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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old HIV-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness and is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old HIV-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness and is diagnosed with disseminated tuberculosis. During examination, he exhibits hypotension and hyperpigmentation of the mucosa, elbows, and skin creases. Further testing reveals a diagnosis of Addison's disease. What is the most common biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Increased potassium

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Findings in Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a condition characterized by primary adrenocortical insufficiency, which is caused by the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. The most prominent biochemical findings in patients with Addison’s disease are hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and mild non-anion gap metabolic acidosis. This article discusses the various biochemical changes that occur in Addison’s disease, including increased potassium, increased glucose, increased bicarbonate, increased sodium, and reduced urea. These changes are a result of the loss of gland function, which leads to reduced glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function. The sodium-retaining and potassium and hydrogen ion-secreting action of aldosterone is particularly affected, resulting in the biochemical changes noted above. The article also highlights the most common causes of Addison’s disease, including tuberculosis, autoimmune disease, and removal of exogenous steroid therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The results of a phase 3 study on a new antihypertensive is published...

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    • The results of a phase 3 study on a new antihypertensive is published (n = 8,000). Compared with placebo, there is a mean reduction of 6 mmHg in favour of the treatment group when added to medication in patients who have failed to achieve blood pressure control on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi). The 95% confidence interval for the difference in blood pressure lies between 1.9 mmHg and 10.1 mmHg.
      Which of the following is most accurate regarding this medication?

      Your Answer: The difference in blood pressure is statistically significant at the 5% significance level

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Blood Pressure Reduction Data for a New Medication

      Interpretation of the Data:

      The data provided shows that the difference in blood pressure is statistically significant at the 5% significance level, as the 95% confidence interval does not include the value 0. However, it is unclear whether this medication offers advantages compared with other treatments, as a number of established anti-hypertensives may result in a similar magnitude of blood pressure reduction.

      It is also important to note that the difference in blood pressure of 6 mmHg may be considered clinically significant in terms of leading to measurable reduction in morbidity and mortality. Therefore, it is possible that this medication could offer benefits in terms of reducing cardiovascular events such as stroke, myocardial infarction, and heart failure.

      However, whether this medication should be licensed is not just a question of efficacy, but also a full evaluation of the benefit-risk profile of the product. Without information about the side-effect profile of this medication, it is difficult to make a definitive recommendation.

      Overall, while the data suggests that this medication may offer benefits in terms of reducing blood pressure, further evaluation is needed to determine its overall effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago....

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    • A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago. Upon examination, she has a smooth, small goiter and a pulse rate of 68 bpm. Her lab results show a Free T4 level of 9.3 pmol/L (normal range: 9.8-23.1) and a TSH level of 49.3 mU/L (normal range: 0.35-5.50). What additional test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Primary Hypothyroidism

      The patient’s test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely cause of this condition is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. While the patient has a goitre, it appears to be smooth and non-threatening, so a thyroid ultrasound is not necessary. Additionally, a radio-iodine uptake scan is unlikely to show significant uptake and is therefore not recommended. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the likely diagnosis in this case. For further information on Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, patients can refer to Patient.info.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 22-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of redness, watering,...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of redness, watering, and burning in both eyes for the past week. Upon examination, her vision is 6/6 in both eyes, but the conjunctivae are diffusely injected. Tender preauricular lymphadenopathy is noticeable when the face and neck are palpated. Further questioning reveals that she also has a sore throat and a stuffy nose. What is the initial treatment for this patient's eye issue?

      Your Answer: Supportive measures with cool compresses and artificial tears

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Viral Conjunctivitis

      Viral conjunctivitis, also known as pink eye, is a common condition that can cause redness, itching, and discharge in the eyes. While there is no cure for viral conjunctivitis, there are several treatment options available to help manage the symptoms.

      The first-line treatment for viral conjunctivitis is supportive care, which typically involves using cool compresses and artificial tears to soothe the eyes. These measures can help reduce inflammation and relieve discomfort, and the condition will usually resolve on its own over time.

      While an eye shield is not typically necessary for viral conjunctivitis, some doctors may recommend using topical chloramphenicol eye drops to prevent secondary bacterial infections. However, this is not a first-line treatment and is not always necessary.

      Topical steroids, such as prednisolone and dexamethasone eye drops, are not recommended for the treatment of viral conjunctivitis. While these medications can help reduce inflammation, they can also increase the risk of complications and should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

      In summary, the best course of action for treating viral conjunctivitis is to focus on supportive care with cool compresses and artificial tears. If necessary, your doctor may recommend additional treatments to help manage your symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are requested to assess a 38-week-gestation boy in the postnatal ward who...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 38-week-gestation boy in the postnatal ward who is now 36-hours-old. The baby was delivered via forceps and has noticeable facial bruising. He is being formula-fed and is progressing well in the postnatal period except for an elevated transcutaneous bilirubin measurement. What could be the probable reason for the raised bilirubin level in this newborn?

      Your Answer: Bruising

      Explanation:

      Elevated bilirubin levels can result from bruising during birth, which causes hemolysis. Bruising in the neonatal stage can also lead to increased bilirubin levels due to the breakdown of haemoglobin. Preterm babies and those who are breastfed are more likely to develop jaundice. The baby’s medical history and examination do not indicate any signs of infection. Jaundice is not associated with being male.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he sustained while playing basketball. Upon examination, you discover an anterior dislocation of his right shoulder. What pre- and post-relocation test must you perform?

      Your Answer: Examine axillary nerve function in the affected arm

      Explanation:

      Assessing Vascular and Nerve Injury in Anterior Shoulder Dislocation: Important Tests to Consider

      When examining a patient with anterior shoulder dislocation, it is crucial to assess for vascular and nerve injury in the affected arm. One way to test nerve function is by assessing sensation in the regimental patch area over the deltoid muscle. An X-ray before and after relocation is necessary to check for fractures and confirm successful reduction. If there is vascular injury, it will be evident from the examination of the limb, and urgent referral to surgeons is required. Checking the brachial pulse is acceptable to assess for vascular injury, and examining axillary nerve function before and after relocation is mandatory. Ultrasound of the affected limb may be helpful in identifying soft tissue injuries, but it is not as crucial as the other tests mentioned. Overall, a thorough assessment of vascular and nerve function is essential in managing anterior shoulder dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A newly born infant is observed to have clubfoot on both feet. What...

    Correct

    • A newly born infant is observed to have clubfoot on both feet. What is the preferred treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Manipulation and progressive casting starting soon after birth

      Explanation:

      Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Foot Deformity in Newborns

      Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a foot deformity characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot. It is a common condition that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns, with a higher incidence in males. In about 50% of cases, the deformity is present in both feet. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.

      Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically made during the newborn exam, and imaging is not usually necessary. The deformity is not passively correctable, and the diagnosis is based on clinical examination.

      In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management of talipes equinovarus, with the Ponseti method being the preferred approach. This method involves manipulation and progressive casting of the foot, starting soon after birth. The deformity is usually corrected within 6-10 weeks, and an Achilles tenotomy may be required in some cases. Night-time braces are then used until the child is 4 years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in about 15% of cases.

      Overall, talipes equinovarus is a common foot deformity in newborns that can be effectively managed with conservative methods such as the Ponseti method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash on her torso. She reports experiencing flares of this condition since her late twenties and has been admitted to ITU in the past for intravenous medications, although she cannot recall their names. Her current medications include paracetamol 1g PRN and naproxen 500 mg PRN. On examination, she exhibits tenderness in multiple joints, including her hips, knees, wrists, shoulders, and small joints of her hands. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, blood pressure of 96/65 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 98% on room air, and temperature of 39ÂșC. Laboratory results reveal elevated CRP and ferritin levels, as well as mild leukocytosis and anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adult-onset Still's disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of adult-onset Still’s disease, including fever, polyarthralgia, and rash. The elevated ferritin levels also suggest this diagnosis, as ferritin is commonly used to monitor disease activity in these patients. It is important to note that severe flares of this disease can mimic sepsis. Treatment options include biologic therapies like anti-TNFs and anakinra, as well as traditional DMARDs and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. While rheumatoid arthritis is a possible differential diagnosis, the triad of symptoms is more commonly associated with Still’s disease. Septic arthritis typically presents as monoarthritis or oligoarthritis, not polyarthritis. Additionally, the rash described is not indicative of psoriasis. It is worth noting that this is a case of adult-onset Still’s disease, as the patient began experiencing symptoms in their twenties.

      Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.

      Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      103.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent...

    Correct

    • What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent migraine episodes?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Agents for Migraine Treatment

      Migraine is a neurological condition that causes severe headaches, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. While Sumatriptan is an effective treatment for acute migraine attacks, it does not prevent them from occurring. Therefore, prophylactic agents are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks.

      First-line prophylactic agents include beta-blockers without partial agonism and Topiramate. Beta-blockers are used if there are no contraindications, while Topiramate is a medication that is specifically approved for migraine prevention. Second-line prophylactic agents include Sodium valproate and Amitriptyline, which is used when migraine coexists with tension-type headache, disturbed sleep, or depression. Clinical experience in migraine treatment is currently greater with valproate.

      Third-line prophylactic agents include Gabapentin, Methysergide, Pizotifen, and Verapamil. These medications are used when first and second-line treatments have failed or are not tolerated. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that has been shown to be effective in reducing the frequency of migraine attacks. Methysergide is a serotonin receptor antagonist that is used for chronic migraine prevention. Pizotifen is a serotonin antagonist that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks.

      In conclusion, prophylactic agents are an important part of migraine treatment. The choice of medication depends on the patient’s medical history, the severity and frequency of migraine attacks, and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective prophylactic agent for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old construction worker has had a fall from scaffolding at work and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old construction worker has had a fall from scaffolding at work and you suspect a midshaft humeral fracture. Which nerve would be most at risk in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Extend the wrist

      Explanation:

      Fractures in the middle of the humerus bone often result in damage to the radial nerve. Therefore, it is important to test the function of the radial nerve. Among the options given, only extending the wrist can effectively test the radial nerve as it provides innervation to the extensor muscles. If the radial nerve is affected, it can cause wrist drop.
      While extending the elbow can also test the radial nerve, it may not provide as much information as wrist extension because the injury may be located proximal to the innervation of the triceps. This means that a more distal injury could be missed. Nonetheless, it is still likely to be performed as part of the testing process.
      Reference:
      Shao YC, Harwood P, Grotz MR, et al. (2005). Radial nerve palsy associated with fractures of the shaft of the humerus: a systematic review. J Bone Joint Surg Br; 87(12):1647-52.

      Anatomy and Function of the Radial Nerve

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It has both motor and sensory functions, innervating muscles in the arm and forearm, as well as providing sensation to the dorsal aspect of the hand.

      The nerve follows a path from the axilla, where it lies posterior to the axillary artery on subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, and teres major, to the arm, where it enters between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. It spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. Damage to the nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. In the forearm, the nerve innervates the supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor digiti minimi, extensor pollicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus. Paralysis of these muscles can result in weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the radial nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect its function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      58.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
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