine cardiology appointment. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes in for his routine cardiology appointment. He has a history of heart failure and atrial fibrillation and has been taking amiodarone for the past 6 months. The patient reports feeling generally well but has been experiencing increased fatigue lately. He denies any chest pain, palpitations, or shortness of breath. Thyroid function tests are ordered and come back with the following results: TSH 10 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and free T4 6 pmol/L (9.0-18). What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Continue amiodarone and start levothyroxine

      Explanation:

      In cases of amiodarone induced hypothyroidism, it is appropriate to continue amiodarone while also starting levothyroxine. This patient’s thyroid function tests indicate hypothyroidism, likely contributing to her fatigue. Amiodarone use can lead to thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients, with hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism being possible outcomes. While patients with hyperthyroidism should ideally discontinue amiodarone, those with hypothyroidism can continue taking it alongside levothyroxine to manage their condition. The risks associated with stopping amiodarone outweigh the risks of taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism induced by it. Monitoring thyroid function tests every 6 months while continuing amiodarone is not appropriate in this case, as the patient is clinically hypothyroid and requires treatment with levothyroxine. Referring the patient to endocrinology and stopping amiodarone are also not necessary, as hypothyroidism is a common side effect of amiodarone and established guidelines exist for managing it. Most patients can remain on amiodarone while receiving replacement levothyroxine. Stopping amiodarone may increase the risk of stroke by increasing the chance of the patient reverting to atrial fibrillation. Repeating thyroid function tests in 6 weeks is also not appropriate, as most patients with amiodarone induced hypothyroidism will return to normal thyroid function within 3-6 months.

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).

      The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.

      On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      43.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (2/2) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed